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Test Bank for Adult Health Nursing 7th Edition by Cooper

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Test Bank For Adult Health Nursing 7th Edition By Cooper Gosnell

Chapter 1: Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology

MULTIPLE CHOICE

  1. The anatomic term ____ means toward the midline.
a. anterior
b. posterior
c. medial
d. cranial

ANS:  C

The term medial indicates an anatomic direction toward the midline.

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   Page 1            OBJ:   2

TOP:   Anatomic terminology                    KEY:  Nursing Process Step: Assessment

MSC:  NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

  1. What are the smallest living components in our body?
a. Cells
b. Organs
c. Electrons
d. Osmosis

ANS:  A

Cells are considered to be the smallest living units of structure and function in our body.

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   Page 4            OBJ:   6

TOP:   Structural levels of organization     KEY:  Nursing Process Step: N/A

MSC:  NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

  1. What is the largest organelle, responsible for cell reproduction and control of other organelles?
a. Nucleus
b. Ribosome
c. Mitochondrion
d. Golgi apparatus

ANS:  A

The nucleus is the largest organelle within the cell.

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   Page 5            OBJ:   8

TOP:   Parts of the cell                               KEY:  Nursing Process Step: Assessment

MSC:  NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

  1. When the patient complains of pain in the bladder, the patient will indicate discomfort in which body cavity?
a. Pelvic
b. Mediastinum
c. Dorsal
d. Abdominal

ANS:  A

A subdivision called the pelvic cavity contains the lower portion of the large intestine (lower sigmoid colon, rectum), urinary bladder, and internal structures of the reproductive system.

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   Page 3, Figure 1-4

OBJ:   5                    TOP:   Body cavity   KEY:  Nursing Process Step: Assessment

MSC:  NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

  1. The four phases of cell division all occur in:
a. diffusion.
b. mitosis.
c. osmosis.
d. filtration.

ANS:  B

During mitosis, the cell goes through four phases: prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase.

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   Page 7            OBJ:   9

TOP:   Cell division   KEY:  Nursing Process Step: N/A

MSC:  NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

  1. Telophase is which phase of cell reproduction during mitosis?
a. First phase
b. Latent phase
c. Final phase
d. Spindle phase

ANS:  C

During mitosis, the cell goes through four phases: prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase.

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   Page 7            OBJ:   9

TOP:   Cell division   KEY:  Nursing Process Step: N/A

MSC:  NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

  1. The nurse is aware that which muscle group is both striated and involuntary?
a. Skeletal
b. Glial
c. Cardiac
d. Visceral

ANS:  C

The cardiac muscle is both striated and involuntary.

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   Page 9-10, Figure 1-12

OBJ:   11                  TOP:   Tissues           KEY:  Nursing Process Step: Planning

MSC:  NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

  1. What is a group of several different kinds of tissues arranged so that together they can perform a more complex function than any tissue alone?
a. Organ
b. System
c. Cell
d. Endoplasmic reticulum

ANS:  A

When several kinds of tissues are united to perform a more complex function than any tissue alone, they are called organs.

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   Page 11          OBJ:   7

TOP:   Organs           KEY:  Nursing Process Step: N/A

MSC:  NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

  1. What traits describe visceral muscles?
a. Smooth and voluntary
b. Smooth and involuntary
c. Striated and voluntary
d. Striated and involuntary

ANS:  B

Visceral (smooth) muscles will not function at will; thus, they act involuntarily.

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   Page 9, Figure 1-12

OBJ:   7                    TOP:   Tissues           KEY:  Nursing Process Step: Assessment

MSC:  NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

  1. How are the thoracic and abdominal cavities separated?
a. By the pleura
b. By the diaphragm
c. By the sagittal plane
d. By the peritoneum

ANS:  B

The diaphragm (a muscle directly beneath the lungs) separates the ventral cavity into the thoracic (chest) and abdominal cavities.

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   Page 10, Figure 1-3

OBJ:   3                    TOP:   Ventral cavity

KEY:  Nursing Process Step: Assessment  MSC:  NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

  1. What is the broad section of biology dealing with the description of human structure?
a. Hematology
b. Anatomy
c. Kinesiology
d. Physiology

ANS:  B

Anatomy is the study, classification, and description of the structure and organs of the body.

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   Page 1            OBJ:   1

TOP:   Terminology                                   KEY:  Nursing Process Step: N/A

MSC:  NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

  1. ____ explains the processes and functions of many structures of the body and how they interact with one another.
a. Anatomy
b. Mitosis
c. Filtration
d. Physiology

ANS:  D

Physiology explains the processes and functions of the various structures and how they interrelate with one another.

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   Page 1            OBJ:   1

TOP:   Terminology                                   KEY:  Nursing Process Step: N/A

MSC:  NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

  1. The anatomic structure that is not in the thoracic cavity is/are the _____.
a. Heart
b. Lungs
c. Blood vessels
d. Transverse colon

ANS:  D

The transverse colon is located in the abdominal cavity.

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   Page 2, Figure 1-3

OBJ:   5                    TOP:   Thoracic cavity

KEY:  Nursing Process Step: Assessment  MSC:  NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

  1. When several organs and parts are grouped together for certain functions, they form:
a. tissues.
b. systems.
c. cells.
d. membranes.

ANS:  B

A system is an organization of varying numbers and kinds of organs arranged so that together they can perform complex functions for the body.

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   Page 4            OBJ:   7

TOP:   Systems          KEY:  Nursing Process Step: Assessment

MSC:  NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

  1. What are the distinct surface proteins of the plasma membrane essential in determining?
a. Tissue typing
b. Blood count
c. Effectiveness of a drug
d. Sexual maturity

ANS:  A

The plasma membrane has distinct surface proteins as coming from one individual.  This is the basis for the procedure of tissue typing to determine compatibility before an organ transplant.

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   Page 5            OBJ:   12

TOP:   Cells               KEY:  Nursing Process Step: Assessment

MSC:  NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

  1. In anatomic terminology, posterior means toward the:
a. tail.
b. head.
c. back.
d. trunk.

ANS:  C

The posterior is toward the back.

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   Page 1            OBJ:   2

TOP:   Anatomic terminology                    KEY:  Nursing Process Step: Assessment

MSC:  NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

  1. What does the transverse body plane divide?
a. The front and back (coronal) of the body
b. The body lengthwise (two equal halves)
c. The superior and inferior portions of the body
d. The body into axial and appendicular

ANS:  C

The transverse plane cuts the body horizontally into the sagittal and the frontal planes, dividing the body into caudal and cranial portions.

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   Page 2, Figure 1-2

OBJ:   3                    TOP:   Body planes   KEY:  Nursing Process Step: Assessment

MSC:  NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

  1. Caudal is defined as toward the ____.
a. head
b. feet
c. tail
d. chest

ANS:  C

Caudal is a directional word that indicates toward the “tail,” the distal portion of the spine.

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   Page 1            OBJ:   3

TOP:   Anatomic terminology                    KEY:  Nursing Process Step: Assessment

MSC:  NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

  1. What is the term for the movement of water from an area of lower solute concentration to an area of higher solute concentration?
a. Absorption
b. Filtration
c. Diffusion
d. Osmosis

ANS:  D

Osmosis is the passage of water from less concentrated solution to more concentrated solution.

