Test Bank for Patient-Centered Pharmacology by Tindall
Chapter 1. Conscientious and Rational Prescribing in the 21st Century
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. Which statement regarding herbals, vitamins, minerals, and food supplements is true?
| A. | Herbals, vitamins, minerals, and food supplements are not regulated by the U.S. Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FDCA). |
| B. | Manufacturers must prove the safety of their herbals, vitamins, minerals, and food supplements. |
| C. | Manufacturers must prove that their herbals, vitamins, minerals, and food supplements are free from adulteration. |
| D. | Manufacturers must prove the legitimacy of any claims they make about their herbals, vitamins, minerals, and food supplements. |
____ 2. Which amendment to the FDCA established the two classes of drugs: legend or prescription-only and over the counter?
| A. | Durham-Humphrey Amendment (Prescription Drug Amendment) |
| B. | New Drug Application Amendment |
| C. | Health Education and Welfare Amendment |
| D. | Kefauer Harris Amendment |
____ 3. The package insert (PI) attached to a prescription drug contains all of the following information except:
| A. | U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-approved drug information. |
| B. | Highly detailed adverse effects and dosage information for the prescriber. |
| C. | Information in layman’s terms for the patient. |
| D. | Pharmacodynamic and pharmacokinetic drug information. |
____ 4. Which of the following best defines the term adulteration of drugs?
| A. | Adding contaminants or anything not stated on a drug label |
| B. | Claiming a drug is a cure for a certain condition, such as cancer |
| C. | Advertising a drug for a poorly defined condition, such as miasma |
| D. | Claiming a drug is safe when its safety has not been established in preclinical trials |
____ 5. The majority of “off-label” or unapproved usages for drugs are prescribed for which patient groups?
| A. | Pediatric patients and patients on chemotherapy |
| B. | Patients with neurologic diseases |
| C. | Obese patients |
| D. | Pregnant patients |
____ 6. The major goals of the Controlled Substances Act (CSA) include all of the following except:
| A. | Improving the manufacturing, distribution, prescribing, and dispensing of controlled substances by legitimate persons in the health-care sector. |
| B. | Providing research into issues of drug addiction and rehabilitation. |
| C. | Stopping the widespread diversion of controlled substances into illicit or “street” channels. |
| D. | Establishing laws and criminal sentences for the possession and sale of illicit controlled substances. |
____ 7. Which statement is true regarding the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) categories of scheduled drugs?
| A. | Schedule I drugs have a high potential for abuse and no accepted medical use in the United States. |
| B. | Schedule I drugs have a low potential for abuse and no accepted medical use in the United States. |
| C. | Schedule II drugs have a low potential for abuse. |
| D. | Schedule V drugs have a high potential for abuse. |
____ 8. Which statement regarding extemporaneous compounding is false?
| A. | Extemporaneous compounding is the pharmacist’s art of preparing a drug product for a specific patient using a physician’s prescription, a drug formula, or a recipe. |
| B. | Calculated amounts of ingredients are measured out and made into a uniform mixture. |
| C. | Extemporaneous compounding is the pharmacist’s art of preparing a drug product for a patient using his own drug formula rather than a physician’s prescription. |
| D. | Pediatric dosages are commonly compounded when only adult dosages are available. |
____ 9. Clinical pharmacology is best defined as:
| A. | The study of the optimum use of medication in patients. |
| B. | The study of the human body’s reaction to a drug over a specified time. |
| C. | The biologic actions of a drug at its site of action. |
| D. | The study of the effects of genetic variations on pharmacologic processes. |
____ 10. Which statement regarding over-the-counter (OTC) drugs is true?
| A. | OTC drugs are rarely associated with toxicity or overdose. |
| B. | No OTC drugs are also available in a higher dosage form by prescription. |
| C. | OTC drugs are generally more expensive than prescription drugs. |
| D. | OTC drugs contain directions and information on the label and packaging to allow consumers to self-medicate. |
____ 11. In the early 1960s, the serious birth defects caused by thalidomide prompted which of the following amendments to the FDCA?
