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Test Bank for Basic Pharmacology for Nurses 17th Edition by Clayton

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By: Clayton

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Chapter 02: Basic Principles of Drug Action and Drug Interactions

Test Bank for Basic Pharmacology for Nurses 17th Edition by Clayton

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1.The nurse assesses hives in a patient started on a new medication. What is the nurse’s priority action?

a. Notify physician of allergic reaction.
b. Notify physician of idiosyncratic reaction.
c. Notify physician of potential teratogenicity.
d. Notify physician of potential tolerance.

ANS: A

An allergic reaction is indicative of hypersensitivity and manifests with hives and/or urticaria, which are easily identified. An idiosyncratic reaction occurs when something unusual or abnormal happens when a drug is first administered. A teratogenic reaction refers to the occurrence of birth defects related to administration of the drug. Tolerance refers to the body’s requirement for increasing dosages to achieve the same effects that a lower dose once did.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: Page 17 OBJ: 4

TOP:Nursing Process Step: Assessment

MSC:NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity

NOT:CONCEPT(S): Clinical Judgment; Safety

2.The nurse administers an initial dose of a steroid to a patient with asthma. Thirty minutes after administration, the nurse finds the patient agitated and stating that “everyone is out to get me.” What is the term for this unusual reaction?

a. Desired action
b. Adverse effect
c. Idiosyncratic reaction
d. Allergic reaction

ANS: C

Idiosyncratic reactions are unusual, abnormal reactions that occur when a drug is first administered. Patients typically exhibit an overresponsiveness to a medication related to diminished metabolism. These reactions are believed to be related to genetic enzyme deficiencies. Desired actions are expected responses to a medication. Adverse effects are reactions that occur in another system of the body; they are usually predictable. Allergic reactions appear after repeated medication dosages.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: Page 18 OBJ: 4

TOP: Nursing Process Step: Evaluation

MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity

NOT: CONCEPT(S): Patient Education; Clinical Judgment; Caregiving; Safety; Sensory Perception

3. Which is the best description of when drug interactions occur?

a. On administration of toxic dosages of a drug
b. On an increase in the pharmacodynamics of bound drugs
c. On the alteration of the effect of one drug by another drug
d. On the increase of drug excretion

ANS: C

Drug interactions may be characterized by an increase or decrease in the effectiveness of one or both of the drugs. The toxicity of one drug may or may not affect the metabolism of another one. Drug interactions may result from either increased or decreased pharmacodynamics. Drug interactions may result from either increased or decreased excretion.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: Page 18 OBJ: 5

TOP: Nursing Process Step: Assessment

MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity

NOT: CONCEPT(S): Safety; Patient Education; Clinical Judgment

4. What occurs when two drugs compete for the same receptor site, resulting in increased activity of the first drug?

a. Desired action
b. Synergistic effect
c. Carcinogenicity
d. Displacement

ANS: D

The displacement of the first drug from receptor sites by a second drug increases the amount of the first drug because the more unbound drug is available. An expected response of a drug is the desired action. A synergistic effect is an effect of two drugs being greater than the effect of each chemical individually or the sum of the individual effects. Carcinogenicity is the ability of a drug to cause cells to mutate and become cancerous.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: Page 19 OBJ: 6

TOP: Nursing Process Step: Implementation

MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity

NOT: CONCEPT(S): Safety; Patient Education

5. What do drug blood levels indicate?

a. They confirm if the patient is taking a generic form of a drug.
b. They determine if the patient has sufficient body fat to metabolize the drug.
c. They verify if the patient is taking someone else’s medications.
d. They determine if the amount of drug in the body is in a therapeutic range.

ANS: D

The amount of drug present may vary over time and the blood level must remain in a therapeutic range in order to obtain the desired result. Generic drugs do not necessarily produce a different drug blood level than proprietary medications. Body fat is not measured by drug blood levels. Drug blood levels only measure the amount of drug in the body; they do not determine the source of the medication.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: Page 17 OBJ: 4

TOP: Nursing Process Step: Evaluation

MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity

NOT: CONCEPT(S): Clinical Judgment; Safety

6. What is the process by which a drug is transported by circulating body fluids to receptor sites?

a. Osmosis
b. Distribution
c. Absorption
d. Biotransformation

ANS: B

Distribution refers to the ways in which drugs are transported by the circulating body fluids to the sites of action (receptors), metabolism, and excretion. Osmosis is the process of moving solution across a semipermeable membrane to equalize the dilution on each side. Absorption is the process by which a drug is transferred from its site of entry into the body to the circulating fluids for distribution. Biotransformation, also called metabolism, is the process by which the body inactivates drugs.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: Page 15 OBJ: 3

TOP: Nursing Process Step: Planning

MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity

NOT: CONCEPT(S): Patient Education; Clinical Judgment; Safety

7.Does the nurse assess which blood level to determine the amount of circulating medication in a patient?

a. Peak
b. Trough
c. Drug
d. Therapeutic

ANS: C

When a drug is circulating in the blood, a blood sample may be drawn and assayed to determine the amount of drug present; this is known as the drug blood level. Peak levels are only those drug blood levels that are at their maximum before metabolism starts to decrease the amount of circulating drug. Trough levels are only those drug blood levels that are at their minimum when metabolism has decreased the amount of circulating drug and before an increase caused by a subsequent dose of the medication. Therapeutic levels are only those within a prescribed range of blood levels determined to bring about effective action of the medication.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: Page 17 OBJ: 3

TOP: Nursing Process Step: Evaluation

MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity

NOT: CONCEPT(S): Patient Education; Clinical Judgment; Safety

8. The nurse administers 50 mg of a drug at 6:00 AM that has a half-life of 8 hours. What time will it be when 25 mg of the drug has been eliminated from the body?