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   Page 8, Table 1-4

OBJ:   10                  TOP:   Transport processes

KEY:  Nursing Process Step: Assessment  MSC:  NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

  1. What is the type of tissue composed of cells that contract in response to a message from the brain or spinal cord?
a. Epithelial
b. Connective
c. Membrane
d. Muscle

ANS:  D

Muscle tissue is composed of cells that contract in response to a message from the brain or spinal cord.

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   Page 9            OBJ:   7

TOP:   Tissues           KEY:  Nursing Process Step: Assessment

MSC:  NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

  1. What is the type of tissue associated with the storage of fat?
a. Areolar tissue
b. Adipose tissue
c. Osseous tissue
d. Muscle tissue

ANS:  B

Adipose tissue is associated with the important function of storing fat.

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   Page 9-10, Table 1-5

OBJ:   11                  TOP:   Tissues           KEY:  Nursing Process Step: Assessment

MSC:  NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

  1. What are the thin sheets of tissue that lubricate and line the body surfaces that open to the outside environment?
a. Mucous membranes
b. Serous membranes
c. Cytoplasm
d. Involuntary visceral muscles

ANS:  A

Mucous membranes secrete mucus. They line the body surfaces that open to the outside environment.

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   Page 11          OBJ:   7

TOP:   Tissues           KEY:  Nursing Process Step: Assessment

MSC:  NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

  1. What is the process by which a cell digests a foreign material by surrounding it?
a. Pinocytosis
b. Phagocytosis
c. Absorption
d. Diffusion

ANS:  B

Phagocytosis is the process that permits a cell to engulf or surround any foreign material and digest it.

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   Pages 7-8, Table 1-3

OBJ:   10                  TOP:   Active transport processes

KEY:  Nursing Process Step: Assessment  MSC:  NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

  1. Active transport in the movement of ions and other water-soluble particles across cell membranes requires that the body uses its::
a. rapid filtration.
b. charged diffusion.
c. a chemical pump.
d. osmosis.

ANS:  C

Active transport of ions and other water-soluble particles of the cell membrane require a chemical pump, such as insulin, to move glucose into the cell.

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   Page 8, Table 1-4

OBJ:   10                  TOP:   Active transport processes

KEY:  Nursing Process Step: Assessment  MSC:  NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

  1. What is the term for the passage of water containing dissolved materials through a membrane as the result of a greater mechanical force on one side?
a. Metabolism
b. Mitosis
c. Filtration
d. Osmosis

ANS:  C

Filtration is the movement of water and particles through a membrane by a force from either pressure or gravity.

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   Page 8, Table 1-4

OBJ:   10                  TOP:   Passive transport processes

KEY:  Nursing Process Step: Assessment  MSC:  NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

  1. The nurse is aware that when a patient complains of pain in the epigastric region, the source of the pain is most likely to be a disorder involving the:
a. gallbladder.
b. transverse colon.
c. stomach.
d. appendix.

ANS:  C

The epigastric region of the abdomen is comprised of parts of the right and left lobes of the liver and a large portion of the stomach.

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   Page 3, Figure 1-4

OBJ:   5                    TOP:   Epigastric region

KEY:  Nursing Process Step: Assessment  MSC:  NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

  1. What are tissues that cover the outside of the body and some internal structures?
a. Connective
b. Epithelial
c. Nerve
d. Muscle

ANS:  B

Epithelial tissue covers the outside of the body and some of the internal structures.

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   Page 9            OBJ:   7

TOP:   Tissues           KEY:  Nursing Process Step: Assessment

MSC:  NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

  1. When the nurse assesses an arm in proximal to distal order, the assessment is performed from:

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DescriptionBy: Cooper Edition: 7th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadBy: Burton Edition: 2nd Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadBy: Brian k Walsh Edition: 4th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadEdition: 9th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadBy: Savage Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadEdition: 7th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant Download
Content

