Our Shop

Medical-Surgical Nursing Making Connections to Practice 1st edition Hoffman, Sullivan Test Bank

£19.00

Edition: 1st Edition

Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille

Resource Type: Test bank

Duration: Unlimited downloads

Delivery: Instant Download

Share:

Medical-Surgical Nursing: Making Connections to Practice 1st edition Hoffman, Sullivan Test Bank

 

Chapter 1: Foundations for Medical-Surgical Nursing

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. The medical-surgical nurse identifies a clinical practice issue and wants to determine if there is sufficient evidence to support a change in practice. Which type of study provides the strongest evidence to support a
practice change?
1) Randomized control study
2) Quasi-experimental study
3) Case-control study
4) Cohort study

____ 2. The medical-surgical unit recently implemented a patient-centered care model. Which action implemented by
the nurse supports this model?
1) Evaluating care
2) Assessing needs
3) Diagnosing problems
4) Providing compassion

____ 3. Which action should the nurse implement when providing patient care in order to support The Joint
Commission’s (TJC) National Patient Safety Goals (NPSG)?
1) Silencing a cardiorespiratory monitor
2) Identifying each patient using one source
3) Determining patient safety issues upon admission
4) Decreasing the amount of pain medication administered

____ 4. Which interprofessional role does the nurse often assume when providing patient care in an acute care
setting?
1) Social worker
2) Client advocate
3) Care coordinator
4) Massage therapist

____ 5. The medical-surgical nurse wants to determine if a policy change is needed for an identified clinical problem.
Which is the first action the nurse should implement?
1) Developing a question
2) Disseminating the findings
3) Conducting a review of the literature
4) Evaluating outcomes of practice change

____ 6. The nurse is evaluating the level of evidence found during a recent review of the literature. Which evidence
carries the lowest level of support for a practice change?
1) Level IV
2) Level V
3) Level VI
4) Level VII

____ 7. The nurse is reviewing evidence from a quasi-experimental research study. Which level of evidence should
the nurse identify for this research study?
1) Level ITestBankWorld.org
2) Level II
3) Level III
4) Level IV

____ 8. Which level of evidence should the nurse identify when reviewing evidence from a single descriptive research
study?
1) Level IV
2) Level V
3) Level VI
4) Level VII

____ 9. Which statement should the nurse make when communicating the “S” in the SBAR approach for effective
communication?
1) “The patient presented to the emergency department at 0200 with lower left abdominal
pain.”
2) “The patient rated the pain upon admission as a 9 on a 10-point numeric scale.”
3) “The patient has no significant issues in the medical history.”
4) “The patient was given a prescribed opioid analgesic at 0300.”
____ 10. The staff nurse is communicating with the change nurse about the change of status of the patient. The nurse
would begin her communication with which statement if correctly using the SBAR format?
1) “The patient’s heartrate is 110.”
2) “I think this patient needs to be transferred to the critical care unit.”
3) “The patient is a 68-year-old male patient admitted last night.”
4) “The patient is complaining of chest pain.”
____ 11. Which nursing action exemplifies the Quality and Safety Education for Nursing (QSEN) competency of
safety?
1) Advocating for a patient who is experiencing pain
2) Considering the patient’s culture when planning care
3) Evaluating patient learning style prior to implementing discharge instructions
4) Assessing the right drug prior to administering a prescribed patient medication
____ 12. Which type of nursing is the root of all other nursing practice areas?
1) Pediatric nursing
2) Geriatric nursing
3) Medical-surgical nursing
4) Mental health-psychiatric nursing
____ 13. Which did the Nursing Executive Center of The Advisory Board identify as an academic-practice gap for new
graduate nurses?
1) Patient advocacy
2) Patient education
3) Disease pathophysiology
4) Therapeutic communication
____ 14. Which statement regarding the use of the nursing process in clinical practice is accurate?
1) “The nursing process is closely related to clinical decision-making.”
2) “The nursing process is used by all members of the interprofessional team to plan care.”
3) “The nursing process has 4 basic steps: assessment, planning, implementation,
evaluation.”
4) “The nursing process is being replaced by the implementation of evidence-based practice.”TestBankWorld.org
____ 15. Which is the basis of nursing care practices and protocols?
1) Assessment
2) Evaluation
3) Diagnosis
4) Research
____ 16. Which is a common theme regarding patient dissatisfaction related to care provided in the hospital setting?
1) Space in hospital rooms
2) Medications received to treat pain
3) Time spent with the health-care team
4) Poor quality food received from dietary
____ 17. The nurse manager is preparing a medical-surgical unit for The Joint Commission (TJC) visit With the nurse
manager presenting staff education focusing on TJC benchmarks, which of the following topics would be
most appropriate?
1) Implementation of evidence-based practice
2) Implementation of patient-centered care
3) Implementation of medical asepsis practices
4) Implementation of interprofessional care
____ 18. Which aspect of patient-centered care should the nurse manager evaluate prior to The Joint Commission site
visit for accreditation?
1) Visitation rights
2) Education level of staff
3) Fall prevention protocol
4) Infection control practices
____ 19. The medical-surgical nurse is providing patient care. Which circumstance would necessitate the nurse
verifying the patient’s identification using at least two sources?
1) Prior to delivering a meal tray
2) Prior to passive range of motion
3) Prior to medication administration
4) Prior to documenting in the medical record
____ 20. The nurse is providing care to several patients on a medical-surgical unit. Which situation would necessitate
the nurse to use SBAR during the hand-off process?
1) Wound care
2) Discharge to home
3) Transfer to radiology
4) Medication education
Multiple Response
Identify one or more choices that best complete the statement or answer the question.
____ 21. The staff nurse is teaching a group of student nurses the situations that necessitate hand-off communication.
Which student responses indicate the need for further education related to this procedure? Select all that
apply.
1) “A hand-off is required prior to administering a medication.”
2) “A hand-off is required during change of shift.”
3) “A hand-off is required for a patient is transferred to the surgical suite.”TestBankWorld.org
4) “A hand-off is required whenever the nurse receives a new patient assignment.”
5) “A hand-off is required prior to family visitation.”
____ 22. Which actions by the nurse enhance patient safety during medication administration? Select all that apply.
1) Answering the call bell while transporting medications for a different patient
2) Identifying the patient using two sources prior to administering the medication
3) Holding a medication if the patient’s diagnosis does not support its use
4) Administering the medication two hours after the scheduled time
5) Having another nurse verify the prescribed dose of insulin the patient is to receive
____ 23. The medical-surgical nurse assumes care for a patient who is receiving continuous cardiopulmonary
monitoring. Which actions by the nurse enhance safety for this patient? Select all that apply.
1) Silencing the alarm during family visitation
2) Assessing the alarm parameters at the start of the shift
3) Responding to the alarm in a timely fashion
4) Decreasing the alarm volume to enhance restful sleep
5) Adjusting alarm parameters based on specified practitioner prescription
____ 24. The nurse is planning an interprofessional care conference for a patient who is approaching discharge from
the hospital. Which members of the interprofessional team should the nurse invite to attend? Select all that
apply.
1) Physician
2) Pharmacist
3) Unit secretary
4) Social worker
5) Home care aide
____ 25. The nurse manager wants to designate a member of the nursing team as the care coordinator for a patient who
will require significant care during the hospitalization. Which skills should this nurse possess in order to
assume this role? Select all that apply.
1) Effective clinical reasoning
2) Effective communication skills
3) Effective infection control procedures
4) Effective documentation
5) Effective intravenous skillsTestBankWorld.org
Chapter 1: Foundations for Medical-Surgical Nursing
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. ANS: 1
Chapter number and title: 1, Foundations for Medical Surgical Practice
Chapter learning objective: Discussing the incorporation of evidence-based practices into medical-surgical
nursing
Chapter page reference: 003-004
Heading: Evidence-Based Nursing Care
Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Planning
Client Need: Safe and Effective Care Environment/Management of Care
Cognitive level: Comprehension [Understanding]
Concept: Evidence-Based Practice
Difficulty: Easy
Feedback
1 Systematic reviews of randomized control studies (Level I) are the highest level of
evidence because they include data from selected studies that randomly assigned
participants to control and experimental groups. The lower the numerical rating of the
level of evidence indicates the highest level of evidence; therefore, this type of study
provides the strongest evidence to support a practice change.
2 Quasi-experimental studies are considered Level III; therefore, this study does not
provide the strongest evidence to support a practice change.
3 Case-control studies are considered Level IV; therefore, this study does not provide the
strongest evidence to support a practice change.
4 Cohort studies are considered Level IV; therefore, this study does not provide the
strongest evidence to support a practice change.
PTS: 1 CON: Evidence-Based Practice
2. ANS: 4
Chapter number and title: 1, Foundations of Medical-Surgical Practice
Chapter learning objective: Explaining the importance of patient-centered care in the management of
medical-surgical patients
Chapter page reference: 004-005
Heading: Patient-Centered Care in the Medical-Surgical Setting
Integrated Processes: Caring
Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
Cognitive level: Application [Applying]
Concept: Nursing Roles
Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
1 Evaluation is a step in the nursing process; however, this is not an action that supports
the patient-centered care model.
2 Assessment is a step in the nursing process; however, this is not an action that supports
the patient-centered care model.TestBankWorld.org
3 Diagnosis is a step in the nursing process; however, this is not an action that supports
the patient-centered care model.
4 Compassion is a competency closely associated with patient-centered care; therefore,
this action supports the patient-centered model of care.
PTS: 1 CON: Nursing Roles
3. ANS: 3
Chapter number and title: 1, Foundations of Medical-Surgical Nursing Practice
Chapter learning objective: Discussing implications to medical-surgical nurses of Quality and Safety
Education for Nurses (QSEN) competencies
Chapter page reference: 005-006
Heading: Patient Safety Outcomes
Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Implementation
Client Need: Safe and Effective Care Environment/Management of Care
Cognitive level: Application [Applying]
Concept: Safety
Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
1 Safely using alarms is a NPSG identified by TJC. Silencing a cardiorespiratory monitor
is not nursing action that supports this NPSG.
2 Patient identification using two separate resources is a NPSG identified by TJC.
Identifying a patient using only one source does not support this NPSG.
3 Identification of patient safety risks is a NPSG identified by the TJC. Determining
patient safety issues upon admission supports this NPSG.
4 Safe use of medication is a NPSG identified by the TJC. Decreasing the amount of pain
medication administered does not support this NPSG.
PTS: 1 CON: Safety
4. ANS: 3
Chapter number and title: 1, Foundations of Medical-Surgical Nursing Practice
Chapter learning objective: Describing the role and competencies of medical-surgical nursing
Chapter page reference: 006-007
Heading: Interprofessional Collaboration and Communication
Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Implementation
Client Need: Safe and Effective Care Environment/Management of Care
Cognitive level: Comprehension [Understanding]
Concept: Nursing Roles
Difficulty: Easy
Feedback
1 The nurse does not often assume the interprofessional role of social worker when
providing patient care in an acute care setting.
2 The nurse does not often assume the interprofessional role of client advocate role when
providing patient care in an acute care setting.
3 The nurse often assumes the interprofessional role of care coordinator when providing
patient care in an acute care setting.
4 The nurse does not often assume the interprofessional role of massage therapist when
providing patient care in an acute care setting.TestBankWorld.org
PTS: 1 CON: Nursing Roles
5. ANS: 1
Chapter number and title: 1, Foundations of Medical-Surgical Practice
Chapter learning objective: Discussing the incorporation of evidence-based practices into medical-surgical
nursing
Chapter page reference: 003
Heading: Box 1.3 Steps of Evidence-Based Practice
Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Implementation
Client Need: Safe and Effective Care Environment/Management of Care
Cognitive level: Analysis [Analyzing]
Concept: Evidence-Based Practice
Difficulty: Difficult
Feedback
1 The first step of evidence-based practice is to develop a question based on the clinical
issue.
2 The last step of evidence-based practice is to disseminate findings.
3 The second step of evidence-based practice is to conduct a review of the literature, or
current evidence, available.
4 The fifth step of evidence-based practice is to evaluate the outcomes associated with the
practice change.
PTS: 1 CON: Evidence-Based Practice
6. ANS: 4
Chapter number and title: 1, Foundations of Medical-Surgical Nursing Practice
Chapter learning objective: Discussing the incorporation of evidence-based practices into medical-surgical
nursing
Chapter page reference: 004
Heading: Box 1.4 Evaluating Levels of Evidence
Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Planning
Client Need: Safe and Effective Care Environment/Management of Care
Cognitive level: Comprehension [Understanding]
Concept: Evidence-Based Practice
Difficulty: Easy
Feedback
1 The lower the numeric value of the evidence the greater the support for a change in
practice. Level IV evidence does not carry the lowest level of support for a practice
change.
2 The lower the numeric value of the evidence the greater the support for a change in
practice. Level V evidence does not carry the lowest level of support for a practice
change.
3 The lower the numeric value of the evidence the greater the support for a change in
practice. Level VI evidence does not carry the lowest level of support for a practice
change.
4 The lower the numeric value of the evidence the greater the support for a change in
practice. Level VII evidence carries the lowest level of support for a practice change.