a. 8:00 AM
b. 11:00 AM
c. 2:00 PM
d. 6:00 PM

ANS: C

Fifty percent of the medication, or 25 mg, will be eliminated in 8 hours, or at 2:00 PM. 8:00 AM is 2 hours after administration; the half-life is 8 hours. 11:00 AM is 4 hours after administration; the half-life is 8 hours. 6:00 PM is 12 hours after administration; the half-life is 8 hours.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis REF: Page 15 OBJ: 2

TOP: Nursing Process Step: Evaluation

MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity

NOT: CONCEPT(S): Clinical Judgment; Safety; Elimination; Health Promotion

9. What will the nurse need to determine first in order to mix two drugs in the same syringe?

a. The absorption rate of the drugs
b. Compatibility of the drugs
c. Drug blood level of each drug
d. Medication adverse effects

ANS: B

Knowledge of absorption is important but not in order to mix drugs. In order to mix two drugs, compatibility is determined so there is no deterioration when the drugs are mixed in the same syringe. Drug level does not indicate if it is acceptable to mix medications in the same syringe. Adverse effects are important for the nurse to know, but not in order to mix drugs.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: Page 19 OBJ: 6

TOP:Nursing Process Step: Implementation

MSC:NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity

NOT:CONCEPT(S): Clinical Judgment; Safety

10.A patient developed hives and itching after receiving a drug for the first time. Which instruction by the nurse is accurate?

a. Stop the medication and encourage the patient to wear a medical alert bracelet that explains the allergy.
b. Explain to the patient that these are signs and symptoms of an anaphylactic reaction.
c. Emphasize to the patient the importance to inform medical personnel that in the future a lower dosage of this drug is necessary.
d. Instruct the patient that it would be safe to take the drug again because this instance was a mild reaction.

ANS: A

This initial allergic reaction is mild, and the patient is more likely to have an anaphylactic reaction at the next exposure; a medical alert bracelet is necessary to explain the reaction. Signs and symptoms of an anaphylactic reaction are respiratory distress and cardiovascular collapse. A more severe reaction will occur at the next exposure, and the patient should not receive the drug again.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: Page 18 OBJ: 4

TOP:Nursing Process Step: Implementation

MSC:NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity

NOT:CONCEPT(S): Patient Education; Clinical Judgment; Safety

11.When obtaining a patient’s health history, which assessment data would the nurse identify as having the most effect on drug metabolism?

a. History of liver disease
b. Intake of a vegetarian diet
c. Sedentary lifestyle
d. Teacher as an occupation

ANS: A

Liver enzyme systems are the primary site for the metabolism of drugs. Intake of a vegetarian diet may affect absorption but not metabolism. Sedentary lifestyle and occupations could affect metabolism (exposure to environmental pollutants), but these do not have the most significant effect on metabolism.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: Page 16 OBJ: 3

TOP: Nursing Process Step: Assessment

MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity

NOT: CONCEPT(S): Patient Education; Clinical Judgment; Safety

12. A physician’s order indicates to administer medication to the patient via the percutaneous route. The nurse can anticipate that the patient will receive this medication

a. intramuscularly.
b. subcutaneously.
c. topically.
d. rectally.

ANS: C

The percutaneous route refers to drugs that are absorbed through the skin and mucous membranes. Methods of the percutaneous route include inhalation, sublingual (under the tongue), or topical (on the skin) administration. The parenteral route bypasses the gastrointestinal (GI) tract by using subcutaneous (sub cut), intramuscular (IM), or intravenous (IV) injection. The parenteral route bypasses the GI tract by using subcut, IM, or IV injection. In the enteral route, the drug is administered directly into the GI tract by the oral, rectal, or nasogastric route.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: Page 14 OBJ: 1

TOP: Nursing Process Step: Implementation

MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity

NOT: CONCEPT(S): Patient Education; Clinical Judgment; Safety

13. A nurse is preparing to administer tetracycline to a patient diagnosed with an infection. Which medication should not be administered with tetracycline?

a. Ativan
b. Tylenol
c. Colace
d. Mylanta

ANS: D

Administering tetracycline with Mylanta can provide an antagonistic effect that will result in decreased absorption of the tetracycline. Ativan, Tylenol, and Colace are not contraindicated to administer with tetracycline.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: Page 18 OBJ: 5 | 6

TOP: Nursing Process Step: Implementation

MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity

NOT: CONCEPT(S): Patient Education; Clinical Judgment; Safety

basic pharmacology for nurses 17th edition test bank questions

MULTIPLE RESPONSE

1. Which statement(s) about the liberation of drugs is/are true? (Select all that apply.)

a. A drug must be dissolved in body fluids before it can be absorbed into body tissues.
b. A solid drug taken orally must disintegrate and dissolve in GI fluids to allow for absorption into the bloodstream for transport to the site of action.
c. The process of converting the drug into a soluble form can be controlled to a certain degree by the dosage form.
d. Converting the drug to a soluble form can be influenced by administering the drug with or without food in the patient’s stomach.
e. Elixirs take longer to be liberated from the dosage form.