Test Bank For Adult Health Nursing 7th Edition By Cooper Gosnell

Chapter 1: Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology MULTIPLE CHOICE
  1. The anatomic term ____ means toward the midline.
a. anterior
b. posterior
c. medial
d. cranial
ANS:  C The term medial indicates an anatomic direction toward the midline. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   Page 1            OBJ:   2 TOP:   Anatomic terminology                    KEY:  Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC:  NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
  1. What are the smallest living components in our body?
a. Cells
b. Organs
c. Electrons
d. Osmosis
ANS:  A Cells are considered to be the smallest living units of structure and function in our body. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   Page 4            OBJ:   6 TOP:   Structural levels of organization     KEY:  Nursing Process Step: N/A MSC:  NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
  1. What is the largest organelle, responsible for cell reproduction and control of other organelles?
a. Nucleus
b. Ribosome
c. Mitochondrion
d. Golgi apparatus
ANS:  A The nucleus is the largest organelle within the cell. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   Page 5            OBJ:   8 TOP:   Parts of the cell                               KEY:  Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC:  NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
  1. When the patient complains of pain in the bladder, the patient will indicate discomfort in which body cavity?
a. Pelvic
b. Mediastinum
c. Dorsal
d. Abdominal
ANS:  A A subdivision called the pelvic cavity contains the lower portion of the large intestine (lower sigmoid colon, rectum), urinary bladder, and internal structures of the reproductive system. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   Page 3, Figure 1-4 OBJ:   5                    TOP:   Body cavity   KEY:  Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC:  NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
  1. The four phases of cell division all occur in:
a. diffusion.
b. mitosis.
c. osmosis.
d. filtration.
ANS:  B During mitosis, the cell goes through four phases: prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   Page 7            OBJ:   9 TOP:   Cell division   KEY:  Nursing Process Step: N/A MSC:  NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
  1. Telophase is which phase of cell reproduction during mitosis?
a. First phase
b. Latent phase
c. Final phase
d. Spindle phase
ANS:  C During mitosis, the cell goes through four phases: prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   Page 7            OBJ:   9 TOP:   Cell division   KEY:  Nursing Process Step: N/A MSC:  NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
  1. The nurse is aware that which muscle group is both striated and involuntary?
a. Skeletal
b. Glial
c. Cardiac
d. Visceral
ANS:  C The cardiac muscle is both striated and involuntary. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   Page 9-10, Figure 1-12 OBJ:   11                  TOP:   Tissues           KEY:  Nursing Process Step: Planning MSC:  NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
  1. What is a group of several different kinds of tissues arranged so that together they can perform a more complex function than any tissue alone?
a. Organ
b. System
c. Cell
d. Endoplasmic reticulum
ANS:  A When several kinds of tissues are united to perform a more complex function than any tissue alone, they are called organs. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   Page 11          OBJ:   7 TOP:   Organs           KEY:  Nursing Process Step: N/A MSC:  NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
  1. What traits describe visceral muscles?
a. Smooth and voluntary
b. Smooth and involuntary
c. Striated and voluntary
d. Striated and involuntary
ANS:  B Visceral (smooth) muscles will not function at will; thus, they act involuntarily. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   Page 9, Figure 1-12 OBJ:   7                    TOP:   Tissues           KEY:  Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC:  NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
  1. How are the thoracic and abdominal cavities separated?
a. By the pleura
b. By the diaphragm
c. By the sagittal plane
d. By the peritoneum
ANS:  B The diaphragm (a muscle directly beneath the lungs) separates the ventral cavity into the thoracic (chest) and abdominal cavities. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   Page 10, Figure 1-3 OBJ:   3                    TOP:   Ventral cavity KEY:  Nursing Process Step: Assessment  MSC:  NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
  1. What is the broad section of biology dealing with the description of human structure?
a. Hematology
b. Anatomy
c. Kinesiology
d. Physiology
ANS:  B Anatomy is the study, classification, and description of the structure and organs of the body. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   Page 1            OBJ:   1 TOP:   Terminology                                   KEY:  Nursing Process Step: N/A MSC:  NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
  1. ____ explains the processes and functions of many structures of the body and how they interact with one another.
a. Anatomy
b. Mitosis
c. Filtration
d. Physiology
ANS:  D Physiology explains the processes and functions of the various structures and how they interrelate with one another. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   Page 1            OBJ:   1 TOP:   Terminology                                   KEY:  Nursing Process Step: N/A MSC:  NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
  1. The anatomic structure that is not in the thoracic cavity is/are the _____.
a. Heart
b. Lungs
c. Blood vessels
d. Transverse colon
ANS:  D The transverse colon is located in the abdominal cavity. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   Page 2, Figure 1-3 OBJ:   5                    TOP:   Thoracic cavity KEY:  Nursing Process Step: Assessment  MSC:  NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
  1. When several organs and parts are grouped together for certain functions, they form:
a. tissues.
b. systems.
c. cells.
d. membranes.
ANS:  B A system is an organization of varying numbers and kinds of organs arranged so that together they can perform complex functions for the body. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   Page 4            OBJ:   7 TOP:   Systems          KEY:  Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC:  NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
  1. What are the distinct surface proteins of the plasma membrane essential in determining?
a. Tissue typing
b. Blood count
c. Effectiveness of a drug
d. Sexual maturity
ANS:  A The plasma membrane has distinct surface proteins as coming from one individual.  This is the basis for the procedure of tissue typing to determine compatibility before an organ transplant. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   Page 5            OBJ:   12 TOP:   Cells               KEY:  Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC:  NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
  1. In anatomic terminology, posterior means toward the:
a. tail.
b. head.
c. back.
d. trunk.
ANS:  C The posterior is toward the back. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   Page 1            OBJ:   2 TOP:   Anatomic terminology                    KEY:  Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC:  NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
  1. What does the transverse body plane divide?
a. The front and back (coronal) of the body
b. The body lengthwise (two equal halves)
c. The superior and inferior portions of the body
d. The body into axial and appendicular
ANS:  C The transverse plane cuts the body horizontally into the sagittal and the frontal planes, dividing the body into caudal and cranial portions. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   Page 2, Figure 1-2 OBJ:   3                    TOP:   Body planes   KEY:  Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC:  NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
  1. Caudal is defined as toward the ____.
a. head
b. feet
c. tail
d. chest
ANS:  C Caudal is a directional word that indicates toward the “tail,” the distal portion of the spine. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   Page 1            OBJ:   3 TOP:   Anatomic terminology                    KEY:  Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC:  NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
  1. What is the term for the movement of water from an area of lower solute concentration to an area of higher solute concentration?
a. Absorption
b. Filtration
c. Diffusion
d. Osmosis
ANS:  D Osmosis is the passage of water from less concentrated solution to more concentrated solution. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   Page 8, Table 1-4 OBJ:   10                  TOP:   Transport processes KEY:  Nursing Process Step: Assessment  MSC:  NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
  1. What is the type of tissue composed of cells that contract in response to a message from the brain or spinal cord?
a. Epithelial
b. Connective
c. Membrane
d. Muscle
ANS:  D Muscle tissue is composed of cells that contract in response to a message from the brain or spinal cord. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   Page 9            OBJ:   7 TOP:   Tissues           KEY:  Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC:  NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
  1. What is the type of tissue associated with the storage of fat?
a. Areolar tissue
b. Adipose tissue
c. Osseous tissue
d. Muscle tissue
ANS:  B Adipose tissue is associated with the important function of storing fat. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   Page 9-10, Table 1-5 OBJ:   11                  TOP:   Tissues           KEY:  Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC:  NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
  1. What are the thin sheets of tissue that lubricate and line the body surfaces that open to the outside environment?
a. Mucous membranes
b. Serous membranes
c. Cytoplasm
d. Involuntary visceral muscles
ANS:  A Mucous membranes secrete mucus. They line the body surfaces that open to the outside environment. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   Page 11          OBJ:   7 TOP:   Tissues           KEY:  Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC:  NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
  1. What is the process by which a cell digests a foreign material by surrounding it?
a. Pinocytosis
b. Phagocytosis
c. Absorption
d. Diffusion
ANS:  B Phagocytosis is the process that permits a cell to engulf or surround any foreign material and digest it. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   Pages 7-8, Table 1-3 OBJ:   10                  TOP:   Active transport processes KEY:  Nursing Process Step: Assessment  MSC:  NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
  1. Active transport in the movement of ions and other water-soluble particles across cell membranes requires that the body uses its::
a. rapid filtration.
b. charged diffusion.
c. a chemical pump.
d. osmosis.
ANS:  C Active transport of ions and other water-soluble particles of the cell membrane require a chemical pump, such as insulin, to move glucose into the cell. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   Page 8, Table 1-4 OBJ:   10                  TOP:   Active transport processes KEY:  Nursing Process Step: Assessment  MSC:  NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
  1. What is the term for the passage of water containing dissolved materials through a membrane as the result of a greater mechanical force on one side?
a. Metabolism
b. Mitosis
c. Filtration
d. Osmosis
ANS:  C Filtration is the movement of water and particles through a membrane by a force from either pressure or gravity. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   Page 8, Table 1-4 OBJ:   10                  TOP:   Passive transport processes KEY:  Nursing Process Step: Assessment  MSC:  NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
  1. The nurse is aware that when a patient complains of pain in the epigastric region, the source of the pain is most likely to be a disorder involving the:
a. gallbladder.
b. transverse colon.
c. stomach.
d. appendix.
ANS:  C The epigastric region of the abdomen is comprised of parts of the right and left lobes of the liver and a large portion of the stomach. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   Page 3, Figure 1-4 OBJ:   5                    TOP:   Epigastric region KEY:  Nursing Process Step: Assessment  MSC:  NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
  1. What are tissues that cover the outside of the body and some internal structures?
a. Connective
b. Epithelial
c. Nerve
d. Muscle
ANS:  B Epithelial tissue covers the outside of the body and some of the internal structures. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   Page 9            OBJ:   7 TOP:   Tissues           KEY:  Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC:  NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
  1. When the nurse assesses an arm in proximal to distal order, the assessment is performed from:

