Our Shop

Test Bank for Claytons Basic Pharmacology for Nurses 18th Edition by Willihnganz

£13.00

By: Willihnganz

Edition: 18th Edition

Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille

Resource Type: Test bank

Duration: Unlimited downloads

Delivery: Instant Download

Share:

Test Bank for Claytons Basic Pharmacology for Nurses 18th Edition by Willihnganz

Chapter 01: Drug Definitions, Standards, and Information Sources

Willihnganz: Clayton’s Basic Pharmacology for Nurses, 18th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1.What is the name under which a drug is listed by the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA)?

a.Brand
b.Nonproprietary
c.Official
d.Trademark

ANS:  C

The official name is the name under which a drug is listed by the FDA. The brand name, or trademark, is the name given to a drug by its manufacturer. The nonproprietary, or generic, name is provided by the United States Adopted Names Council

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   p. 2                OBJ:   1

NAT:  NCLEX Client Needs Category: Safe, Effective Care Environment

TOP:   Nursing Process Step: Assessment  CON:  Patient Education

 

  1. Which source contains information specific to nutritional supplements?
a.USP Dictionary of USAN & International Drug Names
b.Natural Medicines Comprehensive Database
c.United States Pharmacopoeia/National Formulary (USP NF)
d.Drug Interaction Facts

ANS:  C

United States Pharmacopoeia/National Formulary contains information specific to nutritional supplements. USP Dictionary of USAN & International Drug Names is a compilation of drug names, pronunciation guide, and possible future FDA approved drugs; it does not include nutritional supplements. Natural Medicines Comprehensive Database contains evidence-based information on herbal medicines and herbal combination products; it does not include information specific to nutritional supplements. Drug Interaction Facts contains comprehensive information on drug interaction facts; it does not include nutritional supplements.

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   p. 2 | p. 3        OBJ:   3

NAT:  NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity

TOP:   Nursing Process Step: Assessment  CON:  Nutrition | Patient Education

3.What is the most comprehensive reference available to research a drug interaction?

a.Drug Facts and Comparisons
b.Drug Interaction Facts
c.Handbook on Injectable Drugs
d.Martindale—The Complete Drug Reference

ANS:  B

First published in 1983, Drug Interaction Facts is the most comprehensive book available on drug interactions. In addition to monographs listing various aspects of drug interactions, this information is reviewed and updated by an internationally renowned group of physicians and pharmacists with clinical and scientific expertise.

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   p. 4                OBJ:   3

NAT:  NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity

TOP:   Nursing Process Step: Assessment  CON:  Safety | Patient Education | Clinical Judgment

4.The physician has written an order for a drug with which the nurse is unfamiliar. Which section of the Physicians’ Desk Reference (PDR) is most helpful to get information about this drug?

a.Manufacturer’s section
b.Brand and Generic name section
c.Product category section
d.Product information section

ANS:  B

A physician’s order would include the brand and/or generic name of the drug. The alphabetic index in the PDR would make this section the most user-friendly. Based on a physician’s order, manufacturer’s information and classification information would not be known. The Manufacturer’s section is a roster of manufacturers. The product category section lists products subdivided by therapeutic classes, such as analgesics, laxatives, oxytocics, and antibiotics. The product information section contains reprints of the package inserts for the major products of manufacturers.

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   p. 4                OBJ:   3

NAT:  NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity

TOP:   Nursing Process Step: Planning       CON:  Safety | Patient Education | Clinical Judgment

5.Which online drug reference makes available to healthcare providers and the public a standard, comprehensive, up-to-date look up and downloadable resource about medicines?

a.American Drug Index
b.American Hospital Formulary
c.DailyMed
d.Physicians’ Desk Reference (PDR)

ANS:  C

DailyMed makes available to healthcare providers and the public a standard, comprehensive, up-to-date look up and downloadable resource about medicines. The American Drug Index is not appropriate for patient use. The American Hospital Formulary is not appropriate for patient use. The PDR is not appropriate for patient use.

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   p. 3 | p. 5        OBJ:   4

NAT:  NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity

TOP:   Nursing Process Step: Implementation

CON:  Safety | Patient Education | Clinical Judgment

6.Which legislation authorizes the FDA to determine the safety of a drug before its marketing?

a.Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (1938)
b.Durham Humphrey Amendment (1952)
c.Controlled Substances Act (1970)
d.Kefauver Harris Drug Amendment (1962)

ANS:  A

The Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938 authorized the FDA to determine the safety of all drugs before marketing. Later amendments and acts helped tighten FDA control and ensure drug safety. The Durham Humphrey Amendment defines the kinds of drugs that cannot be used safely without medical supervision and restricts their sale to prescription by a licensed practitioner. The Controlled Substances Act addresses only controlled substances and their categorization. The Kefauver Harris Drug Amendment ensures drug efficacy and greater drug safety. Drug manufacturers are required to prove to the FDA the effectiveness of their products before marketing them.

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   p. 5                OBJ:   6

NAT:  NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity

TOP:   Nursing Process Step: Assessment

CON:  Safety | Patient Education | Evidence | Health Care Law

7.Meperidine (Demerol) is a narcotic with a high potential for physical and psychological dependency. Under which classification does this drug fall?

a.I
b.II
c.III
d.IV

ANS:  B

Meperidine (Demerol) is a Schedule II drug; it has a high potential for abuse and may lead to severe psychological and physical dependence. Schedule I drugs have high potential for abuse and no recognized medical use. Schedule III drugs have some potential for abuse. Use may lead to low to moderate physical dependence or high psychological dependence. Schedule IV drugs have low potential for abuse. Use may lead to limited physical or psychological dependence.