ANS: A, B, C, D

Regardless of the route of administration, a drug must be dissolved in body fluids before it can be absorbed into body tissues. Before a solid drug taken orally can be absorbed into the bloodstream for transport to the site of action, it must disintegrate and dissolve in the GI fluids and be transported across the stomach or intestinal lining into the blood. The process of converting a drug into a soluble form can be partially controlled by the pharmaceutical dosage form used (e.g., solution, suspension, capsules, and tablets with various coatings). The conversion process can also be influenced by administering the drug with or without food in the patient’s stomach. Elixirs are already drugs dissolved in a liquid and do not need to be liberated from the dosage form.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: Page 14 OBJ: 3

TOP: Nursing Process Step: Implementation

MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity

NOT: CONCEPT(S): Patient Education; Clinical Judgment; Safety

2. Which are routes of drug excretion? (Select all that apply.)

a. GI tract; feces
b. Genitourinary (GU) tract; urine
c. Lymphatic system
d. Circulatory system; blood/plasma
e. Respiratory system; exhalation

ANS: A, B, E

The GI system is a primary route for drug excretion. The GU and the respiratory systems do function in the excretion of drugs. The lymphatic and circulatory systems are involved with drug distribution, not drug excretion.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: Page 15 OBJ: 3

TOP:Nursing Process Step: Assessment

MSC:NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity

NOT: CONCEPT(S): Patient Education; Clinical Judgment; Safety; Elimination

3.Which route(s) enable(s) drug absorption more rapidly than the sub-cut route? (Select all that apply.)

a. IV route
b. IM route
c. Inhalation/sublingual
d. Intradermal route
e. Enteral route

ANS: A, B, C

IV route of administration enables drug absorption more rapidly than the sub-cut route. IM route of administration enables drug absorption more rapidly because of greater blood flow per unit weight of muscle. The inhalation/sublingual route of administration enables drug absorption more rapidly than the sub-cut route. Intradermally administered drugs are absorbed more slowly because of the limited available blood supply in the dermis. Enterally administered drugs are absorbed more slowly because of the biotransformation process.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: Page 14 OBJ: 1 | 3

TOP: Nursing Process Step: Evaluation

MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity

NOT: CONCEPT(S): Patient Education; Clinical Judgment; Safety

4. Does the nurse recognize which factor(s) would contribute to digoxin toxicity in a 92-year-old patient? (Select all that apply.)

a. Taking the medication with meals
b. Prolonged half-life of the drug digoxin
c. Impaired renal function
d. Diminished mental capacity

ANS: B, C

Impaired renal and hepatic function in older adults impairs the metabolism and excretion of drugs, thus prolonging the half-life of a medication. Food would decrease the absorption of the drug. Diminished mental capacity does not contribute to drug toxicity unless it is due to administration errors.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: Page 15 OBJ: 2 | 3 | 7

TOP: Nursing Process Step: Assessment

MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Health Promotion and Maintenance

NOT: CONCEPT(S): Patient Education; Clinical Judgment; Safety

5.Which statement(s) about variables that influence drug action is/are true? (Select all that apply.)

a. An older adult will require an increased dosage of a drug to achieve the same therapeutic effect as that seen in a younger person.
b. Body weight can affect the therapeutic response of a medication.
c. Chronic smokers may metabolize drugs more rapidly than nonsmokers.
d. A patient’s attitude and expectations affect the response to medication.
e. Reduced circulation causes drugs to absorb more rapidly.

ANS: B, C, D

Body weight can affect response to medications; typically, obese patients require an increase in dosage and underweight patients a decrease in dosage. Chronic smoking enhances metabolism of drugs. Attitudes and expectations play a major role in an individual’s response to drugs. Older adults require decreased dosages of drugs to achieve a therapeutic effect. Decreased circulation causes drugs to absorb more slowly.

DIF:Cognitive Level: ComprehensionREF:Page 16 | Page 17

OBJ:5 | 6 | 7TOP:Nursing Process Step: Implementation

MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity

NOT: CONCEPT(S): Patient Education; Clinical Judgment; Safety

6.Which factor(s) affect(s) drug actions? (Select all that apply.)

a. Teratogenicity
b. Age
c. Body weight
d. Metabolic rate
e. Illness

ANS: B, C, D, E

Age, bodyweight, metabolic rate, and illness may contribute to the variable response to a medication. Teratogenicity does not contribute to the variable response to a medication.

DIF:Cognitive Level: ComprehensionREF:Page 16 | Page 17

OBJ:7TOP: Nursing Process Step: Assessment

MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity

NOT: CONCEPT(S): Patient Education; Clinical Judgment; Safety

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DescriptionBy: Clayton Edition: 17th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadBy: Brian k Walsh Edition: 4th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadBy: Burton Edition: 2nd Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadBy: Woo Edition: 4th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadBy: Willihnganz Edition: 18th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadEdition: 6th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant Download
Content