Quick Comparison

SettingsMedical-Surgical Nursing Making Connections to Practice 1st edition Hoffman, Sullivan Test Bank removeTest Bank Focus on Nursing Pharmacology 8th Edition removeTest bank for Maternal Child Nursing Care 6th Edition Perry removeTest Bank for Wongs Essentials of Pediatric Nursing 10th Edition by Hockenberry removeTest Bank for Claytons Basic Pharmacology for Nurses 18th Edition by Willihnganz removeTest Bank for Psychiatric Mental Health Nursing 8th Edition by Townsend remove
Image
SKU
Rating
Price

£19.00

£21.00

£17.00

£13.00

£13.00

£13.00

Stock
Availability
Add to cart

DescriptionEdition: 1st Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadEdition: 8th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadEdition: 6th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadBy: Hockenberry Edition: 10th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadBy: Willihnganz Edition: 18th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadBy: Townsend Edition: 8th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant Download
Content

Medical-Surgical Nursing: Making Connections to Practice 1st edition Hoffman, Sullivan Test Bank

 

Chapter 1: Foundations for Medical-Surgical Nursing

Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. The medical-surgical nurse identifies a clinical practice issue and wants to determine if there is sufficient evidence to support a change in practice. Which type of study provides the strongest evidence to support a practice change? 1) Randomized control study 2) Quasi-experimental study 3) Case-control study 4) Cohort study

____ 2. The medical-surgical unit recently implemented a patient-centered care model. Which action implemented by the nurse supports this model? 1) Evaluating care 2) Assessing needs 3) Diagnosing problems 4) Providing compassion

____ 3. Which action should the nurse implement when providing patient care in order to support The Joint Commission’s (TJC) National Patient Safety Goals (NPSG)? 1) Silencing a cardiorespiratory monitor 2) Identifying each patient using one source 3) Determining patient safety issues upon admission 4) Decreasing the amount of pain medication administered

____ 4. Which interprofessional role does the nurse often assume when providing patient care in an acute care setting? 1) Social worker 2) Client advocate 3) Care coordinator 4) Massage therapist

____ 5. The medical-surgical nurse wants to determine if a policy change is needed for an identified clinical problem. Which is the first action the nurse should implement? 1) Developing a question 2) Disseminating the findings 3) Conducting a review of the literature 4) Evaluating outcomes of practice change

____ 6. The nurse is evaluating the level of evidence found during a recent review of the literature. Which evidence carries the lowest level of support for a practice change? 1) Level IV 2) Level V 3) Level VI 4) Level VII

____ 7. The nurse is reviewing evidence from a quasi-experimental research study. Which level of evidence should the nurse identify for this research study? 1) Level ITestBankWorld.org 2) Level II 3) Level III 4) Level IV

____ 8. Which level of evidence should the nurse identify when reviewing evidence from a single descriptive research study? 1) Level IV 2) Level V 3) Level VI 4) Level VII