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   p. 5                OBJ:   2

NAT:  NCLEX Client Needs Category: Safe, Effective Care Environment

TOP:   Nursing Process Step: Assessment  CON:  Patient Education | Addiction | Pain

8:What would the FDA do to expedite drug development and approval for an outbreak of smallpox, for which there is no known treatment?

a.List smallpox as a health orphan disease.
b.Omit the preclinical research phase.
c.Extend the clinical research phase.
d.Fast track the investigational drug.

 

 

ANS:  D

Quick Comparison

SettingsTest Bank for Claytons Basic Pharmacology for Nurses 18th Edition by Willihnganz removeTest Bank for Maternal Child Nursing 5th Edition by McKinney removeTest Bank for Wongs Nursing Care of Infants and Children 11th Edition by Hockenberry removeTest Bank Focus on Nursing Pharmacology 8th Edition removeTest Bank for Public Health Science and Nursing Practice Caring For Populations by Savage removeTest Bank for Psychiatric Mental Health Nursing 8th Edition by Townsend remove
Image
SKU
Rating
Price

£13.00

£13.00

£13.00

£21.00

£13.00

£13.00

Stock
Availability
Add to cart

DescriptionBy: Willihnganz Edition: 18th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadBy: McKinney Edition: 5th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadBy: Hockenberry Edition: 11th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadEdition: 8th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadBy: Savage Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadBy: Townsend Edition: 8th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant Download
Content

Test Bank for Claytons Basic Pharmacology for Nurses 18th Edition by Willihnganz

Chapter 01: Drug Definitions, Standards, and Information Sources Willihnganz: Clayton’s Basic Pharmacology for Nurses, 18th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.What is the name under which a drug is listed by the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA)?
a.Brand
b.Nonproprietary
c.Official
d.Trademark
ANS:  C The official name is the name under which a drug is listed by the FDA. The brand name, or trademark, is the name given to a drug by its manufacturer. The nonproprietary, or generic, name is provided by the United States Adopted Names Council DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   p. 2                OBJ:   1 NAT:  NCLEX Client Needs Category: Safe, Effective Care Environment TOP:   Nursing Process Step: Assessment  CON:  Patient Education  
  1. Which source contains information specific to nutritional supplements?
a.USP Dictionary of USAN & International Drug Names
b.Natural Medicines Comprehensive Database
c.United States Pharmacopoeia/National Formulary (USP NF)
d.Drug Interaction Facts
ANS:  C United States Pharmacopoeia/National Formulary contains information specific to nutritional supplements. USP Dictionary of USAN & International Drug Names is a compilation of drug names, pronunciation guide, and possible future FDA approved drugs; it does not include nutritional supplements. Natural Medicines Comprehensive Database contains evidence-based information on herbal medicines and herbal combination products; it does not include information specific to nutritional supplements. Drug Interaction Facts contains comprehensive information on drug interaction facts; it does not include nutritional supplements. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   p. 2 | p. 3        OBJ:   3 NAT:  NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity TOP:   Nursing Process Step: Assessment  CON:  Nutrition | Patient Education 3.What is the most comprehensive reference available to research a drug interaction?
a.Drug Facts and Comparisons
b.Drug Interaction Facts
c.Handbook on Injectable Drugs
d.Martindale—The Complete Drug Reference
ANS:  B First published in 1983, Drug Interaction Facts is the most comprehensive book available on drug interactions. In addition to monographs listing various aspects of drug interactions, this information is reviewed and updated by an internationally renowned group of physicians and pharmacists with clinical and scientific expertise. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   p. 4                OBJ:   3 NAT:  NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity TOP:   Nursing Process Step: Assessment  CON:  Safety | Patient Education | Clinical Judgment 4.The physician has written an order for a drug with which the nurse is unfamiliar. Which section of the Physicians’ Desk Reference (PDR) is most helpful to get information about this drug?
a.Manufacturer’s section
b.Brand and Generic name section
c.Product category section
d.Product information section
ANS:  B A physician’s order would include the brand and/or generic name of the drug. The alphabetic index in the PDR would make this section the most user-friendly. Based on a physician’s order, manufacturer’s information and classification information would not be known. The Manufacturer’s section is a roster of manufacturers. The product category section lists products subdivided by therapeutic classes, such as analgesics, laxatives, oxytocics, and antibiotics. The product information section contains reprints of the package inserts for the major products of manufacturers. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   p. 4                OBJ:   3 NAT:  NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity TOP:   Nursing Process Step: Planning       CON:  Safety | Patient Education | Clinical Judgment 5.Which online drug reference makes available to healthcare providers and the public a standard, comprehensive, up-to-date look up and downloadable resource about medicines?
a.American Drug Index
b.American Hospital Formulary
c.DailyMed
d.Physicians’ Desk Reference (PDR)
ANS:  C DailyMed makes available to healthcare providers and the public a standard, comprehensive, up-to-date look up and downloadable resource about medicines. The American Drug Index is not appropriate for patient use. The American Hospital Formulary is not appropriate for patient use. The PDR is not appropriate for patient use. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   p. 3 | p. 5        OBJ:   4 NAT:  NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity TOP:   Nursing Process Step: Implementation CON:  Safety | Patient Education | Clinical Judgment 6.Which legislation authorizes the FDA to determine the safety of a drug before its marketing?
a.Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (1938)
b.Durham Humphrey Amendment (1952)
c.Controlled Substances Act (1970)
d.Kefauver Harris Drug Amendment (1962)
ANS:  A The Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938 authorized the FDA to determine the safety of all drugs before marketing. Later amendments and acts helped tighten FDA control and ensure drug safety. The Durham Humphrey Amendment defines the kinds of drugs that cannot be used safely without medical supervision and restricts their sale to prescription by a licensed practitioner. The Controlled Substances Act addresses only controlled substances and their categorization. The Kefauver Harris Drug Amendment ensures drug efficacy and greater drug safety. Drug manufacturers are required to prove to the FDA the effectiveness of their products before marketing them. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   p. 5                OBJ:   6 NAT:  NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity TOP:   Nursing Process Step: Assessment CON:  Safety | Patient Education | Evidence | Health Care Law 7.Meperidine (Demerol) is a narcotic with a high potential for physical and psychological dependency. Under which classification does this drug fall?
a.I
b.II
c.III
d.IV
ANS:  B Meperidine (Demerol) is a Schedule II drug; it has a high potential for abuse and may lead to severe psychological and physical dependence. Schedule I drugs have high potential for abuse and no recognized medical use. Schedule III drugs have some potential for abuse. Use may lead to low to moderate physical dependence or high psychological dependence. Schedule IV drugs have low potential for abuse. Use may lead to limited physical or psychological dependence. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   p. 5                OBJ:   2 NAT:  NCLEX Client Needs Category: Safe, Effective Care Environment TOP:   Nursing Process Step: Assessment  CON:  Patient Education | Addiction | Pain 8:What would the FDA do to expedite drug development and approval for an outbreak of smallpox, for which there is no known treatment?
a.List smallpox as a health orphan disease.
b.Omit the preclinical research phase.
c.Extend the clinical research phase.
d.Fast track the investigational drug.
    ANS:  D
Chapter 01: Foundations of Maternity, Women’s Health, and Child Health Nursing