Chapter 02: Basic Principles of Drug Action and Drug Interactions

Test Bank for Basic Pharmacology for Nurses 17th Edition by Clayton MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.The nurse assesses hives in a patient started on a new medication. What is the nurse’s priority action?
a. Notify physician of allergic reaction.
b. Notify physician of idiosyncratic reaction.
c. Notify physician of potential teratogenicity.
d. Notify physician of potential tolerance.
ANS: A An allergic reaction is indicative of hypersensitivity and manifests with hives and/or urticaria, which are easily identified. An idiosyncratic reaction occurs when something unusual or abnormal happens when a drug is first administered. A teratogenic reaction refers to the occurrence of birth defects related to administration of the drug. Tolerance refers to the body’s requirement for increasing dosages to achieve the same effects that a lower dose once did. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: Page 17 OBJ: 4 TOP:Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC:NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity NOT:CONCEPT(S): Clinical Judgment; Safety 2.The nurse administers an initial dose of a steroid to a patient with asthma. Thirty minutes after administration, the nurse finds the patient agitated and stating that “everyone is out to get me.” What is the term for this unusual reaction?
a. Desired action
b. Adverse effect
c. Idiosyncratic reaction
d. Allergic reaction
ANS: C Idiosyncratic reactions are unusual, abnormal reactions that occur when a drug is first administered. Patients typically exhibit an overresponsiveness to a medication related to diminished metabolism. These reactions are believed to be related to genetic enzyme deficiencies. Desired actions are expected responses to a medication. Adverse effects are reactions that occur in another system of the body; they are usually predictable. Allergic reactions appear after repeated medication dosages. DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: Page 18 OBJ: 4 TOP: Nursing Process Step: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity NOT: CONCEPT(S): Patient Education; Clinical Judgment; Caregiving; Safety; Sensory Perception 3. Which is the best description of when drug interactions occur?
a. On administration of toxic dosages of a drug
b. On an increase in the pharmacodynamics of bound drugs
c. On the alteration of the effect of one drug by another drug
d. On the increase of drug excretion
ANS: C Drug interactions may be characterized by an increase or decrease in the effectiveness of one or both of the drugs. The toxicity of one drug may or may not affect the metabolism of another one. Drug interactions may result from either increased or decreased pharmacodynamics. Drug interactions may result from either increased or decreased excretion. DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: Page 18 OBJ: 5 TOP: Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity NOT: CONCEPT(S): Safety; Patient Education; Clinical Judgment 4. What occurs when two drugs compete for the same receptor site, resulting in increased activity of the first drug?
a. Desired action
b. Synergistic effect
c. Carcinogenicity
d. Displacement
ANS: D The displacement of the first drug from receptor sites by a second drug increases the amount of the first drug because the more unbound drug is available. An expected response of a drug is the desired action. A synergistic effect is an effect of two drugs being greater than the effect of each chemical individually or the sum of the individual effects. Carcinogenicity is the ability of a drug to cause cells to mutate and become cancerous. DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: Page 19 OBJ: 6 TOP: Nursing Process Step: Implementation MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity NOT: CONCEPT(S): Safety; Patient Education 5. What do drug blood levels indicate?
a. They confirm if the patient is taking a generic form of a drug.
b. They determine if the patient has sufficient body fat to metabolize the drug.
c. They verify if the patient is taking someone else’s medications.
d. They determine if the amount of drug in the body is in a therapeutic range.
ANS: D The amount of drug present may vary over time and the blood level must remain in a therapeutic range in order to obtain the desired result. Generic drugs do not necessarily produce a different drug blood level than proprietary medications. Body fat is not measured by drug blood levels. Drug blood levels only measure the amount of drug in the body; they do not determine the source of the medication. DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: Page 17 OBJ: 4 TOP: Nursing Process Step: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity NOT: CONCEPT(S): Clinical Judgment; Safety 6. What is the process by which a drug is transported by circulating body fluids to receptor sites?
a. Osmosis
b. Distribution
c. Absorption
d. Biotransformation
ANS: B Distribution refers to the ways in which drugs are transported by the circulating body fluids to the sites of action (receptors), metabolism, and excretion. Osmosis is the process of moving solution across a semipermeable membrane to equalize the dilution on each side. Absorption is the process by which a drug is transferred from its site of entry into the body to the circulating fluids for distribution. Biotransformation, also called metabolism, is the process by which the body inactivates drugs. DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: Page 15 OBJ: 3 TOP: Nursing Process Step: Planning MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity NOT: CONCEPT(S): Patient Education; Clinical Judgment; Safety 7.Does the nurse assess which blood level to determine the amount of circulating medication in a patient?
a. Peak
b. Trough
c. Drug
d. Therapeutic
ANS: C When a drug is circulating in the blood, a blood sample may be drawn and assayed to determine the amount of drug present; this is known as the drug blood level. Peak levels are only those drug blood levels that are at their maximum before metabolism starts to decrease the amount of circulating drug. Trough levels are only those drug blood levels that are at their minimum when metabolism has decreased the amount of circulating drug and before an increase caused by a subsequent dose of the medication. Therapeutic levels are only those within a prescribed range of blood levels determined to bring about effective action of the medication. DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: Page 17 OBJ: 3 TOP: Nursing Process Step: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity NOT: CONCEPT(S): Patient Education; Clinical Judgment; Safety 8. The nurse administers 50 mg of a drug at 6:00 AM that has a half-life of 8 hours. What time will it be when 25 mg of the drug has been eliminated from the body?
a. 8:00 AM
b. 11:00 AM
c. 2:00 PM
d. 6:00 PM
ANS: C Fifty percent of the medication, or 25 mg, will be eliminated in 8 hours, or at 2:00 PM. 8:00 AM is 2 hours after administration; the half-life is 8 hours. 11:00 AM is 4 hours after administration; the half-life is 8 hours. 6:00 PM is 12 hours after administration; the half-life is 8 hours. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis REF: Page 15 OBJ: 2 TOP: Nursing Process Step: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity NOT: CONCEPT(S): Clinical Judgment; Safety; Elimination; Health Promotion 9. What will the nurse need to determine first in order to mix two drugs in the same syringe?
a. The absorption rate of the drugs
b. Compatibility of the drugs
c. Drug blood level of each drug
d. Medication adverse effects
ANS: B Knowledge of absorption is important but not in order to mix drugs. In order to mix two drugs, compatibility is determined so there is no deterioration when the drugs are mixed in the same syringe. Drug level does not indicate if it is acceptable to mix medications in the same syringe. Adverse effects are important for the nurse to know, but not in order to mix drugs. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: Page 19 OBJ: 6 TOP:Nursing Process Step: Implementation MSC:NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity NOT:CONCEPT(S): Clinical Judgment; Safety 10.A patient developed hives and itching after receiving a drug for the first time. Which instruction by the nurse is accurate?
a. Stop the medication and encourage the patient to wear a medical alert bracelet that explains the allergy.
b. Explain to the patient that these are signs and symptoms of an anaphylactic reaction.
c. Emphasize to the patient the importance to inform medical personnel that in the future a lower dosage of this drug is necessary.
d. Instruct the patient that it would be safe to take the drug again because this instance was a mild reaction.
ANS: A This initial allergic reaction is mild, and the patient is more likely to have an anaphylactic reaction at the next exposure; a medical alert bracelet is necessary to explain the reaction. Signs and symptoms of an anaphylactic reaction are respiratory distress and cardiovascular collapse. A more severe reaction will occur at the next exposure, and the patient should not receive the drug again. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: Page 18 OBJ: 4 TOP:Nursing Process Step: Implementation MSC:NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity NOT:CONCEPT(S): Patient Education; Clinical Judgment; Safety 11.When obtaining a patient’s health history, which assessment data would the nurse identify as having the most effect on drug metabolism?
a. History of liver disease
b. Intake of a vegetarian diet
c. Sedentary lifestyle
d. Teacher as an occupation
ANS: A Liver enzyme systems are the primary site for the metabolism of drugs. Intake of a vegetarian diet may affect absorption but not metabolism. Sedentary lifestyle and occupations could affect metabolism (exposure to environmental pollutants), but these do not have the most significant effect on metabolism. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: Page 16 OBJ: 3 TOP: Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity NOT: CONCEPT(S): Patient Education; Clinical Judgment; Safety 12. A physician’s order indicates to administer medication to the patient via the percutaneous route. The nurse can anticipate that the patient will receive this medication
a. intramuscularly.
b. subcutaneously.
c. topically.
d. rectally.
ANS: C The percutaneous route refers to drugs that are absorbed through the skin and mucous membranes. Methods of the percutaneous route include inhalation, sublingual (under the tongue), or topical (on the skin) administration. The parenteral route bypasses the gastrointestinal (GI) tract by using subcutaneous (sub cut), intramuscular (IM), or intravenous (IV) injection. The parenteral route bypasses the GI tract by using subcut, IM, or IV injection. In the enteral route, the drug is administered directly into the GI tract by the oral, rectal, or nasogastric route. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: Page 14 OBJ: 1 TOP: Nursing Process Step: Implementation MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity NOT: CONCEPT(S): Patient Education; Clinical Judgment; Safety 13. A nurse is preparing to administer tetracycline to a patient diagnosed with an infection. Which medication should not be administered with tetracycline?
a. Ativan
b. Tylenol
c. Colace
d. Mylanta
ANS: D Administering tetracycline with Mylanta can provide an antagonistic effect that will result in decreased absorption of the tetracycline. Ativan, Tylenol, and Colace are not contraindicated to administer with tetracycline. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: Page 18 OBJ: 5 | 6 TOP: Nursing Process Step: Implementation MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity NOT: CONCEPT(S): Patient Education; Clinical Judgment; Safety