| A. | Kefauver Harris Drug Efficacy Amendment |
| B. | Dietary Supplement and Health Act |
| C. | Orphan Drug Status Act |
| D. | Controlled Substances Act |
____ 12. Which medication is an example of a schedule I (C-I) drug?
| A. | oxycodone |
| B. | mescaline |
| C. | fentanyl |
| D. | diazepam |
____ 13. Which statement regarding schedule II (C-II) controlled substance drugs is true?
| A. | Heroin is an example of a schedule II drug. |
| B. | Prescribers can write orders that include up to five refills of schedule II prescription drugs. |
| C. | Cough syrup with codeine is an example of a schedule II drug. |
| D. | Emergency verbal orders for a schedule II drug must be confirmed with a written prescription within 72 hours. |
____ 14. According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, the number of preventable medical errors per year is approximately:
| A. | 100,000. |
| B. | 25,000. |
| C. | 1 million. |
| D. | 500,000. |
____ 15. Adverse drug events:
| A. | Occur once a day in every hospital in the United States. |
| B. | Do not increase healthcare-related costs. |
| C. | Are less common among Medicare patients. |
| D. | Are not common among residents in a long-term care facility. |
____ 16. In 1994, the World Health Organization (WHO) released recommendations for rational prescribing that included all of the following recommendations except:
| A. | Use only brand (trade) name drugs. |
| B. | Ensure medication choices are safe and effective for the defined problem. |
| C. | Monitor the results of treatment. |
| D. | Stop the use of a drug when the treatment period is complete. |
____ 17. Which statement is true regarding medication errors?
| A. | Telephone communication of drug orders decreases the frequency of medication errors. |
| B. | Mail order medications are less likely to cause issues with medication errors. |
| C. | Lack of patient history information is a common source of medication errors. |
| D. | Patient education regarding medications should be left to the pharmacist to avoid medication errors. |
____ 18. Which statement is true regarding medication errors?
| A. | They are most commonly the result of a single event. |
| B. | They are most commonly the result of multiple events. |
| C. | They are usually caused by a single careless person. |
| D. | A faulty system will not contribute to medication errors. |
____ 19. The “Signa,” or signatura, component of a written prescription includes:
| A. | Patient data, such as age, name, and gender. |
| B. | Prescriber data, such as name, practice location and phone number, and professional degree. |
| C. | Instructions the prescriber has given to the patient, which will appear on medication label. |
| D. | Brand or generic name and strength of medication. |
____ 20. Which of the following examples could be the inscription component on a prescription?
| A. | John Smith, RPA-C, License number |
| B. | Dispense # 20 |
| C. | Cefuroxime 500 mg |
| D. | Take one tablet PO twice daily for 10 days |
____ 21. Which of the following examples could be the subscription component on a prescription?
| A. | Dispense # 100 ml |
| B. | John Smith, RPA-C, License number |
| C. | Patient name and address |
| D. | Take 5 ml PO twice daily for 10 days |
____ 22. A prescriber wants a patient to receive the Dilantin brand and does not wish to substitute with the generic, phenytoin. Which of the following statements is false regarding generic and brand substitution?
| A. | The Drug Substitution Law allows a pharmacist to substitute a generic bioequivalent drug for one stated on a prescription. |
| B. | A prescriber can write “DAW,” meaning “dispense as written,” to ensure that a patient receives the brand name drug. |
| C. | The FDA regulates and reports on bioequivalence testing for generic drugs. |
| D. | All brand drugs can be switched to generic without biologically significant fluctuations. |
____ 23. Which abbreviation indicates that a patient should take their medication at bedtime?
| A. | HS |
| B. | BID |
| C. | AC |
| D. | PRN |
____ 24. A patient is instructed to apply one drop to each eye. Which abbreviation for these instructions is accurate?
| A. | One gtt ou |
| B. | One gr ad |
| C. | One gtt au |
| D. | One gtt od |
____ 25. Which abbreviation indicates that a medication should be taken by mouth twice daily?
| A. | po BID |
| B. | po ac |
| C. | po qd |
| D. | po TIW |
____ 26. Which abbreviation indicates that three drops should be placed in both ears?
| A. | Three gtt as |
| B. | Three gtt ad |
| C. | Three gtt au |
| D. | Three gtt od |