McKinney: Evolve Resources for Maternal-Child Nursing, 5th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE
  1. Which factor significantly contributed to the shift from home births to hospital births in the early 20th century?
a.Puerperal sepsis was identified as a risk factor in labor and delivery.
b.Forceps were developed to facilitate difficult births.
c.The importance of early parental-infant contact was identified.
d.Technologic developments became available to physicians.
ANS:  D Technologic developments were available to physicians, not lay midwives. So in-hospital births increased in order to take advantage of these advancements. Puerperal sepsis has been a known problem for generations. In the late 19th century, Semmelweis discovered how it could be prevented with improved hygienic practices. The development of forceps is an example of a technology advance made in the early 20th century but is not the only reason birthplaces moved. Unlike home births, early hospital births hindered bonding between parents and their infants. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remembering REF:   p. 1                OBJ:   Integrated Process: Teaching-Learning MSC:  Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
  1. Family-centered maternity care developed in response to
a.demands by physicians for family involvement in childbirth.
b.the Sheppard-Towner Act of 1921.
c.parental requests that infants be allowed to remain with them rather than in a nursery.
d.changes in pharmacologic management of labor.
ANS:  C As research began to identify the benefits of early extended parent-infant contact, parents began to insist that the infant remain with them. This gradually developed into the practice of rooming-in and finally to family-centered maternity care. Family-centered care was a request by parents, not physicians. The Sheppard-Towner Act of 1921 provided funds for state-managed programs for mothers and children. The changes in pharmacologic management of labor were not a factor in family-centered maternity care. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remembering REF:   p. 2                OBJ:   Integrated Process: Teaching-Learning MSC:  Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity
  1. Which setting for childbirth allows the least amount of parent-infant contact?
a.Labor/delivery/recovery/postpartum room
b.Birth center
c.Traditional hospital birth
d.Home birth
ANS:  C In the traditional hospital setting, the mother may see the infant for only short feeding periods, and the infant is cared for in a separate nursery. The labor/delivery/recovery/postpartum room setting allows increased parent-infant contact. Birth centers are set up to allow an increase in parent-infant contact. Home births allow an increase in parent-infant contact. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remembering REF:   p. 2                OBJ:   Nursing Process: Planning MSC:  Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
  1. As a result of changes in health care delivery and funding, a current trend seen in the pediatric setting is
a.increased hospitalization of children.
b.decreased number of children living in poverty.
c.an increase in ambulatory care.
d.decreased use of managed care.
ANS:  C One effect of managed care has been that pediatric health care delivery has shifted dramatically from the acute care setting to the ambulatory setting in order to provide more cost-efficient care. The number of hospital beds being used has decreased as more care is given in outpatient settings and in the home. The number of children living in poverty has increased over the past decade. One of the biggest changes in health care has been the growth of managed care. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remembering REF:   p. 5                OBJ:   Nursing Process: Planning MSC:  Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
  1. The Women, Infants, and Children (WIC) program provides
a.well-child examinations for infants and children living at the poverty level.
b.immunizations for high-risk infants and children.
c.screening for infants with developmental disorders.
d.supplemental food supplies to low-income pregnant or breastfeeding women.
ANS:  D WIC is a federal program that provides supplemental food supplies to low-income women who are pregnant or breastfeeding and to their children until age 5 years. Medicaid’s Early and Periodic Screening, Diagnosis, and Treatment Program provides for well-child examinations and for treatment of any medical problems diagnosed during such checkups. Children in the WIC program are often referred for immunizations, but that is not the primary focus of the program. Public Law 99-457 is part of the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act that provides financial incentives to states to establish comprehensive early intervention services for infants and toddlers with, or at risk for, developmental disabilities. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   p. 8 OBJ:   Integrated Process: Teaching-Learning MSC:  Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
  1. In most states, adolescents who are not emancipated minors must have the permission of their parents before
a.treatment for drug abuse.
b.treatment for sexually transmitted diseases (STDs).
c.accessing birth control.
d.surgery.