basic pharmacology for nurses 17th edition test bank questions

MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. Which statement(s) about the liberation of drugs is/are true? (Select all that apply.)
a. A drug must be dissolved in body fluids before it can be absorbed into body tissues.
b. A solid drug taken orally must disintegrate and dissolve in GI fluids to allow for absorption into the bloodstream for transport to the site of action.
c. The process of converting the drug into a soluble form can be controlled to a certain degree by the dosage form.
d. Converting the drug to a soluble form can be influenced by administering the drug with or without food in the patient’s stomach.
e. Elixirs take longer to be liberated from the dosage form.
ANS: A, B, C, D Regardless of the route of administration, a drug must be dissolved in body fluids before it can be absorbed into body tissues. Before a solid drug taken orally can be absorbed into the bloodstream for transport to the site of action, it must disintegrate and dissolve in the GI fluids and be transported across the stomach or intestinal lining into the blood. The process of converting a drug into a soluble form can be partially controlled by the pharmaceutical dosage form used (e.g., solution, suspension, capsules, and tablets with various coatings). The conversion process can also be influenced by administering the drug with or without food in the patient’s stomach. Elixirs are already drugs dissolved in a liquid and do not need to be liberated from the dosage form. DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: Page 14 OBJ: 3 TOP: Nursing Process Step: Implementation MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity NOT: CONCEPT(S): Patient Education; Clinical Judgment; Safety 2. Which are routes of drug excretion? (Select all that apply.)
a. GI tract; feces
b. Genitourinary (GU) tract; urine
c. Lymphatic system
d. Circulatory system; blood/plasma
e. Respiratory system; exhalation
ANS: A, B, E The GI system is a primary route for drug excretion. The GU and the respiratory systems do function in the excretion of drugs. The lymphatic and circulatory systems are involved with drug distribution, not drug excretion. DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: Page 15 OBJ: 3 TOP:Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC:NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity NOT: CONCEPT(S): Patient Education; Clinical Judgment; Safety; Elimination 3.Which route(s) enable(s) drug absorption more rapidly than the sub-cut route? (Select all that apply.)
a. IV route
b. IM route
c. Inhalation/sublingual
d. Intradermal route
e. Enteral route
ANS: A, B, C IV route of administration enables drug absorption more rapidly than the sub-cut route. IM route of administration enables drug absorption more rapidly because of greater blood flow per unit weight of muscle. The inhalation/sublingual route of administration enables drug absorption more rapidly than the sub-cut route. Intradermally administered drugs are absorbed more slowly because of the limited available blood supply in the dermis. Enterally administered drugs are absorbed more slowly because of the biotransformation process. DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: Page 14 OBJ: 1 | 3 TOP: Nursing Process Step: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity NOT: CONCEPT(S): Patient Education; Clinical Judgment; Safety 4. Does the nurse recognize which factor(s) would contribute to digoxin toxicity in a 92-year-old patient? (Select all that apply.)
a. Taking the medication with meals
b. Prolonged half-life of the drug digoxin
c. Impaired renal function
d. Diminished mental capacity
ANS: B, C Impaired renal and hepatic function in older adults impairs the metabolism and excretion of drugs, thus prolonging the half-life of a medication. Food would decrease the absorption of the drug. Diminished mental capacity does not contribute to drug toxicity unless it is due to administration errors. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: Page 15 OBJ: 2 | 3 | 7 TOP: Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Health Promotion and Maintenance NOT: CONCEPT(S): Patient Education; Clinical Judgment; Safety 5.Which statement(s) about variables that influence drug action is/are true? (Select all that apply.)
a. An older adult will require an increased dosage of a drug to achieve the same therapeutic effect as that seen in a younger person.
b. Body weight can affect the therapeutic response of a medication.
c. Chronic smokers may metabolize drugs more rapidly than nonsmokers.
d. A patient’s attitude and expectations affect the response to medication.
e. Reduced circulation causes drugs to absorb more rapidly.
ANS: B, C, D Body weight can affect response to medications; typically, obese patients require an increase in dosage and underweight patients a decrease in dosage. Chronic smoking enhances metabolism of drugs. Attitudes and expectations play a major role in an individual’s response to drugs. Older adults require decreased dosages of drugs to achieve a therapeutic effect. Decreased circulation causes drugs to absorb more slowly. DIF:Cognitive Level: ComprehensionREF:Page 16 | Page 17 OBJ:5 | 6 | 7TOP:Nursing Process Step: Implementation MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity NOT: CONCEPT(S): Patient Education; Clinical Judgment; Safety 6.Which factor(s) affect(s) drug actions? (Select all that apply.)
a. Teratogenicity
b. Age
c. Body weight
d. Metabolic rate
e. Illness
ANS: B, C, D, E Age, bodyweight, metabolic rate, and illness may contribute to the variable response to a medication. Teratogenicity does not contribute to the variable response to a medication. DIF:Cognitive Level: ComprehensionREF:Page 16 | Page 17 OBJ:7TOP: Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity NOT: CONCEPT(S): Patient Education; Clinical Judgment; Safety