____ 9. Which statement should the nurse make when communicating the “S” in the SBAR approach for effective communication? 1) “The patient presented to the emergency department at 0200 with lower left abdominal pain.” 2) “The patient rated the pain upon admission as a 9 on a 10-point numeric scale.” 3) “The patient has no significant issues in the medical history.” 4) “The patient was given a prescribed opioid analgesic at 0300.” ____ 10. The staff nurse is communicating with the change nurse about the change of status of the patient. The nurse would begin her communication with which statement if correctly using the SBAR format? 1) “The patient’s heartrate is 110.” 2) “I think this patient needs to be transferred to the critical care unit.” 3) “The patient is a 68-year-old male patient admitted last night.” 4) “The patient is complaining of chest pain.” ____ 11. Which nursing action exemplifies the Quality and Safety Education for Nursing (QSEN) competency of safety? 1) Advocating for a patient who is experiencing pain 2) Considering the patient’s culture when planning care 3) Evaluating patient learning style prior to implementing discharge instructions 4) Assessing the right drug prior to administering a prescribed patient medication ____ 12. Which type of nursing is the root of all other nursing practice areas? 1) Pediatric nursing 2) Geriatric nursing 3) Medical-surgical nursing 4) Mental health-psychiatric nursing ____ 13. Which did the Nursing Executive Center of The Advisory Board identify as an academic-practice gap for new graduate nurses? 1) Patient advocacy 2) Patient education 3) Disease pathophysiology 4) Therapeutic communication ____ 14. Which statement regarding the use of the nursing process in clinical practice is accurate? 1) “The nursing process is closely related to clinical decision-making.” 2) “The nursing process is used by all members of the interprofessional team to plan care.” 3) “The nursing process has 4 basic steps: assessment, planning, implementation, evaluation.” 4) “The nursing process is being replaced by the implementation of evidence-based practice.”TestBankWorld.org ____ 15. Which is the basis of nursing care practices and protocols? 1) Assessment 2) Evaluation 3) Diagnosis 4) Research ____ 16. Which is a common theme regarding patient dissatisfaction related to care provided in the hospital setting? 1) Space in hospital rooms 2) Medications received to treat pain 3) Time spent with the health-care team 4) Poor quality food received from dietary ____ 17. The nurse manager is preparing a medical-surgical unit for The Joint Commission (TJC) visit With the nurse manager presenting staff education focusing on TJC benchmarks, which of the following topics would be most appropriate? 1) Implementation of evidence-based practice 2) Implementation of patient-centered care 3) Implementation of medical asepsis practices 4) Implementation of interprofessional care ____ 18. Which aspect of patient-centered care should the nurse manager evaluate prior to The Joint Commission site visit for accreditation? 1) Visitation rights 2) Education level of staff 3) Fall prevention protocol 4) Infection control practices ____ 19. The medical-surgical nurse is providing patient care. Which circumstance would necessitate the nurse verifying the patient’s identification using at least two sources? 1) Prior to delivering a meal tray 2) Prior to passive range of motion 3) Prior to medication administration 4) Prior to documenting in the medical record ____ 20. The nurse is providing care to several patients on a medical-surgical unit. Which situation would necessitate the nurse to use SBAR during the hand-off process? 1) Wound care 2) Discharge to home 3) Transfer to radiology 4) Medication education Multiple Response Identify one or more choices that best complete the statement or answer the question. ____ 21. The staff nurse is teaching a group of student nurses the situations that necessitate hand-off communication. Which student responses indicate the need for further education related to this procedure? Select all that apply. 1) “A hand-off is required prior to administering a medication.” 2) “A hand-off is required during change of shift.” 3) “A hand-off is required for a patient is transferred to the surgical suite.”TestBankWorld.org 4) “A hand-off is required whenever the nurse receives a new patient assignment.” 5) “A hand-off is required prior to family visitation.” ____ 22. Which actions by the nurse enhance patient safety during medication administration? Select all that apply. 1) Answering the call bell while transporting medications for a different patient 2) Identifying the patient using two sources prior to administering the medication 3) Holding a medication if the patient’s diagnosis does not support its use 4) Administering the medication two hours after the scheduled time 5) Having another nurse verify the prescribed dose of insulin the patient is to receive ____ 23. The medical-surgical nurse assumes care for a patient who is receiving continuous cardiopulmonary monitoring. Which actions by the nurse enhance safety for this patient? Select all that apply. 1) Silencing the alarm during family visitation 2) Assessing the alarm parameters at the start of the shift 3) Responding to the alarm in a timely fashion 4) Decreasing the alarm volume to enhance restful sleep 5) Adjusting alarm parameters based on specified practitioner prescription ____ 24. The nurse is planning an interprofessional care conference for a patient who is approaching discharge from the hospital. Which members of the interprofessional team should the nurse invite to attend? Select all that apply. 1) Physician 2) Pharmacist 3) Unit secretary 4) Social worker 5) Home care aide ____ 25. The nurse manager wants to designate a member of the nursing team as the care coordinator for a patient who will require significant care during the hospitalization. Which skills should this nurse possess in order to assume this role? Select all that apply. 1) Effective clinical reasoning 2) Effective communication skills 3) Effective infection control procedures 4) Effective documentation 5) Effective intravenous skillsTestBankWorld.org Chapter 1: Foundations for Medical-Surgical Nursing Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. ANS: 1 Chapter number and title: 1, Foundations for Medical Surgical Practice Chapter learning objective: Discussing the incorporation of evidence-based practices into medical-surgical nursing Chapter page reference: 003-004 Heading: Evidence-Based Nursing Care Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Planning Client Need: Safe and Effective Care Environment/Management of Care Cognitive level: Comprehension [Understanding] Concept: Evidence-Based Practice Difficulty: Easy Feedback 1 Systematic reviews of randomized control studies (Level I) are the highest level of evidence because they include data from selected studies that randomly assigned participants to control and experimental groups. The lower the numerical rating of the level of evidence indicates the highest level of evidence; therefore, this type of study provides the strongest evidence to support a practice change. 2 Quasi-experimental studies are considered Level III; therefore, this study does not provide the strongest evidence to support a practice change. 3 Case-control studies are considered Level IV; therefore, this study does not provide the strongest evidence to support a practice change. 4 Cohort studies are considered Level IV; therefore, this study does not provide the strongest evidence to support a practice change. PTS: 1 CON: Evidence-Based Practice 2. ANS: 4 Chapter number and title: 1, Foundations of Medical-Surgical Practice Chapter learning objective: Explaining the importance of patient-centered care in the management of medical-surgical patients Chapter page reference: 004-005 Heading: Patient-Centered Care in the Medical-Surgical Setting Integrated Processes: Caring Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive level: Application [Applying] Concept: Nursing Roles Difficulty: Moderate Feedback 1 Evaluation is a step in the nursing process; however, this is not an action that supports the patient-centered care model. 2 Assessment is a step in the nursing process; however, this is not an action that supports the patient-centered care model.TestBankWorld.org 3 Diagnosis is a step in the nursing process; however, this is not an action that supports the patient-centered care model. 4 Compassion is a competency closely associated with patient-centered care; therefore, this action supports the patient-centered model of care. PTS: 1 CON: Nursing Roles 3. ANS: 3 Chapter number and title: 1, Foundations of Medical-Surgical Nursing Practice Chapter learning objective: Discussing implications to medical-surgical nurses of Quality and Safety Education for Nurses (QSEN) competencies Chapter page reference: 005-006 Heading: Patient Safety Outcomes Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Implementation Client Need: Safe and Effective Care Environment/Management of Care Cognitive level: Application [Applying] Concept: Safety Difficulty: Moderate Feedback 1 Safely using alarms is a NPSG identified by TJC. Silencing a cardiorespiratory monitor is not nursing action that supports this NPSG. 2 Patient identification using two separate resources is a NPSG identified by TJC. Identifying a patient using only one source does not support this NPSG. 3 Identification of patient safety risks is a NPSG identified by the TJC. Determining patient safety issues upon admission supports this NPSG. 4 Safe use of medication is a NPSG identified by the TJC. Decreasing the amount of pain medication administered does not support this NPSG. PTS: 1 CON: Safety 4. ANS: 3 Chapter number and title: 1, Foundations of Medical-Surgical Nursing Practice Chapter learning objective: Describing the role and competencies of medical-surgical nursing Chapter page reference: 006-007 Heading: Interprofessional Collaboration and Communication Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Implementation Client Need: Safe and Effective Care Environment/Management of Care Cognitive level: Comprehension [Understanding] Concept: Nursing Roles Difficulty: Easy Feedback 1 The nurse does not often assume the interprofessional role of social worker when providing patient care in an acute care setting. 2 The nurse does not often assume the interprofessional role of client advocate role when providing patient care in an acute care setting. 3 The nurse often assumes the interprofessional role of care coordinator when providing patient care in an acute care setting. 4 The nurse does not often assume the interprofessional role of massage therapist when providing patient care in an acute care setting.TestBankWorld.org PTS: 1 CON: Nursing Roles 5. ANS: 1 Chapter number and title: 1, Foundations of Medical-Surgical Practice Chapter learning objective: Discussing the incorporation of evidence-based practices into medical-surgical nursing Chapter page reference: 003 Heading: Box 1.3 Steps of Evidence-Based Practice Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Implementation Client Need: Safe and Effective Care Environment/Management of Care Cognitive level: Analysis [Analyzing] Concept: Evidence-Based Practice Difficulty: Difficult Feedback 1 The first step of evidence-based practice is to develop a question based on the clinical issue. 2 The last step of evidence-based practice is to disseminate findings. 3 The second step of evidence-based practice is to conduct a review of the literature, or current evidence, available. 4 The fifth step of evidence-based practice is to evaluate the outcomes associated with the practice change. PTS: 1 CON: Evidence-Based Practice 6. ANS: 4 Chapter number and title: 1, Foundations of Medical-Surgical Nursing Practice Chapter learning objective: Discussing the incorporation of evidence-based practices into medical-surgical nursing Chapter page reference: 004 Heading: Box 1.4 Evaluating Levels of Evidence Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Planning Client Need: Safe and Effective Care Environment/Management of Care Cognitive level: Comprehension [Understanding] Concept: Evidence-Based Practice Difficulty: Easy Feedback 1 The lower the numeric value of the evidence the greater the support for a change in practice. Level IV evidence does not carry the lowest level of support for a practice change. 2 The lower the numeric value of the evidence the greater the support for a change in practice. Level V evidence does not carry the lowest level of support for a practice change. 3 The lower the numeric value of the evidence the greater the support for a change in practice. Level VI evidence does not carry the lowest level of support for a practice change. 4 The lower the numeric value of the evidence the greater the support for a change in practice. Level VII evidence carries the lowest level of support for a practice change.