ANS:  D Minors are not considered capable of giving informed consent, so a surgical procedure would require consent of the parent or guardian. Exceptions exist for obtaining treatment for drug abuse or STDs or for getting birth control in most states. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remembering REF:   p. 17              OBJ:   Nursing Process: Planning MSC:  Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
  1. The maternity nurse should have a clear understanding of the correct use of a clinical pathway. One characteristic of clinical pathways is that they
a.are developed and implemented by nurses.
b.are used primarily in the pediatric setting.
c.set specific time lines for sequencing interventions.
d.are part of the nursing process.
ANS:  C Clinical pathways are standardized, interdisciplinary plans of care devised for patients with a particular health problem. They are used to identify patient outcomes, specify time lines to achieve those outcomes, direct appropriate interventions and sequencing of interventions, include interventions from a variety of disciplines, promote collaboration, and involve a comprehensive approach to care. They are developed by multiple health care professionals and reflect interdisciplinary care. They can be used in multiple settings and for patients throughout the life span. They are not part of the nursing process but can be used in conjunction with the nursing process to provide care to patients. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remembering REF:   p. 7                OBJ:   Nursing Process: Planning MSC:  Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
  1. The fastest growing group of homeless people is
a.men and women preparing for retirement.
b.migrant workers.
c.single women and their children.
d.intravenous (IV) substance abusers.
ANS:  C Pregnancy and birth, especially for a teenager, are important contributing factors for becoming homeless. People preparing for retirement, migrant workers, and IV substance abusers are not among the fastest growing groups of homeless people. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remembering REF:   p. 14              OBJ:   Nursing Process: Assessment MSC:  Client Needs: Physiologic Integrity
  1. A nurse wishes to work to reduce infant mortality in the United States. Which activity would this nurse most likely participate in?
a.Creating pamphlets in several different languages using an interpreter.
b.Assisting women to enroll in Medicaid by their third trimester.
c.Volunteering to provide prenatal care at community centers.
d.Working as an intake counselor at a women’s shelter.
ANS:  C Prenatal care is vital to reducing infant mortality and medical costs. This nurse would most likely participate in community service providing prenatal care outreach activities in community centers, particularly in low-income areas. Pamphlets in other languages, enrolling in Medicaid, and working at a women’s shelter all might impact infant mortality, but the greatest effect would be from assisting women to get consistent prenatal care. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Application/Applying REF:   p. 14              OBJ:   Nursing Process: Implementation MSC:  Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
  1. The intrapartum woman sees no need for a routine admission fetal monitoring strip. If she continues to refuse, what is the first action the nurse should take?
a.Consult the family of the woman.
b.Notify the provider of the situation.
c.Document the woman’s refusal in the nurse’s notes.
d.Make a referral to the hospital ethics committee.
ANS:  B Patients must be allowed to make choices voluntarily without undue influence or coercion from others. The physician, especially if unaware of the patient’s decision, should be notified immediately. Both professionals can work to ensure the mother understands the rationale for the action and the possible consequences of refusal. The woman herself is the decision-maker, unless incapacitated. Documentation should occur but is not the first action. This situation does not rise to the level of an ethical issue so there is no reason to call the ethics committee. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Application/Applying REF:   p. 18              OBJ:   Nursing Process: Implementation MSC:  Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
  1. Which statement is true regarding the “quality assurance” or “incident” report?
a.The report assures the legal department that no problem exists.
b.Reports are a permanent part of the patient’s chart.
c.The nurse’s notes should contain, “Incident report filed, and copy placed in chart.”
d.This report is a form of documentation of an event that may result in legal action.
ANS:  D An incident report is used when something occurs that might result in legal action, such as a patient fall or medication error. It warns the legal department that there may be a problem in a particular patient’s care. Incident reports are not part of the patient’s chart; thus the nurses’ notes should not contain any reference to them. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remembering REF:   p. 18              OBJ:   Integrated Process: Communication and Documentation MSC:  Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
  1. Elective abortion is considered an ethical issue because
a.abortion law is unclear about a woman’s constitutional rights.
b.the Supreme Court ruled that life begins at conception.
c.a conflict exists between the rights of the woman and the rights of the fetus.
d.it requires third-party consent.
ANS:  C