Test Bank for Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Care , (4th Edition)

CONTENTS SECTION 1: FETAL DEVELOPMENT, ASSESSMENT, AND DELIVERY 1. Fetal Lung Development 2. Fetal Gas Exchange and Circulation 3. Antenatal Assessment and High-Risk Delivery SECTION 2: ASSESSMENT AND MONITORING OF THE NEONATAL AND PEDIATRIC PATIENT 4. Exam and Assessment of the Neonatal and Pediatric Patient 5. Pulmonary Function Testing and Bedside Pulmonary Mechanics 6. Radiographic Assessment 7. Bronchoscopy 8. Invasive Blood Gas Analysis and Monitoring 9. Non-Invasive Monitoring in Neonatal and Pediatric Care SECTION 3: THERAPEUTIC PROCEDURES FOR TREATMENT OF NEONATAL AND PEDIATRIC DISORDERS 10. Oxygen Administration 11. Aerosols and Administration of Medication 12. Airway Clearance Techniques and Lung Volume Expansion 13. Airway Management 14. Surfactant Replacement 15. Non-Invasive Mechanical Ventilation and Continuous Positive Pressure of the Neonate 16. Non-Invasive Mechanical Ventilation of the Child 17. Mechanical Ventilation of the Neonatal and Pediatric Patient 18. Administration of Gas Mixtures 19. Extracorporeal Life Support 20. Pharmacology 21. Thoracic Organ Transplantation 22. Neonatal Complications and Pulmonary Disorders SECTION 4: NEONATAL AND PEDIATRIC DISORDERS: PRESENTATION, DIAGNOSIS, AND TREATMENT 23. Congenital and Surgical Disorders that Affect Respiratory Care 24. Congenital Cardiac Defects 25. Sudden Infant Death Syndrome and Sleep Disorders 26. Pediatric Airway Disorders and Pulmonary Infections 27. Asthma 28. Cystic Fibrosis 29. Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome 30. Shock, Sepsis, and Anaphylaxis 31. Pediatric Trauma 32. Disorders of the Pleura 33. Neurological and Neuromuscular Disorders SECTION 5: NEONATAL AND PEDIATRIC TRANSIENT AND AMBULATORY CARE 34. Transport of Infants and Children 35. Home Care 36. Quality and Safety NEW!