Test Bank for Fundamentals of Nursing Care 2nd Edition by Burton

Chapter 1 Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____    1.   A nurse is educating a nursing student about nursing history. The nurse explains that throughout ancient history, nursing care was provided by family members and
1. Nurses.
2. Physicians.
3. Male priests.
4. Female priests.
____    2.   A nurse is teaching a student about the history of nursing. The nurse informs the student that in 1836, the first school of nursing was established in Kaiserworth, Germany, by
1. Jean Watson.
2. Clara Barton.
3. Theodor Fliedner.
4. Florence Nightingale.
____    3.   A nurse teaches a student nurse that in 1897, the Nurses Associated Alumnae of the United States was formed in an effort to
1. Set standards and rules in nursing education.
2. Keep nurses aware of the newest medical information.
3. Oversee training to protect patients from incompetent nurses.
4. Keep nurses updated on the newest information about nursing education.
____    4.   The purpose of the National League for Nursing is to
1. Set standards and rules in nursing education.
2. Keep nurses aware of the newest medical information.
3. Oversee training to protect patients from incompetent nurses.
4. Keep nurses updated on the newest information about nursing education.
____    5.   All states required practical nurses to be licensed in the year
1. 1940.
2. 1945.
3. 1950.
4. 1955.
____    6.   The title licensed practical nurse (LPN) is used in all states except California and
1. Texas.
2. Maine.
3. Alaska.
4. Arizona.
____    7.   The National Council Licensure Examination for Practical Nursing (NCLEX-PN) is
1. Taken in order to practice as a nurse.
2. Given as an entrance examination for nursing school.
3. Individualized based on where an examinee resides.
4. Taken in order to practice as a certified nursing assistant (CNA).
____    8.   A nurse recruiter is seeking a graduate nurse who has been educated more extensively on management and leadership. The graduate nurse who most likely fits this description is the
1. Diploma nurse.
2. Associate degree nurse (ADN).
3. Licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN).
4. Baccalaureate degree nurse (BSN).
____    9.   Which statement about the Nurse Practice Act is accurate?
1. The Nurse Practice Act clarifies who can supervise a physician.
2. The Nurse Practice Act is the law that governs the actions of nurses.
3. The Nurse Practice Act is determined by the National League of Nursing.
4. The Nurse Practice Act specifies the tasks of the unlicensed assistive personnel.
____   10.   A nurse educates a nursing student about the Nurse Practice Act. The nursing student demonstrates understanding when he or she states:
1. “The Nurse Practice Act is the same in every state.”
2. “The Nurse Practice Act does not specify who can supervise a nurse.”
3. “The Nurse Practice Act is determined by the American Nurses Association.”
4. “The Nurse Practice Act establishes the scope of practice for each level of nurse.”
____   11.   While caring for a patient, a nurse performs a nursing action that is not within his or her scope of practice. The nurse has violated the
1. Ethics Committee.
2. Nurse Practice Act.
3. State Department of Health.
4. National League for Nursing Education.
____   12.   The Nurse Practice Act is enforced by the
1. State Board of Nursing.
2. County Health Department.
3. State Department of Health.
4. National League for Nursing.
____   13.   A nurse is caring for a resident in a long-term setting. The nurse best demonstrates a caring approach when
1. Performing all activities of daily living for the resident.
2. Asking the resident’s spouse to bring a family picture for the resident’s room.
3. Answering the resident’s questions quickly without allowing time for clarification.
4. Encouraging the resident’s spouse to decide which activities the resident should do.
____   14.   A nurse is caring for multiple patients on a medical unit. The nurse can best practice the art of nursing with an emphasis on caring by
1. Providing identical care to each patient.
2. Individualizing care provided to each patient.
3. Viewing the patients in terms of a cellular disorder.
4. Viewing the patients as seriously ill and needing a cure.
____   15.   A nurse is educating a student nurse about the responsibilities of a student nurse. The nurse recognizes that additional teaching is needed when the student nurse states:
1. “I will check laboratory results for my patients often.”
2. “I am responsible for noting abnormal assessment findings.”
3. “I will frequently check the patient’s chart for diagnostic test results.”
4. “It is not within my scope of practice to notify someone of abnormal findings.”
____   16.   A nursing instructor teaches a student nurse about the importance of joining a professional organization. The nursing instructor recognizes that further instruction is necessary when the student nurse states,
1. “Professional organizations allow me to have a collective voice.”
2. “Professional organizations limit my ability to influence laws and policies.”
3. “Professional behavior is demonstrated by joining a professional organization.”
4. “By joining a professional organization, I will have opportunities for leadership.”
 

Test Bank for Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Care , (4th Edition)

CONTENTS SECTION 1: FETAL DEVELOPMENT, ASSESSMENT, AND DELIVERY 1. Fetal Lung Development 2. Fetal Gas Exchange and Circulation 3. Antenatal Assessment and High-Risk Delivery SECTION 2: ASSESSMENT AND MONITORING OF THE NEONATAL AND PEDIATRIC PATIENT 4. Exam and Assessment of the Neonatal and Pediatric Patient 5. Pulmonary Function Testing and Bedside Pulmonary Mechanics 6. Radiographic Assessment 7. Bronchoscopy 8. Invasive Blood Gas Analysis and Monitoring 9. Non-Invasive Monitoring in Neonatal and Pediatric Care SECTION 3: THERAPEUTIC PROCEDURES FOR TREATMENT OF NEONATAL AND PEDIATRIC DISORDERS 10. Oxygen Administration 11. Aerosols and Administration of Medication 12. Airway Clearance Techniques and Lung Volume Expansion 13. Airway Management 14. Surfactant Replacement 15. Non-Invasive Mechanical Ventilation and Continuous Positive Pressure of the Neonate 16. Non-Invasive Mechanical Ventilation of the Child 17. Mechanical Ventilation of the Neonatal and Pediatric Patient 18. Administration of Gas Mixtures 19. Extracorporeal Life Support 20. Pharmacology 21. Thoracic Organ Transplantation 22. Neonatal Complications and Pulmonary Disorders SECTION 4: NEONATAL AND PEDIATRIC DISORDERS: PRESENTATION, DIAGNOSIS, AND TREATMENT 23. Congenital and Surgical Disorders that Affect Respiratory Care 24. Congenital Cardiac Defects 25. Sudden Infant Death Syndrome and Sleep Disorders 26. Pediatric Airway Disorders and Pulmonary Infections 27. Asthma 28. Cystic Fibrosis 29. Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome 30. Shock, Sepsis, and Anaphylaxis 31. Pediatric Trauma 32. Disorders of the Pleura 33. Neurological and Neuromuscular Disorders SECTION 5: NEONATAL AND PEDIATRIC TRANSIENT AND AMBULATORY CARE 34. Transport of Infants and Children 35. Home Care 36. Quality and Safety NEW!