Test Bank for Wongs Nursing Care of Infants and Children 11th Edition by Hockenberry

ISBN-10: 032354939X, ISBN-13: 9780323549394

Table of Contents Section I: Children, Their Families, and the Nurse 1. Perspectives of Pediatric Nursing 2. Social, Cultural, Religious, and Family Influences on Child Health Promotion 3. Hereditary Influences on Health Promotion of the Child and Family Section II: Childhood and Family Assessment 4. Communication, Physical, and Developmental Assessment of the Child and Family 5. Pain in Children: Significance, Assessment, and Management Strategies 6. Childhood Communicable and Infectious Diseases Section III: Family-Centered Care of the Newborn 7. Health Promotion of the Newborn and Family 8. Health Problems of the Newborn 9. The High-Risk Newborn and Family Section IV: Family-Centered Care of the Infant 10. Health Promotion of the Infant and Family 11. Health Problems of the Infant Section V: Family-Centered Care of the Toddler and Preschooler 12. Health Promotion of the Toddler and Family 13. Health Promotion of the Preschooler and Family 14. Health Problems of Early Childhood Section VI: Family-Centered Care of the School-Age Child 15. Health Promotion of the School-Age Child and Family 16. Health Problems of the School-Age Child Section VII: Family-Centered Care of the Adolescent 17. Health Promotion of the Adolescent and Family 18. Health Problems of the Adolescent Section VIII: Family-Centered Care of the Child with Special Needs 19. Impact of Chronic Illness, Disability, or End of Life Care for the Child and Family 20. The Child with Cognitive, Sensory, or Communication Impairment Section IX: The Child Who is Hospitalized 21. Family-Centered Care of the Child During Illness and Hospitalization 22. Pediatric Nursing Interventions and Skills Section X: Childhood Nutrition and Elimination Problems 23. The Child with Fluid and Electrolyte Imbalance 24. The Child with Renal Dysfunction 25. The Child with Gastrointestinal Dysfunction Section XI: Childhood Oxygenation Problems 26. The Child with Respiratory Dysfunction Section XII: Childhood Blood Production and Circulation Problems 27. The Child with Cardiovascular Dysfunction 28. The Child with Hematologic or Immunologic Dysfunction Section XIII: Childhood Regulatory Problems 29. The Child with Cancer 30. The Child with Cerebral Dysfunction 31. The Child with Endocrine Dysfunction Section XIV: Childhood Physical Mobility Problems 32. The Child with Integumentary Dysfunction 33. The Child with Musculoskeletal or Articular Dysfunction 34. The Child with Neuromuscular or Muscular Dysfunction

Test Bank Focus on Nursing Pharmacology 8th Edition

Test Bank - Focus on Nursing Pharmacology (8th Edition by Karch) Table of Contents Chapter 01 - Introduction to Drugs Chapter 02 - Drugs and the Body Chapter 03 - Toxic Effects of Drugs Chapter 04 - The Nursing Process in Drug Therapy and Patient Safety Chapter 05 - Dosage Calculations Chapter 06 - Challenges to Effective Drug Therapy Chapter 07 - Introduction to Cell Physiology Chapter 08 - Antiinfective Agents Chapter 09 - Antibiotics Chapter 10 - Antiviral Agents Chapter 11 - Antifungal Agents Chapter 12 - Antiprotozoal Agents Chapter 13 - Anthelmintic Agents Chapter 14 - Antineoplastic Agents Chapter 15 - Introduction to the Immune Response and Inflammation Chapter 16 - Antiinflammatory, Antiarthritis, and Related Agents Chapter 17 - Immune Modulators Chapter 18 - Vaccines and Sera Chapter 19 - Introduction to Nerves and the Nervous System Chapter 20 - Anxiolytic and Hypnotic Agents Chapter 21 - Antidepressant Agents Chapter 22 - Psychotherapeutic Agents Chapter 23 - Antiseizure Agents Chapter 24 - Antiparkinsonism Agents Chapter 25 - Muscle Relaxants Chapter 26 - Narcotics, Narcotic Antagonists, and Antimigraine Agents Chapter 27 - General and Local Anesthetic Agents Chapter 28 - Neuromuscular Junction Blocking Agents Chapter 29 - Introduction to the Autonomic Nervous System Chapter 30 - Adrenergic Agonists Chapter 31 - Adrenergic Antagonists Chapter 32 - Cholinergic Agonists Chapter 33 - Anticholinergic Agents Chapter 34 - Introduction to the Endocrine System Chapter 35 - Hypothalamic and Pituitary Agents Chapter 36 - Adrenocortical Agents Chapter 37 - Thyroid and Parathyroid Agents Chapter 38 - Agents to Control Blood Glucose Levels Chapter 39 - Introduction to the Reproductive System Chapter 40 - Drugs Affecting the Female Reproductive System Chapter 41 - Drugs Affecting the Male Reproductive System Chapter 42 - Introduction to the Cardiovascular System Chapter 43 - Drugs Affecting Blood Pressure Chapter 44 - Agents for Treating Heart Failure Chapter 45 - Antiarrhythmic Agents Chapter 46 - Antianginal Agents Chapter 47 - Lipid-Lowering Agents Chapter 48 - Drugs Affecting Blood Coagulation Chapter 49 - Drugs Used to Treat Anemias Chapter 50 - Introduction to the Renal System Test Bank - Focus on Nursing Pharmacology (8th Edition by Karch) 2 Chapter 51 - Diuretic Agents Chapter 52 - Drugs Affecting the Urinary Tract and the Bladder Chapter 53 - Introduction to the Respiratory System Chapter 54 - Drugs Acting on the Upper Respiratory Tract Chapter 55 - Drugs Acting on the Lower Respiratory Tract Chapter 56 - Introduction to the Gastrointestinal System Chapter 57 - Drugs Affecting Gastrointestinal Secretions Chapter 58 - Drugs Affecting Gastrointestinal Motility Chapter 59 - Antiemetic Agents