Test Bank for Fundamentals of Nursing Care 2nd Edition by Burton

Chapter 1 Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____    1.   A nurse is educating a nursing student about nursing history. The nurse explains that throughout ancient history, nursing care was provided by family members and
1. Nurses.
2. Physicians.
3. Male priests.
4. Female priests.
____    2.   A nurse is teaching a student about the history of nursing. The nurse informs the student that in 1836, the first school of nursing was established in Kaiserworth, Germany, by
1. Jean Watson.
2. Clara Barton.
3. Theodor Fliedner.
4. Florence Nightingale.
____    3.   A nurse teaches a student nurse that in 1897, the Nurses Associated Alumnae of the United States was formed in an effort to
1. Set standards and rules in nursing education.
2. Keep nurses aware of the newest medical information.
3. Oversee training to protect patients from incompetent nurses.
4. Keep nurses updated on the newest information about nursing education.
____    4.   The purpose of the National League for Nursing is to
1. Set standards and rules in nursing education.
2. Keep nurses aware of the newest medical information.
3. Oversee training to protect patients from incompetent nurses.
4. Keep nurses updated on the newest information about nursing education.
____    5.   All states required practical nurses to be licensed in the year
1. 1940.
2. 1945.
3. 1950.
4. 1955.
____    6.   The title licensed practical nurse (LPN) is used in all states except California and
1. Texas.
2. Maine.
3. Alaska.
4. Arizona.
____    7.   The National Council Licensure Examination for Practical Nursing (NCLEX-PN) is
1. Taken in order to practice as a nurse.
2. Given as an entrance examination for nursing school.
3. Individualized based on where an examinee resides.
4. Taken in order to practice as a certified nursing assistant (CNA).
____    8.   A nurse recruiter is seeking a graduate nurse who has been educated more extensively on management and leadership. The graduate nurse who most likely fits this description is the
1. Diploma nurse.
2. Associate degree nurse (ADN).
3. Licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN).
4. Baccalaureate degree nurse (BSN).
____    9.   Which statement about the Nurse Practice Act is accurate?
1. The Nurse Practice Act clarifies who can supervise a physician.
2. The Nurse Practice Act is the law that governs the actions of nurses.
3. The Nurse Practice Act is determined by the National League of Nursing.
4. The Nurse Practice Act specifies the tasks of the unlicensed assistive personnel.
____   10.   A nurse educates a nursing student about the Nurse Practice Act. The nursing student demonstrates understanding when he or she states:
1. “The Nurse Practice Act is the same in every state.”
2. “The Nurse Practice Act does not specify who can supervise a nurse.”
3. “The Nurse Practice Act is determined by the American Nurses Association.”
4. “The Nurse Practice Act establishes the scope of practice for each level of nurse.”
____   11.   While caring for a patient, a nurse performs a nursing action that is not within his or her scope of practice. The nurse has violated the
1. Ethics Committee.
2. Nurse Practice Act.
3. State Department of Health.
4. National League for Nursing Education.
____   12.   The Nurse Practice Act is enforced by the
1. State Board of Nursing.
2. County Health Department.
3. State Department of Health.
4. National League for Nursing.
____   13.   A nurse is caring for a resident in a long-term setting. The nurse best demonstrates a caring approach when
1. Performing all activities of daily living for the resident.
2. Asking the resident’s spouse to bring a family picture for the resident’s room.
3. Answering the resident’s questions quickly without allowing time for clarification.
4. Encouraging the resident’s spouse to decide which activities the resident should do.
____   14.   A nurse is caring for multiple patients on a medical unit. The nurse can best practice the art of nursing with an emphasis on caring by
1. Providing identical care to each patient.
2. Individualizing care provided to each patient.
3. Viewing the patients in terms of a cellular disorder.
4. Viewing the patients as seriously ill and needing a cure.
____   15.   A nurse is educating a student nurse about the responsibilities of a student nurse. The nurse recognizes that additional teaching is needed when the student nurse states:
1. “I will check laboratory results for my patients often.”
2. “I am responsible for noting abnormal assessment findings.”
3. “I will frequently check the patient’s chart for diagnostic test results.”
4. “It is not within my scope of practice to notify someone of abnormal findings.”
____   16.   A nursing instructor teaches a student nurse about the importance of joining a professional organization. The nursing instructor recognizes that further instruction is necessary when the student nurse states,
1. “Professional organizations allow me to have a collective voice.”
2. “Professional organizations limit my ability to influence laws and policies.”
3. “Professional behavior is demonstrated by joining a professional organization.”
4. “By joining a professional organization, I will have opportunities for leadership.”
 

Test Bank for Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Practice Nurse Prescribers 4th Edition by Woo

Chapter 1. The Role of the Nurse Practitioner   Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.   ____    1.   Nurse practitioner prescriptive authority is regulated by:
1. The National Council of State Boards of Nursing
2. The U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration
3. The State Board of Nursing for each state
4. The State Board of Pharmacy
    ____    2.   The benefits to the patient of having an Advanced Practice Registered Nurse (APRN) prescriber include:
1. Nurses know more about Pharmacology than other prescribers because they take it both in their basic nursing program and in their APRN program.
2. Nurses care for the patient from a holistic approach and include the patient in decision making regarding their care.
3. APRNs are less likely to prescribe narcotics and other controlled substances.
4. APRNs are able to prescribe independently in all states, whereas a physician’s assistant needs to have a physician supervising their practice.
    ____    3.   Clinical judgment in prescribing includes:
1. Factoring in the cost to the patient of the medication prescribed
2. Always prescribing the newest medication available for the disease process
3. Handing out drug samples to poor patients
4. Prescribing all generic medications to cut costs
    ____    4.   Criteria for choosing an effective drug for a disorder include:
1. Asking the patient what drug they think would work best for them
2. Consulting nationally recognized guidelines for disease management
3. Prescribing medications that are available as samples before writing a prescription
4. Following U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration guidelines for prescribing
    ____    5.   Nurse practitioner practice may thrive under health-care reform because of:
1. The demonstrated ability of nurse practitioners to control costs and improve patient outcomes
2. The fact that nurse practitioners will be able to practice independently
3. The fact that nurse practitioners will have full reimbursement under health-care reform
4. The ability to shift accountability for Medicaid to the state level
  Chapter 1. The Role of the Nurse Practitioner Answer Section   MULTIPLE CHOICE  
  1. ANS:  3                     PTS:   1
 