Test Bank for Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 9th Edition

Contents Chapter 01: The Nursing Process and Drug Therapy................................................................................. 4 Chapter 02: Pharmacologic Principles...................................................................................................... 8 Chapter 03: Lifespan Considerations...................................................................................................... 14 Chapter 04: Cultural, Legal, and Ethical Considerations.......................................................................... 20 Chapter 05: Medication Errors: Preventing and Responding .................................................................. 26 Chapter 06: Patient Education and Drug Therapy................................................................................... 29 Chapter 07: Over-the-Counter Drugs and Herbal and Dietary Supplements ........................................... 34 Chapter 08: Gene Therapy and Pharmacogenomics............................................................................... 38 Chapter 09: Photo Atlas of Drug Administration .................................................................................... 41 Chapter 10: Analgesic Drugs.................................................................................................................. 50 Chapter 11: General and Local Anesthetics............................................................................................ 57 Chapter 12: Central Nervous System Depressants and Muscle Relaxants............................................... 61 Chapter 13: Central Nervous System Stimulants and Related Drugs....................................................... 66 Chapter 14: Antiepileptic Drugs............................................................................................................. 70 Chapter 15: Antiparkinson Drugs.............................................................................................................76 Chapter 16: Psychotherapeutic Drugs.................................................................................................... 81 Chapter 17: Substance Use Disorder...................................................................................................... 88 Chapter 18: Adrenergic Drugs................................................................................................................ 93 Chapter 19: Adrenergic-Blocking Drugs.................................................................................................. 98 Chapter 20: Cholinergic Drugs ............................................................................................................. 103 Chapter 21: Cholinergic-Blocking Drugs............................................................................................... 108 Chapter 22: Antihypertensive Drugs.................................................................................................... 113 Chapter 23: Antianginal Drugs............................................................................................................. 119 Chapter 24: Heart Failure Drugs........................................................................................................... 125 Chapter 25: Antidysrhythmic Drugs..................................................................................................... 131 Chapter 26: Coagulation Modifier Drugs.............................................................................................. 137 Chapter 27: Antilipemic Drugs............................................................................................................. 143 Chapter 28: Diuretic Drugs................................................................................................................... 148 Chapter 29: Fluids and Electrolytes...................................................................................................... 154 Chapter 30: Pituitary Drugs.................................................................................................................. 160 Chapter 31: Thyroid and Antithyroid Drugs.......................................................................................... 163 Chapter 32: Antidiabetic Drugs............................................................................................................ 168 Chapter 33: Adrenal Drugs................................................................................................................... 177 Chapter 34: Women’s Health Drugs..................................................................................................... 181 Chapter 35: Men’s Health Drugs.......................................................................................................... 188 Chapter 36: Antihistamines, Decongestants, Antitussives, and Expectorants ....................................... 193 Chapter 37: Respiratory Drugs............................................................................................................. 198 Chapter 38: Antibiotics Part 1.............................................................................................................. 204 Chapter 39: Antibiotics Part 2.............................................................................................................. 211 Chapter 40: Antiviral Drugs.................................................................................................................. 216 Chapter 41: Antitubercular Drugs ........................................................................................................ 221 Chapter 42: Antifungal Drugs............................................................................................................... 226 Chapter 43: Antimalarial, Antiprotozoal, and Anthelmintic Drugs ........................................................ 231 Chapter 44: Anti-inflammatory and Antigout Drugs............................................................................. 236 Chapter 45: Antineoplastic Drugs Part 1: Cancer Overview and Cell Cycle–Specific Drugs..................... 242 Chapter 46: Antineoplastic Drugs Part 2: Cell Cycle–Nonspecific Drugs and Miscellaneous Drugs......... 248 Chapter 47: Biologic Response–Modifying and Antirheumatic Drugs ................................................... 253 Chapter 48: Immunosuppressant Drugs............................................................................................... 258 Chapter 49: Immunizing Drugs............................................................................................................. 263 Chapter 50: Acid-Controlling Drugs...................................................................................................... 268 Chapter 51: Bowel Disorder Drugs....................................................................................................... 274 Chapter 52: Antiemetic and Antinausea Drugs..................................................................................... 281 Chapter 53: Vitamins and Minerals...................................................................................................... 286 Chapter 54: Anemia Drugs................................................................................................................... 292 Chapter 55: Nutritional Supplements................................................................................................... 299 Chapter 56: Dermatologic Drugs.......................................................................................................... 304 Chapter 57: Ophthalmic Drugs............................................................................................................. 310 Chapter 58: Otic Drugs ............................

Test Bank for Public Health Science and Nursing Practice Caring For Populations by Savage