Test Bank Focus on Nursing Pharmacology 8th Edition

Test Bank - Focus on Nursing Pharmacology (8th Edition by Karch) Table of Contents Chapter 01 - Introduction to Drugs Chapter 02 - Drugs and the Body Chapter 03 - Toxic Effects of Drugs Chapter 04 - The Nursing Process in Drug Therapy and Patient Safety Chapter 05 - Dosage Calculations Chapter 06 - Challenges to Effective Drug Therapy Chapter 07 - Introduction to Cell Physiology Chapter 08 - Antiinfective Agents Chapter 09 - Antibiotics Chapter 10 - Antiviral Agents Chapter 11 - Antifungal Agents Chapter 12 - Antiprotozoal Agents Chapter 13 - Anthelmintic Agents Chapter 14 - Antineoplastic Agents Chapter 15 - Introduction to the Immune Response and Inflammation Chapter 16 - Antiinflammatory, Antiarthritis, and Related Agents Chapter 17 - Immune Modulators Chapter 18 - Vaccines and Sera Chapter 19 - Introduction to Nerves and the Nervous System Chapter 20 - Anxiolytic and Hypnotic Agents Chapter 21 - Antidepressant Agents Chapter 22 - Psychotherapeutic Agents Chapter 23 - Antiseizure Agents Chapter 24 - Antiparkinsonism Agents Chapter 25 - Muscle Relaxants Chapter 26 - Narcotics, Narcotic Antagonists, and Antimigraine Agents Chapter 27 - General and Local Anesthetic Agents Chapter 28 - Neuromuscular Junction Blocking Agents Chapter 29 - Introduction to the Autonomic Nervous System Chapter 30 - Adrenergic Agonists Chapter 31 - Adrenergic Antagonists Chapter 32 - Cholinergic Agonists Chapter 33 - Anticholinergic Agents Chapter 34 - Introduction to the Endocrine System Chapter 35 - Hypothalamic and Pituitary Agents Chapter 36 - Adrenocortical Agents Chapter 37 - Thyroid and Parathyroid Agents Chapter 38 - Agents to Control Blood Glucose Levels Chapter 39 - Introduction to the Reproductive System Chapter 40 - Drugs Affecting the Female Reproductive System Chapter 41 - Drugs Affecting the Male Reproductive System Chapter 42 - Introduction to the Cardiovascular System Chapter 43 - Drugs Affecting Blood Pressure Chapter 44 - Agents for Treating Heart Failure Chapter 45 - Antiarrhythmic Agents Chapter 46 - Antianginal Agents Chapter 47 - Lipid-Lowering Agents Chapter 48 - Drugs Affecting Blood Coagulation Chapter 49 - Drugs Used to Treat Anemias Chapter 50 - Introduction to the Renal System Test Bank - Focus on Nursing Pharmacology (8th Edition by Karch) 2 Chapter 51 - Diuretic Agents Chapter 52 - Drugs Affecting the Urinary Tract and the Bladder Chapter 53 - Introduction to the Respiratory System Chapter 54 - Drugs Acting on the Upper Respiratory Tract Chapter 55 - Drugs Acting on the Lower Respiratory Tract Chapter 56 - Introduction to the Gastrointestinal System Chapter 57 - Drugs Affecting Gastrointestinal Secretions Chapter 58 - Drugs Affecting Gastrointestinal Motility Chapter 59 - Antiemetic Agents