Test Bank for Public Health Science and Nursing Practice Caring For Populations by Savage

Chapter 10: Mental Health MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1.According to Healthy People 2020, which of the following are characteristics of mental health? Select all that apply.
A.Engaging in productive activities
B.Having fulfilling relationships
C.Experiencing alterations in thinking
D.Adapting to change
E.Coping with challenges
ANS: A, B, D, E Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders. pp. 225-226 Heading: Introduction Integrated Processes: N/A Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Knowledge [Remembering] Concept: Promoting Health Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
1.Mental health is a state of successful performance of mental function, including engagement in productive activities.
2.Mental health is a state of successful performance of mental function, including being able to form fulfilling relationships with other people.
3.This is incorrect; it is an example of a mental disorder. Mental disorders are health conditions that are characterized by alterations in thinking, mood, or behavior that are associated with distress or impaired functioning.
4.Mental health is a state of successful performance of mental function, including the ability to adapt to change.
5.Mental health is a state of successful performance of mental function, including the ability to cope with challenges.
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health MULTIPLE CHOICE 2.In 2010, approximately how many people in the United States reported experiencing mental disorders in the previous year?
A.15%
B.50%
C.30%
D.25%
ANS: D Objective: 1. Define the burden of disease related to mental disorders using current epidemiological frameworks. pp. 226-227 Heading: Epidemiology of Mental Disorders Integrated Processes: N/A Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Comprehension [Understanding] Concept: Promoting Health Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
AThis is incorrect. In the United States in 2010 an estimated 25% of adults reported having mental disorders in the previous year.
BThis is incorrect. In the United States in 2010 an estimated 25% of adults reported having mental disorders in the previous year.
CThis is incorrect. In the United States in 2010 an estimated 25% of adults reported having mental disorders in the previous year.
DIn the United States in 2010 an estimated 25% of adults reported having mental disorders in the previous year.
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health 3.A student nurse is studying stress and mental health. The student nurse learns that ____ is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events.
A.Intervention
B.Support
C.Resilience
D.Therapy
ANS: C Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders. pp. 229-231 Heading: Protective Factors: Building Resilience Integrated Processes: Teaching/Learning Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Trauma; Stress; Promoting Health; Nursing Roles Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
AThis is incorrect. Resilience is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events. Preventive and treatment interventions are useful tools to build on an individual’s natural resilience to promote positive outcomes.
BThis is incorrect. Resilience is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events. Support from family, friends, and community is an important part of strengthening an individual’s resilience.
CResilience is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events.
DThis is incorrect. Resilience is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events. Therapy is an important part of an overall treatment plan, in conjunction with intervention, support, and an individual’s capacity for resilience.
PTS: 1 CON: Trauma | Stress | Promoting Health | Nursing Roles 4.____ addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder.
A.Indicated prevention
B.Selective prevention
C.Universal prevention
D.Both 1 and 2
ANS: A Objective: 4. Apply current evidence-based population level interventions to the prevention of mental disorders and the promotion of optimal mental health for communities and populations. pp. 232-233 Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Institute of Medicine Model of Prevention Integrated Processes: Nursing Process Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Comprehension [Understanding] Concept: Promoting Health Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
AIndicated prevention addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder. The purpose of indicated techniques is to delay or reduce the severity of a mental disorder.
BSelective prevention includes interventions provided to specific subgroups that are known to be at high risk for mental disorders owing to biological, psychological, social, or environmental factors but that have not yet been diagnosed with mental disorders. High-risk subgroups include but are not limited to those with a family history of mental disorders, history of adverse childhood events, or victims of violence.
CUniversal prevention refers to prevention interventions provided to the entire population, not just those who may be at risk. The interventions include but are not limited to public service announcements provided to the public at large through billboards, media messages (print and electronic), or general health education programs.
DIndicated prevention addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder. The purpose of indicated techniques is to delay or reduce the severity of a mental disorder. Selective prevention includes interventions provided to specific subgroups that are known to be at high risk for mental disorders owing to biological, psychological, social, or environmental factors but that have not yet been diagnosed with mental disorders. High-risk subgroups include but are not limited to those with a family history of mental disorders, history of adverse childhood events, or victims of violence.
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health 5.The public health nurse (PHN) recognizes that which of the following are used as screening tools for depression?
A.Patient Health Questionnaire 2
B.Center for Epidemiological Studies Depression Scale (CESD-10)
C.Brief Symptom Checklist-18 of the My Mood Monitor (M-3)
D.Both 1 and 2
ANS: D Objective: 5. Describe systems approaches to the promotion of mental health and the prevention and treatment of mental health disorders. p. 232 Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Measure of Mental Health: Health-Related Quality of Life Integrated Processes: Nursing Process Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Promoting Health; Mood; Assessment Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
ATools to screen for depression include the Patient Health Questionnaire 2 and the CESD-10.