Chapter 10: Mental Health MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1.According to Healthy People 2020, which of the following are characteristics of mental health? Select all that apply.
A. Engaging in productive activities
B. Having fulfilling relationships
C. Experiencing alterations in thinking
D. Adapting to change
E. Coping with challenges
ANS: A, B, D, E Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders. pp. 225-226 Heading: Introduction Integrated Processes: N/A Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Knowledge [Remembering] Concept: Promoting Health Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
1. Mental health is a state of successful performance of mental function, including engagement in productive activities.
2. Mental health is a state of successful performance of mental function, including being able to form fulfilling relationships with other people.
3. This is incorrect; it is an example of a mental disorder. Mental disorders are health conditions that are characterized by alterations in thinking, mood, or behavior that are associated with distress or impaired functioning.
4. Mental health is a state of successful performance of mental function, including the ability to adapt to change.
5. Mental health is a state of successful performance of mental function, including the ability to cope with challenges.
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health MULTIPLE CHOICE 2.In 2010, approximately how many people in the United States reported experiencing mental disorders in the previous year?
A. 15%
B. 50%
C. 30%
D. 25%
ANS: D Objective: 1. Define the burden of disease related to mental disorders using current epidemiological frameworks. pp. 226-227 Heading: Epidemiology of Mental Disorders Integrated Processes: N/A Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Comprehension [Understanding] Concept: Promoting Health Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A This is incorrect. In the United States in 2010 an estimated 25% of adults reported having mental disorders in the previous year.
B This is incorrect. In the United States in 2010 an estimated 25% of adults reported having mental disorders in the previous year.
C This is incorrect. In the United States in 2010 an estimated 25% of adults reported having mental disorders in the previous year.
D In the United States in 2010 an estimated 25% of adults reported having mental disorders in the previous year.
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health 3.A student nurse is studying stress and mental health. The student nurse learns that ____ is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events.
A. Intervention
B. Support
C. Resilience
D. Therapy
ANS: C Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders. pp. 229-231 Heading: Protective Factors: Building Resilience Integrated Processes: Teaching/Learning Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Trauma; Stress; Promoting Health; Nursing Roles Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A This is incorrect. Resilience is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events. Preventive and treatment interventions are useful tools to build on an individual’s natural resilience to promote positive outcomes.
B This is incorrect. Resilience is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events. Support from family, friends, and community is an important part of strengthening an individual’s resilience.
C Resilience is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events.
D This is incorrect. Resilience is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events. Therapy is an important part of an overall treatment plan, in conjunction with intervention, support, and an individual’s capacity for resilience.
PTS: 1 CON: Trauma | Stress | Promoting Health | Nursing Roles 4.____ addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder.
A. Indicated prevention
B. Selective prevention
C. Universal prevention
D. Both 1 and 2
ANS: A Objective: 4. Apply current evidence-based population level interventions to the prevention of mental disorders and the promotion of optimal mental health for communities and populations. pp. 232-233 Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Institute of Medicine Model of Prevention Integrated Processes: Nursing Process Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Comprehension [Understanding] Concept: Promoting Health Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A Indicated prevention addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder. The purpose of indicated techniques is to delay or reduce the severity of a mental disorder.
B Selective prevention includes interventions provided to specific subgroups that are known to be at high risk for mental disorders owing to biological, psychological, social, or environmental factors but that have not yet been diagnosed with mental disorders. High-risk subgroups include but are not limited to those with a family history of mental disorders, history of adverse childhood events, or victims of violence.
C Universal prevention refers to prevention interventions provided to the entire population, not just those who may be at risk. The interventions include but are not limited to public service announcements provided to the public at large through billboards, media messages (print and electronic), or general health education programs.
D Indicated prevention addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder. The purpose of indicated techniques is to delay or reduce the severity of a mental disorder. Selective prevention includes interventions provided to specific subgroups that are known to be at high risk for mental disorders owing to biological, psychological, social, or environmental factors but that have not yet been diagnosed with mental disorders. High-risk subgroups include but are not limited to those with a family history of mental disorders, history of adverse childhood events, or victims of violence.
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health 5.The public health nurse (PHN) recognizes that which of the following are used as screening tools for depression?
A. Patient Health Questionnaire 2
B. Center for Epidemiological Studies Depression Scale (CESD-10)
C. Brief Symptom Checklist-18 of the My Mood Monitor (M-3)
D. Both 1 and 2
ANS: D Objective: 5. Describe systems approaches to the promotion of mental health and the prevention and treatment of mental health disorders. p. 232 Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Measure of Mental Health: Health-Related Quality of Life Integrated Processes: Nursing Process Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Promoting Health; Mood; Assessment Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A Tools to screen for depression include the Patient Health Questionnaire 2 and the CESD-10.
B Tools to screen for depression include the Patient Health Questionnaire 2 and the CESD-10.
C This is incorrect. Tools to screen for depression include the Patient Health Questionnaire 2 and the CESD-10. Screening tools for anxiety disorders include the Brief Symptom Checklist-18 of the My Mood Monitor (M-3).
D Tools to screen for depression include the Patient Health Questionnaire 2 and the CESD-10.
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health | Mood | Assessment 6.During a course on mental disorders, a PHN learns that the term serious mental illness (SMI) refers to diagnosable mental disorders that may disrupt a person’s ability to function and may qualify that person for support services. The PHN also notes that the mental disorders that can lead to SMI include:
A. Mild depression
B. Panic disorder
C. Schizophrenia
D. Both 2 and 3
ANS: D Objective: 1. Define the burden of disease related to mental disorders using current epidemiological frameworks. pp. 225-226 Heading: Introduction Integrated Processes: Teaching/Learning Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Cognition; Mood; Stress; Promoting Health; Nursing Roles Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A This is incorrect. Major depression, however, is one of the mental disorders that can lead to SMI.
B Both panic disorder and schizophrenia, among other mental disorders, can lead to SMI.
C Both schizophrenia and panic disorder, among other mental disorders, can lead to SMI.
D The mental disorders that can lead to SMI include major depression, panic disorder, schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD), post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), and borderline personality disorder.
PTS: 1 CON: Cognition | Mood | Stress | Promoting Health | Nursing Roles 7.While studying the prevalence of mental health disorders worldwide, a PHN learns about the World Mental Health Survey, which is used to determine estimates of human capital costs and prevalence of mental disorders in a wide range of countries. The survey was developed by
A. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
B. The World Health Organization (WHO)
C. The Institute of Medicine (IOM)
D. The World Health Assembly
ANS: B Objective: 1. Define the burden of disease related to mental disorders using current epidemiological frameworks. p. 227 Heading: Epidemiology of Mental Disorders > Surveillance of Mental Health Disorders Integrated Processes: Teaching/Learning Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Promoting Health; Nursing Roles Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A This is incorrect. WHO developed the World Mental Health Survey to estimate human capital costs and mental disorders prevalence on a global scale. The CDC conducts many types of surveys on the prevalence of mental disorders but the organization did not develop the World Mental Health Survey.
B The WHO developed the World Mental Health Survey to estimate human capital costs and mental disorders prevalence on a global scale.
C This is incorrect. WHO developed the World Mental Health Survey to estimate human capital costs and mental disorders prevalence on a global scale. The IOM is involved in screening for mental health disorders and addresses the need for appropriate behavioral health treatment in its report, Improving the Quality of Health Care for Mental and Substance-Use Conditions: Quality Chasm Series.
D This is incorrect. WHO developed the World Mental Health Survey to estimate human capital costs and mental disorders prevalence on a global scale. The World Health Assembly issued a resolution on mental health that aims to reduce the global burden of mental disorders and improve overall mental health worldwide.
PTS: 1 CON: Promoting Health | Nursing Roles 8.Which ethnic group has the highest 12-month prevalence of a mental disorder?
A. Hispanics