Test Bank for Maternal Child Nursing Care 6th Edition Perry

NURSINGTB.COM Chapter 01: 21st Century Maternity Nursing Perry: Maternal Child Nursing Care, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. When providing care for a pregnant woman, the nurse should be aware that one of the most frequently reported maternal medical risk factors is: a. diabetes mellitus. b. mitral valve prolapse (MVP). c. chronic hypertension. d. anemia. ANS: A The most frequently reported maternal medical risk factors are diabetes and hypertension associated with pregnancy. Both of these conditions are associated with maternal obesity. There are no studies that indicate MVP is among the most frequently reported maternal risk factors. Hypertension associated with pregnancy, not chronic hypertension, is one of the most frequently reported maternal medical risk factors. Although anemia is a concern in pregnancy, it is not one of the most frequently reported maternal medical risk factors in pregnancy. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge OBJ: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiologic Integrity 2. To ensure optimal outcomes for the patient, the contemporary maternity nurse must incorporate both teamwork and communication with clinicians into her care delivery. The SBAR technique of communication is an easy-to-remember mechanism for communication. Which of the following correctly defines this acronym? a. Situation, baseline assessment, response b. Situation, background, assessment, recommendation c. Subjective background, assessment, recommendation d. Situation, background, anticipated recommendation ANS: B The situation, background, assessment, recommendation (SBAR) technique provides a specific framework for communication among health care providers. Failure to communicate is one of the major reasons for errors in health care. The SBAR technique has the potential to serve as a means to reduce errors. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension OBJ: Nursing Process: Assessment, Planning MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment 3. The role of the professional nurse caring for childbearing families has evolved to emphasize: a. providing care to patients directly at the bedside. b. primarily hospital care of maternity patients. c. practice using an evidence-based approach. d. planning patient care to cover longer hospital stays. ANS: C NURSINGTB.COM MATERNAL CHILD NURSING CARE 6TH EDITION PERRY TEST BANKNURSINGTB.COM Professional nurses are part of the team of health care providers who collaboratively care for patients throughout the childbearing cycle. Providing care to patients directly at the bedside is one of the nurse’s tasks; however, it does not encompass the concept of the evolved professional nurse. Throughout the prenatal period, nurses care for women in clinics and physician’s offices and teach classes to help families prepare for childbirth. Nurses also care for childbearing families in birthing centers and in the home. Nurses have been critically important in developing strategies to improve the well-being of women and their infants and have led the efforts to implement clinical practice guidelines using an evidence-based approach. Maternity patients have experienced a decreased, rather than an increased, length of stay over the past two decades. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment 4. A 23-year-old African-American woman is pregnant with her first child. Based on the statistics for infant mortality, which plan is most important for the nurse to implement? a. Perform a nutrition assessment. b. Refer the woman to a social worker. c. Advise the woman to see an obstetrician, not a midwife. d. Explain to the woman the importance of keeping her prenatal care appointments. ANS: D Consistent prenatal care is the best method of preventing or controlling risk factors associated with infant mortality. Nutritional status is an important modifiable risk factor, but a nutrition assessment is not the most important action a nurse should take in this situation. The patient may need assistance from a social worker at some time during her pregnancy, but a referral to a social worker is not the most important aspect the nurse should address at this time. If the woman has identifiable high risk problems, her health care may need to be provided by a physician. However, it cannot be assumed that all African-American women have high risk issues. In addition, advising the woman to see an obstetrician is not the most important aspect on which the nurse should focus at this time, and it is not appropriate for a nurse to advise or manage the type of care a patient is to receive. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application OBJ: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 5. During a prenatal intake interview, the nurse is in the process of obtaining an initial assessment of a 21-year-old Hispanic patient with limited English proficiency. It is important for the nurse to: a. use maternity jargon in order for the patient to become familiar with these terms. b. speak quickly and efficiently to expedite the visit. c. provide the patient with handouts. d. assess whether the patient understands the discussion. ANS: D Nurses contribute to health literacy by using simple, common words; avoiding jargon; and evaluating whether the patient understands the discussion. Speaking slowly and clearly and focusing on what is important increase understanding. Most patient education materials are written at too high a level for the average adult and may not be useful for a patient with limited English proficiency. NURSINGTB.COM MATERNAL CHILD NURSING CARE 6TH EDITION PERRY TEST BANKNURSINGTB.COM PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application OBJ: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 6. When managing health care for pregnant women at a prenatal clinic, the nurse should recognize that the most significant barrier to access to care is the pregnant woman’s: a. age. b. minority status. c. educational level. d. inability to pay. ANS: D The most significant barrier to health care access is the inability to pay for services; this is compounded by the fact that many physicians refuse to care for women who cannot pay. Although adolescent pregnant patients statistically receive less prenatal care, age is not the most significant barrier. Significant disparities in morbidity and mortality rates exist for minority women; however, minority status is not the most significant barrier to access of care. Disparities in educational level are associated with morbidity and mortality rates; however, educational level is not the most significant barrier to access of care. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge OBJ: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment 7. When the nurse is unsure about how to perform a patient care procedure, the best action would be to: a. ask another nurse. b. discuss the procedure with the patient’s physician. c. look up the procedure in a nursing textbook. d. consult the agency’s procedure manual and follow the guidelines for the procedure. ANS: D It is always best to follow the agency’s policies and procedures manual when seeking information on correct patient procedures. These policies should reflect the current standards of care and state guidelines. Each nurse is responsible for her own practice. Relying on another nurse may not always be safe practice. Each nurse is obligated to follow the standards of care for safe patient care delivery. Physicians are responsible for their own patient care activity. Nurses may follow safe orders from physicians, but they are also responsible for the activities that they as nurses are to carry out. Information provided in a nursing textbook is basic information for general knowledge. Furthermore, the information in a textbook may not reflect the current standard of care or individual state or hospital policies. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Client Needs: Physiologic Integrity 8. From the nurse’s perspective, what measure should be the focus of the health care system to reduce the rate of infant mortality further? a. Implementing programs to ensure women’s early participation in ongoing prenatal care. b. Increasing the length of stay in a hospital after vaginal birth from 2 to 3 days. NURSINGTB.COM MATERNAL CHILD NURSING CARE 6TH EDITION PERRY TEST BANKNURSINGTB.COM c. Expanding the number of neonatal intensive care units (NICUs). d. Mandating that all pregnant women receive care from an obstetrician. ANS: A Early prenatal care allows for early diagnosis and appropriate interventions to reduce the rate of infant mortality. An increased length of stay has been shown to foster improved self-care and parental education. However, it does not prevent the incidence of leading causes of infant mortality rates, such as low birth weight. Early prevention and diagnosis reduce the rate of infant mortality. NICUs offer care to high risk infants after they are born. Expanding the number of NICUs would offer better access for high risk care, but this factor is not the primary focus for further reduction of infant mortality rates. A mandate that all pregnant women receive obstetric care would be nearly impossible to enforce. Furthermore, certified nurse-midwives (CNMs) have demonstrated reliable, safe care for pregnant women. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 9. Alternative and complementary therapies: a. replace conventional Western modalities of treatment. b. are used by only a small number of American adults. c. recognize the value of patients’ input into their health care. d. focus primarily on the disease an individual is experiencing. ANS: C Many popular alternative healing modalities offer human-centered care based on philosophies that recognize the value of the patient’s input and honor the individual’s beliefs, values, and desires. Alternative and complementary therapies are part of an integrative approach to health care. An increasing number of American adults are seeking alternative and complementary health care options. Alternative healing modalities offer a holistic approach to health, focusing on the whole person, not just the disease. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension OBJ: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: Client Needs: Physiologic Integrity 10. A 38-year-old Hispanic woman delivered a 9-pound, 6-ounce girl vaginally after being in labor for 43 hours. The baby died 3 days later from sepsis. On what grounds would the woman potentially have a legitimate legal case for negligence? a. She is Hispanic. b. She delivered a girl. c. The standards of care were not met. d. She refused fetal monitoring. ANS: C Not meeting the standards of care is a legitimate factor for a case of negligence. The patient’s race is not a factor for a case of negligence. The infant’s gender is not a factor for a case of negligence. Although fetal monitoring is the standard of care, the patient has the right to refuse treatment. This refusal is not a case for negligence; however, informed consent should be properly obtained, and the patient should sign an against medical advice form for refusal of any treatment that is within the standard of care. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension OBJ: Nursing Process: Planning NURSINGTB.COM MATERNAL CHILD NURSING CARE 6TH EDITION PERRY TEST BANKNURSINGTB.COM MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 11. A newly graduated nurse is attempting to understand the reason for increasing health care spending in the United States. Her research finds that these costs are much higher compared with other developed countries as a result of: a. a higher rate of obesity among pregnant women. b. limited access to technology. c. increased usage of health care services along with lower prices. d. homogeneity of the population. ANS: A Health care is one of the fastest growing sectors of the U.S. economy. Currently, 17.5% of the gross domestic product is spent on health care. Higher spending in the United States compared with 12 other industrialized countries is related to higher prices and readily accessible technology along with greater obesity rates among women. More than one third of women in the United States are obese. Of the U.S. population, 16% is uninsured and has limited access to health care. Maternal morbidity and mortality are directly related to racial disparities. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis OBJ: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment 12. The term used to describe legal and professional responsibility for practice for maternity nurses is: a. collegiality. b. ethics. c. evaluation. d. accountability. ANS: D Accountability refers to legal and professional responsibility for practice. Collegiality refers to a working relationship with one’s colleagues. Ethics refers to a code to guide practice. Evaluation refers to examination of the effectiveness of interventions in relation to expected outcomes. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Understanding OBJ: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 13. Through the use of social media technology, nurses can link with other nurses who may share similar interests, insights about practice, and advocate for patients. The most concerning pitfall for nurses using this technology is: a. violation of patient privacy and confidentiality. b. institutions and colleagues may be cast in an unfavorable light. c. unintended negative consequences for using social media. d. lack of institutional policy governing online contact. ANS: A NURSINGTB.COM MATERNAL CHILD NURSING CARE 6TH EDITION PERRY TEST BANKNURSINGTB.COM The most significant pitfall for nurses using this technology is the violation of patient privacy and confidentiality. Furthermore, institutions and colleagues can be cast in unfavorable lights with negative consequences for those posting information. Nursing students have been expelled from school and nurses have been fired or reprimanded by their Board of Nursing for injudicious posts. The American Nurses Association has published six principles for social networking and nurses. All institutions should have policies guiding the use of social media, and nurses should be familiar with these guidelines. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment 14. An important development that affects maternity nursing is integrative health care, which: a. seeks to provide the same health care for all racial and ethnic groups. b. blends complementary and alternative therapies with conventional Western treatment. c. focuses on the disease or condition rather than the background of the patient. d. has been mandated by Congress. ANS: B Integrative health care tries to mix the old with the new at the discretion of the patient and health care providers. Integrative health care is a blending of new and traditional practices. Integrative health care focuses on the whole person, not just the disease or condition. U.S. law supports complementary and alternative therapies but does not mandate them. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Understanding OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 15. The nurse caring for a pregnant patient should be aware that the U.S. birth rate shows which trend? a. Births to unmarried women are more likely to have less favorable outcomes. b. Birth rates for women 40 to 44 years old are beginning to decline. c. Cigarette smoking among pregnant women continues to increase. d. The rates of maternal death owing to racial disparity are elevated in the United States. ANS: A Low-birth-weight infants and preterm birth are more likely because of the large number of teenagers in the unmarried group. Birth rates for women in their early 40s continue to increase. Fewer pregnant women smoke. In the United States, there is significant racial disparity in the rates of maternal death. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension OBJ: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment 16. Maternity nursing care that is based on knowledge gained through research and clinical trials is: a. derived from the Nursing Intervention Classification. b. known as evidence-based practice. c. at odds with the Cochrane School of traditional nursing. NURSINGTB.COM MATERNAL CHILD NURSING CARE 6TH EDITION PERRY TEST BANKNURSINGTB.COM d. an outgrowth of telemedicine. ANS: B Evidence-based practice is based on knowledge gained from research and clinical trials. The Nursing Intervention Classification is a method of standardizing language and categorizing care. Dr. Cochrane systematically reviewed research trials and is part of the evidence-based practice movement. Telemedicine uses communication technologies to support health care. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension OBJ: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity 17. The level of practice a reasonably prudent nurse provides is called: a. the standard of care. b. risk management. c. a sentinel event. d. failure to rescue. ANS: A Guidelines for standards of care are published by various professional nursing organizations. Risk management identifies risks and establishes preventive practices, but it does not define the standard of care. Sentinel events are unexpected negative occurrences. They do not establish the standard of care. Failure to rescue is an evaluative process for nursing, but it does not define the standard of care. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension OBJ: Nursing Process: Diagnosis MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment 18. While obtaining a detailed history from a woman who has recently emigrated from Somalia, the nurse realizes that the patient has undergone female genital mutilation (FGM). The nurse’s best response to this patient is: a. “this is a very abnormal practice and rarely seen in the United States.” b. “do you know who performed this so that it can be reported to the authorities?” c. “we will be able to restore your circumcision fully after delivery.” d. “the extent of your circumcision will affect the potential for complications.” ANS: D “The extent of your circumcision will affect the potential for complications” is the most appropriate response. The patient may experience pain, bleeding, scarring, or infection and may require surgery before childbirth. With the growing number of immigrants from countries where FGM is practiced, nurses will increasingly encounter women who have undergone the procedure. Although this practice is not prevalent in the United States, it is very common in many African and Middle Eastern countries for religious reasons. Responding with, “This is a very abnormal practice and rarely seen in the United States” is culturally insensitive. The infibulation may have occurred during infancy or childhood. The patient will have little to no recollection of the event. She would have considered this to be a normal milestone during her growth and development. The International Council of Nurses has spoken out against this procedure as harmful to a woman’s health. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application OBJ: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment NURSINGTB.COM MATERNAL CHILD NURSING CARE 6TH EDITION PERRY TEST BANKNURSINGTB.COM 19. To ensure patient safety, the practicing nurse must have knowledge of the current Joint Commission’s “Do Not Use” list of abbreviations. Which of the following is acceptable for use? a. q.o.d. or Q.O.D. b. MSO4 or MgSO4 c. International Unit d. Lack of a leading zero ANS: C The abbreviations “i.u.” and “I.U.” are no longer acceptable because they could be misread as “I.V.” or the number “10.” The abbreviation “q.o.d. or Q.O.D.” should be written out as “every other day.” The period after the “Q” could be mistaken for an “I”; the “o” could also be mistaken for an “i.” With MSO4 or MgSO4, it is too easy to confuse one medication for another. These medications are used for very different purposes and could put a patient at risk for an adverse outcome. They should be written as morphine sulfate and magnesium sulfate. The decimal point should never be missed before a number to avoid confusion (i.e., 0.4 rather than .4). PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application OBJ: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity 20. Healthy People 2020 has established national health priorities that focus on a number of maternal-child health indicators. Nurses are assuming greater roles in assessing family health and providing care across the perinatal continuum. Therefore, it is important for the nurse to be aware that significant progress has been made in: a. the reduction of fetal deaths and use of prenatal care. b. low birth weight and preterm birth. c. elimination of health disparities based on race. d. infant mortality and the prevention of birth defects. ANS: A Trends in maternal child health indicate that progress has been made in relation to reduced infant and fetal deaths and increased prenatal care. Notable gaps remain in the rates of low birth weight and preterm births. According to the March of Dimes, persistent disparities still exist between African-Americans and non-Hispanic Caucasians. Many of these negative outcomes are preventable through access to prenatal care and the use of preventive health practices. This demonstrates the need for comprehensive community-based care for all mothers, infants, and families. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. Which interventions would help alleviate the problems associated with access to health care for maternity patients? (Select all that apply.) a. Provide transportation to prenatal visits. b. Provide child care so that a pregnant woman may keep prenatal visits. c. Mandate that physicians make house calls. NURSINGTB.COM MATERNAL CHILD NURSING CARE 6TH EDITION PERRY TEST BANKNURSINGTB.COM d. Provide low-cost or no-cost health care insurance. e. Provide job training. ANS: A, B, D Lack of transportation to visits, lack of child care, and lack of affordable health insurance are prohibitive factors associated with lack of prenatal care. House calls are not a cost-effective approach to health care. Although job training may result in employment and income, the likelihood of significant changes during the time frame of the pregnancy is remote. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Implementation OBJ: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance MATCHING Medical errors are a leading cause of death in the United States. The National Quality Forum has recommended numerous safe practices that nursing can promote to reduce errors. Match each safe practice with the correct statement. a. Ask the patient to “teach back.” b. Comply with CDC guidelines. c. Ensure that information is documented in a timely manner. d. Promote interventions that will reduce patient risk. e. Reduce exposure to radiation. 1. Hand hygiene 2. Informed consent 3. Culture measurement, feedback, and intervention 4. Pediatric imaging 5. Patient care information 1. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment NOT: The National Quality Forum updated its publication Safe Practices for Better Healthcare in 2010, outlining 24 safe practices that should be used in all health care settings to reduce the risk of harm from the environment of care, processes, and systems. These are only a few of the recommended practices; however, nurses should be familiar with these guidelines. 2. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment NOT: The National Quality Forum updated its publication Safe Practices for Better Healthcare in 2010, outlining 24 safe practices that should be used in all health care settings to reduce the risk of harm from the environment of care, processes, and systems. These are only a few of the recommended practices; however, nurses should be familiar with these guidelines. 3. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment NOT: The National Quality Forum updated its publication Safe Practices for Better Healthcare in 2010, outlining 24 safe practices that should be used in all health care settings to reduce the risk of harm from the environment of care, processes, and systems. These are only a few of the recommended practices; however, nurses should be familiar with these guidelines. 4. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application NURSINGTB.COM MATERNAL CHILD NURSING CARE 6TH EDITION PERRY TEST BANKNURSINGTB.COM OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment NOT: The National Quality Forum updated its publication Safe Practices for Better Healthcare in 2010, outlining 24 safe practices that should be used in all health care settings to reduce the risk of harm from the environment of care, processes, and systems. These are only a few of the recommended practices; however, nurses should be familiar with these guidelines. 5. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment NOT: The National Quality Forum updated its publication Safe Practices for Better Healthcare in 2010, outlining 24 safe practices that should be used in all health care settings to reduce the risk of harm from the environment of care, processes, and systems. These are only a few of the recommended practices; however, nurses should be familiar with these guidelines. NURSINGTB.COM MATERNAL CHILD NURSING CARE 6TH EDITION PERRY TEST BAN  