BTools to screen for depression include the Patient Health Questionnaire 2 and the CESD-10.
CThis is incorrect. Tools to screen for depression include the Patient Health Questionnaire 2 and the CESD-10. Screening tools for anxiety disorders include the Brief Symptom Checklist-18 of the My Mood Monitor (M-3).
DTools to screen for depression include the Patient Health Questionnaire 2 and the CESD-10.
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health | Mood | Assessment 6.During a course on mental disorders, a PHN learns that the term serious mental illness (SMI) refers to diagnosable mental disorders that may disrupt a person’s ability to function and may qualify that person for support services. The PHN also notes that the mental disorders that can lead to SMI include:
A.Mild depression
B.Panic disorder
C.Schizophrenia
D.Both 2 and 3
ANS: D Objective: 1. Define the burden of disease related to mental disorders using current epidemiological frameworks. pp. 225-226 Heading: Introduction Integrated Processes: Teaching/Learning Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Cognition; Mood; Stress; Promoting Health; Nursing Roles Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
AThis is incorrect. Major depression, however, is one of the mental disorders that can lead to SMI.
BBoth panic disorder and schizophrenia, among other mental disorders, can lead to SMI.
CBoth schizophrenia and panic disorder, among other mental disorders, can lead to SMI.
DThe mental disorders that can lead to SMI include major depression, panic disorder, schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD), post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), and borderline personality disorder.
PTS: 1 CON: Cognition | Mood | Stress | Promoting Health | Nursing Roles 7.While studying the prevalence of mental health disorders worldwide, a PHN learns about the World Mental Health Survey, which is used to determine estimates of human capital costs and prevalence of mental disorders in a wide range of countries. The survey was developed by
A.The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
B.The World Health Organization (WHO)
C.The Institute of Medicine (IOM)
D.The World Health Assembly
ANS: B Objective: 1. Define the burden of disease related to mental disorders using current epidemiological frameworks. p. 227 Heading: Epidemiology of Mental Disorders > Surveillance of Mental Health Disorders Integrated Processes: Teaching/Learning Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Promoting Health; Nursing Roles Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
AThis is incorrect. WHO developed the World Mental Health Survey to estimate human capital costs and mental disorders prevalence on a global scale. The CDC conducts many types of surveys on the prevalence of mental disorders but the organization did not develop the World Mental Health Survey.
BThe WHO developed the World Mental Health Survey to estimate human capital costs and mental disorders prevalence on a global scale.
CThis is incorrect. WHO developed the World Mental Health Survey to estimate human capital costs and mental disorders prevalence on a global scale. The IOM is involved in screening for mental health disorders and addresses the need for appropriate behavioral health treatment in its report, Improving the Quality of Health Care for Mental and Substance-Use Conditions: Quality Chasm Series.
DThis is incorrect. WHO developed the World Mental Health Survey to estimate human capital costs and mental disorders prevalence on a global scale. The World Health Assembly issued a resolution on mental health that aims to reduce the global burden of mental disorders and improve overall mental health worldwide.
PTS: 1 CON: Promoting Health | Nursing Roles 8.Which ethnic group has the highest 12-month prevalence of a mental disorder?
A.Hispanics
B.African Americans
C.Asian Americans
D.Non-Hispanic whites
ANS: D Objective: 1. Define the burden of disease related to mental disorders using current epidemiological frameworks. pp. 227-228 Heading: Epidemiology of Mental Disorders > Prevalence of Mental Health Disorders Integrated Processes: N/A Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Knowledge [Remembering] Concept: Promoting Health Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
AThis is incorrect. Non-Hispanic whites have the highest 12-month prevalence rate for mental disorders at 21% compared with 16% for Hispanics.
BThis is incorrect. Non-Hispanic whites have the highest 12-month prevalence rate for mental disorders at 21% compared with 15% for African Americans.
CThis is incorrect. Non-Hispanic whites have the highest 12-month prevalence rate for mental disorders at 21% compared with 9% for Asian Americans.
DNon-Hispanic whites have the highest 12-month prevalence rate for mental disorders at 21%.
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health 9.A PHN learns in a behavioral health class that the relationship between physiology and mental health plays an important role in mental disorders. Which of the following physiological factors may contribute to the development of mental disorders?
A.Conditions that affect brain chemistry, such as medication side effects or toxins
B.Physical trauma
C.1 and 2
D.Unstable family life
ANS: C Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders. pp. 228-229 Heading: Behavioral, Biological, Environmental, and Socioeconomic Risk Factors > Individual Level Risk Factors for Mental Disorders Integrated Processes: Teaching/Learning Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Application] Concept: Cognition; Trauma; Promoting Health Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
ABoth conditions that affect brain chemistry and physical trauma are the physiological factors that may contribute to the development of mental disorders.
BBoth physical trauma and conditions that affect brain chemistry are physiological factors that may contribute to the development of mental disorders.
CConditions that affect brain chemistry and physical trauma are two of the physiological factors that may contribute to the development of mental disorders.
DThis is incorrect. Conditions that affect brain chemistry and physical trauma are two of the physiological factors that may contribute to the development of mental disorders. An unstable family life is not a physiological factor, although it may also contribute to the development of mental disorders.
PTS:1CON:Cognition | Trauma | Promoting Health 10.Which of the following community environment factors play a role in the development of mental disorders?
A.Living in high crime areas
B.Poverty
C.Both 1 and 2
D.Family instability
ANS: C Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders. p. 229 Heading: Behavioral, Biological, Environmental, and Socioeconomic Risk Factors > Community-Level Risk Factors for Mental Disorders Integrated Processes: N/A Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Comprehension [Understanding] Concept: Promoting Health Difficulty: Easy