B. African Americans
C. Asian Americans
D. Non-Hispanic whites
ANS: D Objective: 1. Define the burden of disease related to mental disorders using current epidemiological frameworks. pp. 227-228 Heading: Epidemiology of Mental Disorders > Prevalence of Mental Health Disorders Integrated Processes: N/A Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Knowledge [Remembering] Concept: Promoting Health Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A This is incorrect. Non-Hispanic whites have the highest 12-month prevalence rate for mental disorders at 21% compared with 16% for Hispanics.
B This is incorrect. Non-Hispanic whites have the highest 12-month prevalence rate for mental disorders at 21% compared with 15% for African Americans.
C This is incorrect. Non-Hispanic whites have the highest 12-month prevalence rate for mental disorders at 21% compared with 9% for Asian Americans.
D Non-Hispanic whites have the highest 12-month prevalence rate for mental disorders at 21%.
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health 9.A PHN learns in a behavioral health class that the relationship between physiology and mental health plays an important role in mental disorders. Which of the following physiological factors may contribute to the development of mental disorders?
A. Conditions that affect brain chemistry, such as medication side effects or toxins
B. Physical trauma
C. 1 and 2
D. Unstable family life
ANS: C Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders. pp. 228-229 Heading: Behavioral, Biological, Environmental, and Socioeconomic Risk Factors > Individual Level Risk Factors for Mental Disorders Integrated Processes: Teaching/Learning Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Application] Concept: Cognition; Trauma; Promoting Health Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A Both conditions that affect brain chemistry and physical trauma are the physiological factors that may contribute to the development of mental disorders.
B Both physical trauma and conditions that affect brain chemistry are physiological factors that may contribute to the development of mental disorders.
C Conditions that affect brain chemistry and physical trauma are two of the physiological factors that may contribute to the development of mental disorders.
D This is incorrect. Conditions that affect brain chemistry and physical trauma are two of the physiological factors that may contribute to the development of mental disorders. An unstable family life is not a physiological factor, although it may also contribute to the development of mental disorders.
PTS:1CON:Cognition | Trauma | Promoting Health 10.Which of the following community environment factors play a role in the development of mental disorders?
A. Living in high crime areas
B. Poverty
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Family instability
ANS: C Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders. p. 229 Heading: Behavioral, Biological, Environmental, and Socioeconomic Risk Factors > Community-Level Risk Factors for Mental Disorders Integrated Processes: N/A Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Comprehension [Understanding] Concept: Promoting Health Difficulty: Easy
Feedback
A Living in high crime areas is a factor, along with poverty.
B Both poverty and living in high crime areas play a role in the development of mental disorders.
C Both poverty and living in high crime areas play a role in the development of mental disorders.
D This is incorrect. Although family instability often contributes to the development of mental disorders, it is not considered a community environment factor.
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health 11.____ is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable.
A. Indicated prevention
B. Stigma
C. Risk factors
D. Transinstitutionalization
ANS: B Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders. pp. 231-232 Heading: Culture, Stigma, and Mental Health Disorders Integrated Processes: N/A Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Comprehension [Understanding] Concept: Promoting Health Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A This is incorrect. Stigma is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable. Indicated prevention addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder.
B Stigma is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable.
C This is incorrect. Stigma is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable. Risk factors increase an individual’s chance of developing a mental disorder.
D This is incorrect. Stigma is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable. Transinstitutionalization refers to the growing number of mentally ill persons who are homeless, in jail, in shelters, or in other facilities instead of being home or in a hospital.
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health 12.A nurse interested in working with persons with mental disorders who live in poverty understands that the most effective treatment involves multiple sectors of society, such as government agencies, grass roots groups, nonprofits, and businesses, working in tandem. This interrelationship is called:
A. Indicated prevention
B. Intersectoral strategies
C. Health-Related Quality of Life
D. Institute of Medicine Model of Prevention
ANS: B Objective: 4. Apply current evidence-based population level interventions to the prevention of mental disorders and the promotion of optimal mental health for communities and populations. p. 233 Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Promotion of Mental Health and Policy Integrated Processes: Nursing Process Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Promoting Health; Collaboration Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A This is incorrect. Intersectoral strategies engage more than one sector of society with a shared interest such as government agencies, grass roots citizens groups, nonprofits, and businesses. Indicated prevention addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder.
B Intersectoral strategies engage more than one sector of society with a shared interest such as government agencies, grass roots citizens groups, nonprofits, and businesses.
C This is incorrect. Intersectoral strategies engage more than one sector of society with a shared interest such as government agencies, grass roots citizens groups, nonprofits, and businesses. Health-Related Quality of Life is the self-perceived impact of physical and emotional health on overall quality of life.
D This is incorrect. Intersectoral strategies engage more than one sector of society with a shared interest such as government agencies, grass roots citizens groups, nonprofits, and businesses. The Institute of Medicine Model of Prevention is a framework for mental disorders that clearly separates prevention into three categories with specific interventions at each level.
PTS: 1 CON: Promoting Health | Collaboration 13.A recent graduate nurse working in an urban labor and delivery unit had a patient who experienced a difficult labor. The mother, suffering from postpartum depression (PPD), committed suicide a year after giving birth. Although the nurse knew the basics about PPD, the nurse immediately studied the condition in depth and learned that PPD:
A. Can be triggered by a massive hormone drop following delivery
B. Can intensify to cause delusions
C. Occurs soon after delivery
D. All of the above
ANS: D Objective: 4. Apply current evidence-based population level interventions to the prevention of mental disorders and the promotion of optimal mental health for communities and populations. pp. 233-235 Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Secondary Prevention: Screening for Mental Disorders Integrated Processes: Nursing Process Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Pregnancy; Mood; Violence; Promoting Health; Nursing Roles Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A PPD can be triggered by a massive post-delivery hormone drop, intensify enough to cause delusions, and occur soon after delivery.
B PPD can be triggered by a massive post-delivery hormone drop, intensify enough to cause delusions, and occur soon after delivery.
C PPD can be triggered by a massive post-delivery hormone drop, intensify enough to cause delusions, and occur soon after delivery.
D PPD can be triggered by a massive post-delivery hormone drop, intensify enough to cause delusions, and occur soon after delivery.
PTS: 1 CON: Pregnancy | Mood | Violence | Promoting Health | Nursing Roles 14.A nurse working in labor and delivery requested permission from the nurse manager to conduct a quality improvement project to screen patients that might be susceptible to PPD. After completing the project, which of the following screening guidelines did the unit incorporate?
A. All patients will be screened for PPD when they are admitted to the labor and delivery unit.
B. Patients at high risk are referred to the attending obstetrician.
C. Before being discharged, all new mothers will complete a questionnaire specific to PPD symptoms.
D. All of the above
ANS: D Objective: Apply current evidence-based population level interventions to the prevention of mental disorders and the promotion of optimal mental health for communities and populations. pp. 233-235 Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Secondary Prevention: Screening for Mental Disorders Integrated Processes: Nursing Process Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Pregnancy; Mood; Promoting Health; Assessment; Quality Improvement Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A This is incorrect. Screening, high-risk referrals to the attending obstetrician and completion of a PPD symptom questionnaire were all incorporated.
B This is incorrect. Screening, high-risk referrals to the attending obstetrician and completion of a PPD symptom questionnaire were all incorporated.
C This is incorrect. Screening, high-risk referrals to the attending obstetrician and completion of a PPD symptom questionnaire were all incorporated.
D Screening, high-risk referrals to the attending obstetrician and completion of a PPD symptom questionnaire were all incorporated.
PTS:1 CON: Pregnancy | Mood | Promoting Health | Assessment | Quality Improvement 15.A PHN treats a patient who may be depressed. To verify suspicions, the PHN checks ____, the definitive clinical guide for diagnosing mental disorders and providing consistency and accuracy in the screening for mental disorders.
A. The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5)
B. The Center for Epidemiological Studies Depression Scale (CESD-10)
C. Patient Health Questionnaire 2
D. Brief System Checklist-18 of the My Mood Monitor
ANS: A