Hockenberry: Wong’s Essentials of Pediatric Nursing, 10th Edition

Chapter 02: Family, Social, Cultural, and Religious Influences on Child Health Promotion MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A nurse is selecting a family theory to assess a patient’s family dynamics. Which family theory best describes a series of tasks for the family throughout its life span?
a.Interactional theory
b.Developmental systems theory
c.Structural-functional theory
d.Duvall’s developmental theory
ANS: D Duvall’s developmental theory describes eight developmental tasks of the family throughout its life span. Interactional theory and structural-functional theory are not family theories. Developmental systems theory is an outgrowth of Duvall’s theory. The family is described as a small group, a semiclosed system of personalities that interact with the larger cultural system. Changes do not occur in one part of the family without changes in others. DIF:Cognitive Level: UnderstandREF:p. 17 TOP:Integrated Process: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC:Area of Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 2.Which family theory explains how families react to stressful events and suggests factors that promote adaptation to these events?
a.Interactional theory
b.Developmental systems theory
c.Family stress theory
d.Duvall’s developmental theory
ANS: C Family stress theory explains the reaction of families to stressful events. In addition, the theory helps suggest factors that promote adaptation to the stress. Stressors, both positive and negative, are cumulative and affect the family. Adaptation requires a change in family structure or interaction. Interactional theory is not a family theory. Interactions are the basis of general systems theory. Developmental systems theory is an outgrowth of Duvall’s theory. The family is described as a small group, a semiclosed system of personalities that interact with the larger cultural system. Changes do not occur in one part of the family without changes in others. Duvall’s developmental theory describes eight developmental tasks of the family throughout its life span. DIF:Cognitive Level: UnderstandREF:p. 16 TOP:Integrated Process: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC:Area of Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 3.Which is the term for a family in which the paternal grandmother, the parents, and two minor children live together?
a.Blended
b.Nuclear
c.Binuclear
d.Extended
ANS: D An extended family contains at least one parent, one or more children, and one or more members (related or unrelated) other than a parent or sibling. A blended family contains at least one stepparent, step-sibling, or half-sibling. The nuclear family consists of two parents and their children. No other relatives or nonrelatives are present in the household. In binuclear families, parents continue the parenting role while terminating the spousal unit. For example, when joint custody is assigned by the court, each parent has equal rights and responsibilities for the minor child or children. DIF:Cognitive Level: RememberREF:p. 18 TOP:Integrated Process: Nursing Process: Planning MSC:Area of Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 4.A nurse is assessing a family’s structure. Which describes a family in which a mother, her children, and a stepfather live together?
a.Blended
b.Nuclear
c.Binuclear
d.Extended
ANS: A A blended family contains at least one stepparent, step-sibling, or half-sibling. The nuclear family consists of two parents and their children. No other relatives or nonrelatives are present in the household. In binuclear families, parents continue the parenting role while terminating the spousal unit. For example, when joint custody is assigned by the court, each parent has equal rights and responsibilities for the minor child or children. An extended family contains at least one parent, one or more children, and one or more members (related or unrelated) other than a parent or sibling. DIF:Cognitive Level: UnderstandREF:p. 18 TOP:Integrated Process: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC:Area of Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 5.Parents of a firstborn child are asking whether it is normal for their child to be extremely competitive. The nurse should respond to the parents that studies about the ordinal position of children suggest that firstborn children tend to:
a.be praised less often.
b.be more achievement oriented.
c.be more popular with the peer group.
d.identify with peer group more than parents.
ANS: B Firstborn children, like only children, tend to be more achievement oriented. Being praised less often, being more popular with the peer group, and identifying with peer groups more than parents are characteristics of later-born children. DIF:Cognitive Level: ApplyREF:p. 29 TOP:Integrated Process: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC:Area of Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 6.The nurse is teaching a group of new parents about the experience of role transition. Which statement by a parent would indicate a correct understanding of the teaching?
a.“My marital relationship can have a positive or negative effect on the role transition.”
b.“If an infant has special care needs, the parents’ sense of confidence in their new role is strengthened.”
c.“Young parents can adjust to the new role easier than older parents.”
d.“A parent’s previous experience with children makes the role transition more difficult.”
ANS: A If parents are supportive of each other, they can serve as positive influences on establishing satisfying parental roles. When marital tensions alter caregiving routines and interfere with the enjoyment of the infant, then the marital relationship has a negative effect. Infants with special care needs can be a significant source of added stress. Older parents are usually more able to cope with the greater financial responsibilities, changes in sleeping habits, and reduced time for each other and other children. Parents who have previous experience with parenting appear more relaxed, have less conflict in disciplinary relationships, and are more aware of normal growth and development. DIF:Cognitive Level: UnderstandREF:p. 17 TOP:Integrated Process: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC:Area of Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 7.When assessing a family, the nurse determines that the parents exert little or no control over their children. What is this style of parenting called?
a.Permissive
b.Dictatorial
c.Democratic
d.Authoritarian
ANS: A Permissive parents avoid imposing their own standards of conduct and allow their children to regulate their own activity as much as possible. The parents exert little or no control over their children’s actions. Dictatorial or authoritarian parents attempt to control their children’s behavior and attitudes through unquestioned mandates. They establish rules and regulations or standards of conduct that they expect to be followed rigidly and unquestioningly. Democratic parents combine permissive and dictatorial styles. They direct their children’s behavior and attitudes by emphasizing the reasons for rules and negatively reinforcing deviations. They respect the child’s individual nature. DIF:Cognitive Level: RememberREF:p. 20 TOP:Integrated Process: Nursing Process: Diagnosis MSC:Area of Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 8.When discussing discipline with the mother of a 4-year-old child, the nurse should include which instruction?
a.Children as young as 4 years old rarely need to be punished.
b.Parental control should be consistent.
c.Withdrawal of love and approval is effective at this age.
d.One should expect rules to be followed rigidly and unquestioningly.
ANS: B For effective discipline, parents must be consistent and must follow through with agreed-on actions. Realistic goals should be set for this age group. Parents should structure the environment to prevent unnecessary difficulties. Requests for behavior change should be phrased in a positive manner to provide direction for the child. Withdrawal of love and approval is never appropriate or effective. Discipline strategies should be appropriate to the child’s age, temperament, and severity of the misbehavior. Following rules rigidly and unquestioningly is beyond the developmental capabilities of a 4-year-old. DIF:Cognitive Level: ApplyREF:p. 20 TOP:Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning MSC:Area of Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 9.Which is most characteristic of the physical punishment of children, such as spanking?
a.Psychological impact is usually minimal.
b.Children rarely become accustomed to spanking.
c.Children’s development of reasoning increases.
d.Misbehavior is likely to occur when parents are not present.
ANS: D Through the use of physical punishment, children learn what they should not do. When parents are not around, it is more likely that children will misbehave because they have not learned to behave well for their own sake, but rather out of fear of punishment. Spanking can cause severe physical and psychological injury and interfere with effective parent-child interaction. Children do become accustomed to spanking, requiring more severe corporal punishment each time. The use of corporal punishment may interfere with the child’s development of moral reasoning. DIF:Cognitive Level: UnderstandREF:p. 20 TOP:Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning MSC:Area of Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 10.A 3-year-old girl was adopted immediately after birth. The parents have just asked the nurse how they should tell the child that she is adopted. Which guidelines concerning adoption should the nurse use in planning a response?
a.Telling the child is an important aspect of their parental responsibilities.
b.The best time to tell the child is between ages 7 and 10 years.
c.It is not necessary to tell the child who was adopted so young.
d.It is best to wait until the child asks about it.
ANS: A It is important for the parents not to withhold information about the adoption from the child. It is an essential component of the child’s identity. There is no recommended best time to tell children. It is believed that children should be told young enough so they do not remember a time when they did not know. It should be done before the children enter school to keep third parties from telling the children before the parents have had the opportunity. DIF:Cognitive Level: UnderstandREF:p. 22 TOP:Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning MSC:Area of Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 11.A parent of a school-age child is going through a divorce. The parent tells the school nurse the child has not been doing well in school and sometimes has trouble sleeping. The nurse should recognize this as which implication?
a.Indication of maladjustment
b.Common reaction to divorce
c.Lack of adequate parenting
d.Unusual response that indicates need for referral
ANS: B Parental divorce affects school-age children in many ways. In addition to difficulties in school, they often have profound sadness, depression, fear, insecurity, frequent crying, loss of appetite, and sleep disorders. This is not an indication of maladjustment, suggestive of lack of adequate parenting, or an unusual response that indicates need for referral in school-age children after parental divorce. DIF:Cognitive Level: ApplyREF:p. 24 TOP:Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning MSC: Area of Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity 12.A mother brings 6-month-old Eric to the clinic for a well-baby checkup. She comments, “I want to go back to work, but I don’t want Eric to suffer because I’ll have less time with him.” The nurse’s most appropriate answer would be which statement?
a.“I’m sure he’ll be fine if you get a good babysitter.”
b.“You will need to stay home until Eric starts school.”
c.“You should go back to work so Eric will get used to being with others.”
d.“Let’s talk about the child care options that will be best for Eric.”
ANS: D Let’s talk about the child care options that will be best for Eric is an open-ended statement that will assist the mother in exploring her concerns about what is best for both her and Eric. I’m sure he’ll be fine if you get a good babysitterYou will need to stay home until Eric starts school, and You should go back to work so Eric will get used to being with others are directive statements. They do not address the effect of her working on Eric. DIF:Cognitive Level: ApplyREF:p. 27 TOP:Integrated Process: Communication and Documentation MSC: Area of Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity 13.Which term best describes a group of people who share a set of values, beliefs, practices, social relationships, law, politics, economics, and norms of behavior?
a.Race
b.Culture
c.Ethnicity
d.Social group
ANS: B Culture is a pattern of assumptions, beliefs, and practices that unconsciously frames or guides the outlook and decisions of a group of people. A culture is composed of individuals who share a set of values, beliefs, and practices that serve as a frame of reference for individual perceptions and judgments. Race is defined as a division of humankind possessing traits that are transmissible by descent and are sufficient to characterize it as a distinct human type. Ethnicity is an affiliation of a set of persons who share a unique cultural, social, and linguistic heritage. A social group consists of systems of roles carried out in groups. Examples of primary social groups include the family and peer groups. DIF:Cognitive Level: RememberREF:p. 29 TOP:Integrated Process: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Area of Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity 14.Which term best describes the emotional attitude that one’s own ethnic group is superior to others?
a.Culture
b.Ethnicity
c.Superiority
d.Ethnocentrism
ANS: D Ethnocentrism is the belief that one’s way of living and behaving is the best way. This includes the emotional attitude that the values, beliefs, and perceptions of one’s ethnic group are superior to those of others. Culture is a pattern of assumptions, beliefs, and practices that unconsciously frames or guides the outlook and decisions of a group of people. A culture is composed of individuals who share a set of values, beliefs, and practices that serves as a frame of reference for individual perception and judgments. Ethnicity is an affiliation of a set of persons who share a unique cultural, social, and linguistic heritage. Superiority is the state or quality of being superior; it does not include ethnicity. DIF:Cognitive Level: UnderstandREF:p. 30 TOP:Integrated Process: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Area of Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1.Dunst, Trivette, and Deal identified the qualities of strong families that help them function effectively. Which qualities are included? (Select all that apply.)
a.Ability to stay connected without spending time together
b.Clear set of family values, rules, and beliefs
c.Adoption of one coping strategy that always promotes positive functioning in dealing with life events
d.Sense of commitment toward growth of individual family members as opposed to that of the family unit
e.Ability to engage in problem-solving activities
f.Sense of balance between the use of internal and external family resources
ANS: B, E, F A clear set of family rules, values, and beliefs that establishes expectations about acceptable and desired behavior is one of the qualities of strong families that help them function effectively. Strong families also are able to engage in problem-solving activities and to find a balance between internal and external forces. Strong families have a sense of congruence among family members regarding the value and importance of assigning time and energy to meet needs. Strong families also use varied coping strategies. The sense of commitment is toward the growth and well-being of individual family members, as well as the family unit. DIF:Cognitive Level: UnderstandREF:p. 19 TOP:Integrated Process: Nursing Process: Diagnosis MSC:Area of Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 2.A nurse is conducting a teaching session on the use of time-out as a discipline measure to parents of toddlers. Which are correct strategies the nurse should include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.)
a.Time-out as a discipline measure cannot be used when in a public place.
b.A rule for the length of time-out is 1 minute per year.
c.When the child misbehaves, one warning should be given.
d.The area for time-out can be in the family room where the child can see the television.
e.When the child is quiet for the specified time, he or she can leave the room.
ANS: B, C, E A rule for the length of time-out is 1 minute per year of age; use a kitchen timer with an audible bell to record the time rather than a watch. When the child misbehaves, one warning should be given. When the child is quiet for the duration of the time, he or she can then leave the room. Time-out can be used in public places and the parents should be consistent on the use of time-out. Implement time-out in a public place by selecting a suitable area or explain to children that time-out will be spent immediately on returning home. The time-out should not be spent in an area from which the child can view the television. Select an area for time-out that is safe, convenient, and unstimulating but where the child can be monitored, such as the bathroom, hallway, or laundry room. DIF:Cognitive Level: ApplyREF:p. 21 TOP:Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning MSC:Area of Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 3.Divorced parents of a preschool child are asking whether their child will display any feelings or behaviors related to the effect of the divorce. The nurse is correct when explaining that the parents should be prepared for which types of behaviors? (Select all that apply.)
a.Displaying fears of abandonment
b.Verbalizing that he or she “is the reason for the divorce”
c.Displaying fear regarding the future
d.Ability to disengage from the divorce proceedings
e.Engaging in fantasy to understand the divorce
ANS: A, B, E A child 3 to 5 years of age (preschool) may display fears of abandonment, verbalize feelings that he or she is the reason for the divorce, and engage in fantasy to understand the divorce. He or she would not be displaying fear regarding the future until school age, and the ability to disengage from the divorce proceedings would be characteristic of an adolescent. DIF:Cognitive Level: ApplyREF:p. 24 TOP:Integrated Process: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Area of Client Needs: Teaching and Learning COMPLETION