  1. ANS:  2                     PTS:   1
 
  1. ANS:  1                     PTS:   1
 
  1. ANS:  2                     PTS:   1
 
  1. ANS:  1                     PTS:   1

Test Bank for Claytons Basic Pharmacology for Nurses 18th Edition by Willihnganz

Chapter 01: Drug Definitions, Standards, and Information Sources Willihnganz: Clayton’s Basic Pharmacology for Nurses, 18th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.What is the name under which a drug is listed by the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA)?
a. Brand
b. Nonproprietary
c. Official
d. Trademark
ANS:  C The official name is the name under which a drug is listed by the FDA. The brand name, or trademark, is the name given to a drug by its manufacturer. The nonproprietary, or generic, name is provided by the United States Adopted Names Council DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   p. 2                OBJ:   1 NAT:  NCLEX Client Needs Category: Safe, Effective Care Environment TOP:   Nursing Process Step: Assessment  CON:  Patient Education  
  1. Which source contains information specific to nutritional supplements?
a. USP Dictionary of USAN & International Drug Names
b. Natural Medicines Comprehensive Database
c. United States Pharmacopoeia/National Formulary (USP NF)
d. Drug Interaction Facts
ANS:  C United States Pharmacopoeia/National Formulary contains information specific to nutritional supplements. USP Dictionary of USAN & International Drug Names is a compilation of drug names, pronunciation guide, and possible future FDA approved drugs; it does not include nutritional supplements. Natural Medicines Comprehensive Database contains evidence-based information on herbal medicines and herbal combination products; it does not include information specific to nutritional supplements. Drug Interaction Facts contains comprehensive information on drug interaction facts; it does not include nutritional supplements. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   p. 2 | p. 3        OBJ:   3 NAT:  NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity TOP:   Nursing Process Step: Assessment  CON:  Nutrition | Patient Education 3.What is the most comprehensive reference available to research a drug interaction?
a. Drug Facts and Comparisons
b. Drug Interaction Facts
c. Handbook on Injectable Drugs
d. Martindale—The Complete Drug Reference
ANS:  B First published in 1983, Drug Interaction Facts is the most comprehensive book available on drug interactions. In addition to monographs listing various aspects of drug interactions, this information is reviewed and updated by an internationally renowned group of physicians and pharmacists with clinical and scientific expertise. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   p. 4                OBJ:   3 NAT:  NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity TOP:   Nursing Process Step: Assessment  CON:  Safety | Patient Education | Clinical Judgment 4.The physician has written an order for a drug with which the nurse is unfamiliar. Which section of the Physicians’ Desk Reference (PDR) is most helpful to get information about this drug?
a. Manufacturer’s section
b. Brand and Generic name section
c. Product category section
d. Product information section
ANS:  B A physician’s order would include the brand and/or generic name of the drug. The alphabetic index in the PDR would make this section the most user-friendly. Based on a physician’s order, manufacturer’s information and classification information would not be known. The Manufacturer’s section is a roster of manufacturers. The product category section lists products subdivided by therapeutic classes, such as analgesics, laxatives, oxytocics, and antibiotics. The product information section contains reprints of the package inserts for the major products of manufacturers. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   p. 4                OBJ:   3 NAT:  NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity TOP:   Nursing Process Step: Planning       CON:  Safety | Patient Education | Clinical Judgment 5.Which online drug reference makes available to healthcare providers and the public a standard, comprehensive, up-to-date look up and downloadable resource about medicines?
a. American Drug Index
b. American Hospital Formulary
c. DailyMed
d. Physicians’ Desk Reference (PDR)
ANS:  C DailyMed makes available to healthcare providers and the public a standard, comprehensive, up-to-date look up and downloadable resource about medicines. The American Drug Index is not appropriate for patient use. The American Hospital Formulary is not appropriate for patient use. The PDR is not appropriate for patient use. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   p. 3 | p. 5        OBJ:   4 NAT:  NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity TOP:   Nursing Process Step: Implementation CON:  Safety | Patient Education | Clinical Judgment 6.Which legislation authorizes the FDA to determine the safety of a drug before its marketing?
a. Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (1938)
b. Durham Humphrey Amendment (1952)
c. Controlled Substances Act (1970)
d. Kefauver Harris Drug Amendment (1962)
ANS:  A The Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938 authorized the FDA to determine the safety of all drugs before marketing. Later amendments and acts helped tighten FDA control and ensure drug safety. The Durham Humphrey Amendment defines the kinds of drugs that cannot be used safely without medical supervision and restricts their sale to prescription by a licensed practitioner. The Controlled Substances Act addresses only controlled substances and their categorization. The Kefauver Harris Drug Amendment ensures drug efficacy and greater drug safety. Drug manufacturers are required to prove to the FDA the effectiveness of their products before marketing them. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   p. 5                OBJ:   6 NAT:  NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity TOP:   Nursing Process Step: Assessment CON:  Safety | Patient Education | Evidence | Health Care Law 7.Meperidine (Demerol) is a narcotic with a high potential for physical and psychological dependency. Under which classification does this drug fall?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
ANS:  B Meperidine (Demerol) is a Schedule II drug; it has a high potential for abuse and may lead to severe psychological and physical dependence. Schedule I drugs have high potential for abuse and no recognized medical use. Schedule III drugs have some potential for abuse. Use may lead to low to moderate physical dependence or high psychological dependence. Schedule IV drugs have low potential for abuse. Use may lead to limited physical or psychological dependence. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   p. 5                OBJ:   2 NAT:  NCLEX Client Needs Category: Safe, Effective Care Environment TOP:   Nursing Process Step: Assessment  CON:  Patient Education | Addiction | Pain 8:What would the FDA do to expedite drug development and approval for an outbreak of smallpox, for which there is no known treatment?
a. List smallpox as a health orphan disease.
b. Omit the preclinical research phase.
c. Extend the clinical research phase.
d. Fast track the investigational drug.
    ANS:  D

Testbank for Handbook of Informatics for Nurses & Health

Our product Handbook of Informatics for Nurses will help you master any topic faster than ever before. The heavy lifting of extracting the most important information from your textbook and compiling it into a downloadable test bank has been done for you. By using this test bank in conjunction with your textbook, you will have all the resources necessary to ensure success in the classroom. Practice makes perfect and this test prep resource will reinforce the concepts and theories presented throughout your course. But that’s not all: This study aid will also highlight your strengths and weaknesses. This takes the guesswork out of studying and allows you to pinpoint the areas where you need improvement. Spend your time more efficiently by focusing on any weaknesses and you will soon be an expert across the board. Test Bank Benefits: • Download instantly after purchase (no waiting for shipping) • Digital format so you can study anywhere you have a computer, cell phone or tablet • Quickly review key concepts and reinforce your understanding of the subject matter • Build test-taking skills and confidence with realistic, exam-like questions • Fully comprehensive material covers all the chapters in your textbook • Quickly narrow down the areas in which you need improvement • We offer a free sample so you know exactly what to expect
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