Test Bank Foundations of Maternal-Newborn and Women’s Health Nursing 7th Edition

Chapter 01: Maternity and Women’s Health Care Today Foundations of Maternal-Newborn & Women’s Health Nursing, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A nurse educator is teaching a group of nursing students about the history of family-centered maternity care. Which statement should the nurse include in the teaching session? a. The Sheppard-Towner Act of 1921 promoted family-centered care. b. Changes in the pharmacologic management of labor prompted family-centered care. c. Demands by physicians for family involvement in childbirth increased the practice of family-centered care. d. Parental requests that infants be allowed to remain with them rather than in a nursery initiated the practice of family-centered care. ANS: D As research began to identify the benefits of early, extended parent-infant contact, parents began to insist that the infant remain with them. This gradually developed into the practice of rooming-in and finally to family-centered maternity care. The Sheppard-Towner Act provided funds for state-managed programs for mothers and children but did not promote family-centered care. The changes in pharmacologic management of labor were not a factor in family-centered maternity care. Family-centered care was a request by parents, not physicians. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application OBJ: Nursing Process Step: Planning MSC: Patient Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 2. Expectant parents ask a prenatal nurse educator, “Which setting for childbirth limits the amount of parent-infant interaction?” Which answer should the nurse provide for these parents in order to assist them in choosing an appropriate birth setting? a. Birth center b. Homebirth c. Traditional hospital birth d. Labor, birth, and recovery room ANS: C In the traditional hospital setting, the mother may see the infant for only short feeding periods, and the infant is cared for in a separate nursery. Birth centers are set up to allow an increase in parent-infant contact. Home births allow the greatest amount of parent-infant contact. The labor, birth, recovery, and postpartum room setting allows for increased parent-infant contact. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understanding OBJ: Nursing Process Step: Planning MSC: Patient Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 3. Which statement best describes the advantage of a labor, birth, recovery, and postpartum (LDRP) room? a. The family is in a familiar environment. b. They are less expensive than traditional hospital rooms. c. The infant is removed to the nursery to allow the mother to rest. d. The woman’s support system is encouraged to stay until discharge. ANS: D NURSINGTB.COM Foundations of Maternal-Newborn and Women's Health Nursing 7th Edition Murray Test BankNU RS IN GT B.CO M Sleeping equipment is provided in a private room. A hospital setting is never a familiar environment to new parents. An LDRP room is not less expensive than a traditional hospital room. The baby remains with the mother at all times and is not removed to the nursery for routine care or testing. The father or other designated members of the mother’s support system are encouraged to stay at all times. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understanding OBJ: Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: Patient Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 4. Which nursing intervention is an independent function of the professional nurse? a. Administering oral analgesics b. Requesting diagnostic studies c. Teaching the patient perineal care d. Providing wound care to a surgical incision ANS: C Nurses are now responsible for various independent functions, including teaching, counseling, and intervening in nonmedical problems. Interventions initiated by the physician and carried out by the nurse are called dependent functions. Administrating oral analgesics is a dependent function; it is initiated by a physician and carried out by a nurse. Requesting diagnostic studies is a dependent function. Providing wound care is a dependent function; however, the physician prescribes the type of wound care through direct orders or protocol. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understanding OBJ: Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: Patient Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment 5. Which response by the nurse is the most therapeutic when the patient states, “I’m so afraid to have a cesarean birth”? a. “Everything will be OK.” b. “Don’t worry about it. It will be over soon.” c. “What concerns you most about a cesarean birth?” d. “The physician will be in later and you can talk to him.” ANS: C The response, “What concerns you most about a cesarean birth” focuses on what the patient is saying and asks for clarification, which is the most therapeutic response. The response, “Everything will be ok” is belittling the patient’s feelings. The response, “Don’t worry about it. It will be over soon” will indicate that the patient’s feelings are not important. The response, “The physician will be in later and you can talk to him” does not allow the patient to verbalize her feelings when she wishes to do that. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application OBJ: Nursing Process Step: Implementation MSC: Patient Needs: Psychosocial Integrity 6. In which step of the nursing process does the nurse determine the appropriate interventions for the identified nursing diagnosis? a. Planning b. Evaluation c. Assessment d. Intervention ANS: A NURSINGTB.COM Foundations of Maternal-Newborn and Women's Health Nursing 7th Edition Murray Test BankNU RS IN GT B.CO M The third step in the nursing process involves planning care for problems that were identified during assessment. The evaluation phase is determining whether the goals have been met. During the assessment phase, data are collected. The intervention phase is when the plan of care is carried out. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understanding OBJ: Nursing Process Step: Planning MSC: Patient Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment 7. Which goal is most appropriate for the collaborative problem of wound infection? a. The patient will not exhibit further signs of infection. b. Maintain the patient’s fluid intake at 1000 mL/8 hour. c. The patient will have a temperature of 98.6F within 2 days. d. Monitor the patient to detect therapeutic response to antibiotic therapy. ANS: D In a collaborative problem, the goal should be nurse-oriented and reflect the nursing interventions of monitoring or observing. Monitoring for complications such as further signs of infection is an independent nursing role. Intake and output is an independent nursing role. Monitoring a patient’s temperature is an independent nursing role. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application OBJ: Nursing Process Step: Planning MSC: Patient Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment 8. Which nursing intervention is written correctly? a. Force fluids as necessary. b. Observe interaction with the infant. c. Encourage turning, coughing, and deep breathing. d. Assist to ambulate for 10 minutes at 8 AM, 2 PM, and 6 PM. ANS: D Interventions might not be carried out if they are not detailed and specific. “Force fluids” is not specific; it does not state how much or how often. Encouraging the patient to turn, cough, and breathe deeply is not detailed or specific. Observing interaction with the infant does not state how often this procedure should be done. Assisting the patient to ambulate for 10 minutes within a certain timeframe is specific. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application OBJ: Nursing Process Step: Planning MSC: Patient Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment 9. The patient makes the statement: “I’m afraid to take the baby home tomorrow.” Which response by the nurse would be the most therapeutic? a. “You’re afraid to take the baby home?” b. “Don’t you have a mother who can come and help?” c. “You should read the literature I gave you before you leave.” d. “I was scared when I took my first baby home, but everything worked out.” ANS: A NURSINGTB.COM Foundations of Maternal-Newborn and Women's Health Nursing 7th Edition Murray Test BankNU RS IN GT B.CO M This response uses reflection to show concern and open communication. The other choices are blocks to communication. Asking if the patient has a mother who can come and assist blocks further communication with the patient. Telling the patient to read the literature before leaving does not allow the patient to express her feelings further. Sharing your own birth experience is inappropriate. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application OBJ: Nursing Process Step: Implementation MSC: Patient Needs: Psychosocial Integrity 10. The nurse is writing an expected outcome for the nursing diagnosis—acute pain related to tissue trauma, secondary to vaginal birth, as evidenced by patient stating pain of 8 on a scale of 10. Which expected outcome is correctly stated for this problem? a. Patient will state that pain is a 2 on a scale of 10. b. Patient will have a reduction in pain after administration of the prescribed analgesic. c. Patient will state an absence of pain 1 hour after administration of the prescribed analgesic. d. Patient will state that pain is a 2 on a scale of 10, 1 hour after the administration of the prescribed analgesic. ANS: D The outcome should be patient-centered, measurable, realistic, and attainable and within a specified timeframe. Patient stating that her pain is now 2 on a scale of 10 lacks a timeframe. Patient having a reduction in pain after administration of the prescribed analgesic lacks a measurement. Patient stating an absence of pain 1 hour after the administration of prescribed analgesic is unrealistic. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application OBJ: Nursing Process Step: Planning MSC: Patient Needs: Physiologic Integrity 11. Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse identify as a priority for a patient in active labor? a. Risk for anxiety related to upcoming birth b. Risk for imbalanced nutrition related to NPO status c. Risk for altered family processes related to new addition to the family d. Risk for injury (maternal) related to altered sensations and positional or physical changes ANS: D The nurse should determine which problem needs immediate attention. Risk for injury is the problem that has the priority at this time because it is a safety problem. Risk for anxiety, imbalanced nutrition, and altered family processes are not the priorities at this time. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application OBJ: Nursing Process Step: Implementation MSC: Patient Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
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