Test Bank for Claytons Basic Pharmacology for Nurses 18th Edition by Willihnganz

Chapter 01: Drug Definitions, Standards, and Information Sources Willihnganz: Clayton’s Basic Pharmacology for Nurses, 18th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.What is the name under which a drug is listed by the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA)?
a.Brand
b.Nonproprietary
c.Official
d.Trademark
ANS:  C The official name is the name under which a drug is listed by the FDA. The brand name, or trademark, is the name given to a drug by its manufacturer. The nonproprietary, or generic, name is provided by the United States Adopted Names Council DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   p. 2                OBJ:   1 NAT:  NCLEX Client Needs Category: Safe, Effective Care Environment TOP:   Nursing Process Step: Assessment  CON:  Patient Education  
  1. Which source contains information specific to nutritional supplements?
a.USP Dictionary of USAN & International Drug Names
b.Natural Medicines Comprehensive Database
c.United States Pharmacopoeia/National Formulary (USP NF)
d.Drug Interaction Facts
ANS:  C United States Pharmacopoeia/National Formulary contains information specific to nutritional supplements. USP Dictionary of USAN & International Drug Names is a compilation of drug names, pronunciation guide, and possible future FDA approved drugs; it does not include nutritional supplements. Natural Medicines Comprehensive Database contains evidence-based information on herbal medicines and herbal combination products; it does not include information specific to nutritional supplements. Drug Interaction Facts contains comprehensive information on drug interaction facts; it does not include nutritional supplements. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   p. 2 | p. 3        OBJ:   3 NAT:  NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity TOP:   Nursing Process Step: Assessment  CON:  Nutrition | Patient Education 3.What is the most comprehensive reference available to research a drug interaction?
a.Drug Facts and Comparisons
b.Drug Interaction Facts
c.Handbook on Injectable Drugs
d.Martindale—The Complete Drug Reference
ANS:  B First published in 1983, Drug Interaction Facts is the most comprehensive book available on drug interactions. In addition to monographs listing various aspects of drug interactions, this information is reviewed and updated by an internationally renowned group of physicians and pharmacists with clinical and scientific expertise. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   p. 4                OBJ:   3 NAT:  NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity TOP:   Nursing Process Step: Assessment  CON:  Safety | Patient Education | Clinical Judgment 4.The physician has written an order for a drug with which the nurse is unfamiliar. Which section of the Physicians’ Desk Reference (PDR) is most helpful to get information about this drug?
a.Manufacturer’s section
b.Brand and Generic name section
c.Product category section
d.Product information section
ANS:  B A physician’s order would include the brand and/or generic name of the drug. The alphabetic index in the PDR would make this section the most user-friendly. Based on a physician’s order, manufacturer’s information and classification information would not be known. The Manufacturer’s section is a roster of manufacturers. The product category section lists products subdivided by therapeutic classes, such as analgesics, laxatives, oxytocics, and antibiotics. The product information section contains reprints of the package inserts for the major products of manufacturers. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   p. 4                OBJ:   3 NAT:  NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity TOP:   Nursing Process Step: Planning       CON:  Safety | Patient Education | Clinical Judgment 5.Which online drug reference makes available to healthcare providers and the public a standard, comprehensive, up-to-date look up and downloadable resource about medicines?
a.American Drug Index
b.American Hospital Formulary
c.DailyMed
d.Physicians’ Desk Reference (PDR)
ANS:  C DailyMed makes available to healthcare providers and the public a standard, comprehensive, up-to-date look up and downloadable resource about medicines. The American Drug Index is not appropriate for patient use. The American Hospital Formulary is not appropriate for patient use. The PDR is not appropriate for patient use. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   p. 3 | p. 5        OBJ:   4 NAT:  NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity TOP:   Nursing Process Step: Implementation CON:  Safety | Patient Education | Clinical Judgment 6.Which legislation authorizes the FDA to determine the safety of a drug before its marketing?
a.Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (1938)
b.Durham Humphrey Amendment (1952)
c.Controlled Substances Act (1970)
d.Kefauver Harris Drug Amendment (1962)
ANS:  A The Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938 authorized the FDA to determine the safety of all drugs before marketing. Later amendments and acts helped tighten FDA control and ensure drug safety. The Durham Humphrey Amendment defines the kinds of drugs that cannot be used safely without medical supervision and restricts their sale to prescription by a licensed practitioner. The Controlled Substances Act addresses only controlled substances and their categorization. The Kefauver Harris Drug Amendment ensures drug efficacy and greater drug safety. Drug manufacturers are required to prove to the FDA the effectiveness of their products before marketing them. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   p. 5                OBJ:   6 NAT:  NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity TOP:   Nursing Process Step: Assessment CON:  Safety | Patient Education | Evidence | Health Care Law 7.Meperidine (Demerol) is a narcotic with a high potential for physical and psychological dependency. Under which classification does this drug fall?
a.I
b.II
c.III
d.IV
ANS:  B Meperidine (Demerol) is a Schedule II drug; it has a high potential for abuse and may lead to severe psychological and physical dependence. Schedule I drugs have high potential for abuse and no recognized medical use. Schedule III drugs have some potential for abuse. Use may lead to low to moderate physical dependence or high psychological dependence. Schedule IV drugs have low potential for abuse. Use may lead to limited physical or psychological dependence. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   p. 5                OBJ:   2 NAT:  NCLEX Client Needs Category: Safe, Effective Care Environment TOP:   Nursing Process Step: Assessment  CON:  Patient Education | Addiction | Pain 8:What would the FDA do to expedite drug development and approval for an outbreak of smallpox, for which there is no known treatment?
a.List smallpox as a health orphan disease.
b.Omit the preclinical research phase.
c.Extend the clinical research phase.
d.Fast track the investigational drug.
    ANS:  D
Chapter 1. The Concept of Stress Adaptation

Test Bank for Psychiatric Mental Health Nursing 8th Edition by Townsend

Multiple Choice
  1. A client has experienced the death of a close family member and at the same time becomes unemployed. This situation has resulted in a 6-month score of 110 on the Recent Life Changes Questionnaire. How should the nurse evaluate this client data?
  2. The client is experiencing severe distress and is at risk for physical and psychological illness.
  3. A score of 110 on the Miller and Rahe Recent Life Changes Questionnaire indicates no significant threat of stress-related illness.
  4. Susceptibility to stress-related physical or psychological illness cannot be estimated without knowledge of coping resources and available supports.
  5. The client may view these losses as challenges and perceive them as opportunities.
ANS: C The Recent Life Changes Questionnaire is an expanded version of the Schedule of Recent Experiences and the Rahe-Holmes Social Readjustment Rating Scale. A 6-month score of 300 or more, or a year-score total of 500 or more, indicates high stress in a client’s life. However, positive coping mechanisms and strong social support can limit susceptibility to stress-related illnesses. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Evaluation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
  1. A physically and emotionally healthy client has just been fired. During a routine office visit he states to a nurse: “Perhaps this was the best thing to happen. Maybe I’ll look into pursuing an art degree.” How should the nurse characterize the client’s appraisal of the job loss stressor?
  2. Irrelevant
  3. Harm/loss
  4. Threatening
  5. Challenging
ANS: D The client perceives the situation of job loss as a challenge and an opportunity for growth. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Assessment | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
  1. Which client statement should alert a nurse that a client may be responding maladaptively to stress?
  2. “I’ve found that avoiding contact with others helps me cope.”
  3. “I really enjoy journaling; it’s my private time.”
  4. “I signed up for a yoga class this week.”
  5. “I made an appointment to meet with a therapist.”
ANS: A Reliance on social isolation as a coping mechanism is a maladaptive method to relieve stress. It can prevent learning appropriate coping skills and can prevent access to needed support systems.  KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Evaluation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
  1. A nursing student finds that she comes down with a sinus infection toward the end of every semester. When this occurs, which stage of stress is the student most likely experiencing?
  2. Alarm reaction stage
  3. Stage of resistance
  4. Stage of exhaustion
  5. Fight-or-flight stage
ANS: C At the stage of exhaustion, the student’s exposure to stress has been prolonged and adaptive energy has been depleted. Diseases of adaptation occur more frequently in this stage. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Assessment | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
  1. A school nurse is assessing a female high school student who is overly concerned about her appearance. The client’s mother states, “That’s not something to be stressed about!” Which is the most appropriate nursing response?
  2. “Teenagers! They don’t know a thing about real stress.”
  3. “Stress occurs only when there is a loss.”
  4. “When you are in poor physical condition, you can’t experience psychological well-being.”
  5. “Stress can be psychological. A threat to self-esteem may result in high stress levels.”
ANS: D Stress can be physical or psychological in nature. A perceived threat to self-esteem can be as stressful as a physiological change. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Implementation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
  1. A bright student confides in the school nurse about conflicts related to attending college or working to add needed financial support to the family. Which coping strategy is most appropriate for the nurse to recommend to the student at this time?
  2. Meditation
  3. Problem-solving training
  4. Relaxation
  5. Journaling
ANS: B The student must assess his or her situation and determine the best course of action. Problem-solving training, by providing structure and objectivity, can assist in decision making. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Implementation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
  1. An unemployed college graduate is experiencing severe anxiety over not finding a teaching position and has difficulty with independent problem-solving. During a routine physical examination, the graduate confides in the clinic nurse. Which is the most appropriate nursing intervention?
  2. Encourage the student to use the alternative coping mechanism of relaxation exercises.
  3. Complete the problem-solving process for the client.
  4. Work through the problem-solving process with the client.
  5. Encourage the client to keep a journal.
ANS: C During times of high anxiety and stress, clients will need more assistance in problem-solving and decision making. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Implementation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
  1. A school nurse is assessing a distraught female high school student who is overly concerned because her parents can’t afford horseback riding lessons. How should the nurse interpret the student’s reaction to her perceived problem?
  2. The problem is endangering her well-being.
  3. The problem is personally relevant to her.
  4. The problem is based on immaturity.
  5. The problem is exceeding her capacity to cope.
ANS: B Psychological stressors to self-esteem and self-image are related to how the individual perceives the situation or event. Self-image is of particular importance to adolescents, who feel entitled to have all the advantages that other adolescents experience. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Evaluation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
  1. Meditation has been shown to be an effective stress management technique. When meditation is effective, what should a nurse expect to assess?
  2. An achieved state of relaxation
  3. An achieved insight into one’s feelings
  4. A demonstration of appropriate role behaviors
  5. An enhanced ability to problem-solve
ANS: A Meditation produces relaxation by creating a special state of consciousness through focused concentration. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Evaluation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
  1. A distraught, single, first-time mother cries and asks a nurse, “How can I go to work if I can’t afford childcare?” What is the nurse’s initial action in assisting the client with the problem-solving process?
  2. Determine the risks and benefits for each alternative.
  3. Formulate goals for resolution of the problem.
  4. Evaluate the outcome of the implemented alternative.
  5. Assess the facts of the situation.
ANS: D Before any other steps can be taken, accurate information about the situation must be gathered and assessed. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Implementation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
Weight
DimensionsN/AN/AN/AN/AN/AN/A
Additional information
Select the fields to be shown. Others will be hidden. Drag and drop to rearrange the order.
  • Image
  • SKU
  • Rating
  • Price
  • Stock
  • Availability
  • Add to cart
  • Description
  • Content
  • Weight
  • Dimensions
  • Additional information
  • Attributes
  • Custom attributes
  • Custom fields
Click outside to hide the comparison bar
Compare
Compare ×
Let's Compare! Continue shopping