Feedback
ALiving in high crime areas is a factor, along with poverty.
BBoth poverty and living in high crime areas play a role in the development of mental disorders.
CBoth poverty and living in high crime areas play a role in the development of mental disorders.
DThis is incorrect. Although family instability often contributes to the development of mental disorders, it is not considered a community environment factor.
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health 11.____ is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable.
A.Indicated prevention
B.Stigma
C.Risk factors
D.Transinstitutionalization
ANS: B Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders. pp. 231-232 Heading: Culture, Stigma, and Mental Health Disorders Integrated Processes: N/A Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Comprehension [Understanding] Concept: Promoting Health Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
AThis is incorrect. Stigma is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable. Indicated prevention addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder.
BStigma is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable.
CThis is incorrect. Stigma is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable. Risk factors increase an individual’s chance of developing a mental disorder.
DThis is incorrect. Stigma is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable. Transinstitutionalization refers to the growing number of mentally ill persons who are homeless, in jail, in shelters, or in other facilities instead of being home or in a hospital.
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health 12.A nurse interested in working with persons with mental disorders who live in poverty understands that the most effective treatment involves multiple sectors of society, such as government agencies, grass roots groups, nonprofits, and businesses, working in tandem. This interrelationship is called:
A.Indicated prevention
B.Intersectoral strategies
C.Health-Related Quality of Life
D.Institute of Medicine Model of Prevention
ANS: B Objective: 4. Apply current evidence-based population level interventions to the prevention of mental disorders and the promotion of optimal mental health for communities and populations. p. 233 Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Promotion of Mental Health and Policy Integrated Processes: Nursing Process Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Promoting Health; Collaboration Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
AThis is incorrect. Intersectoral strategies engage more than one sector of society with a shared interest such as government agencies, grass roots citizens groups, nonprofits, and businesses. Indicated prevention addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder.
BIntersectoral strategies engage more than one sector of society with a shared interest such as government agencies, grass roots citizens groups, nonprofits, and businesses.
CThis is incorrect. Intersectoral strategies engage more than one sector of society with a shared interest such as government agencies, grass roots citizens groups, nonprofits, and businesses. Health-Related Quality of Life is the self-perceived impact of physical and emotional health on overall quality of life.
DThis is incorrect. Intersectoral strategies engage more than one sector of society with a shared interest such as government agencies, grass roots citizens groups, nonprofits, and businesses. The Institute of Medicine Model of Prevention is a framework for mental disorders that clearly separates prevention into three categories with specific interventions at each level.
PTS: 1 CON: Promoting Health | Collaboration 13.A recent graduate nurse working in an urban labor and delivery unit had a patient who experienced a difficult labor. The mother, suffering from postpartum depression (PPD), committed suicide a year after giving birth. Although the nurse knew the basics about PPD, the nurse immediately studied the condition in depth and learned that PPD:
A.Can be triggered by a massive hormone drop following delivery
B.Can intensify to cause delusions
C.Occurs soon after delivery
D.All of the above
ANS: D Objective: 4. Apply current evidence-based population level interventions to the prevention of mental disorders and the promotion of optimal mental health for communities and populations. pp. 233-235 Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Secondary Prevention: Screening for Mental Disorders Integrated Processes: Nursing Process Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Pregnancy; Mood; Violence; Promoting Health; Nursing Roles Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
APPD can be triggered by a massive post-delivery hormone drop, intensify enough to cause delusions, and occur soon after delivery.
BPPD can be triggered by a massive post-delivery hormone drop, intensify enough to cause delusions, and occur soon after delivery.
CPPD can be triggered by a massive post-delivery hormone drop, intensify enough to cause delusions, and occur soon after delivery.
DPPD can be triggered by a massive post-delivery hormone drop, intensify enough to cause delusions, and occur soon after delivery.
PTS: 1 CON: Pregnancy | Mood | Violence | Promoting Health | Nursing Roles 14.A nurse working in labor and delivery requested permission from the nurse manager to conduct a quality improvement project to screen patients that might be susceptible to PPD. After completing the project, which of the following screening guidelines did the unit incorporate?
A.All patients will be screened for PPD when they are admitted to the labor and delivery unit.
B.Patients at high risk are referred to the attending obstetrician.
C.Before being discharged, all new mothers will complete a questionnaire specific to PPD symptoms.
D.All of the above
ANS: D Objective: Apply current evidence-based population level interventions to the prevention of mental disorders and the promotion of optimal mental health for communities and populations. pp. 233-235 Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Secondary Prevention: Screening for Mental Disorders Integrated Processes: Nursing Process Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Pregnancy; Mood; Promoting Health; Assessment; Quality Improvement Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
AThis is incorrect. Screening, high-risk referrals to the attending obstetrician and completion of a PPD symptom questionnaire were all incorporated.
BThis is incorrect. Screening, high-risk referrals to the attending obstetrician and completion of a PPD symptom questionnaire were all incorporated.
CThis is incorrect. Screening, high-risk referrals to the attending obstetrician and completion of a PPD symptom questionnaire were all incorporated.
DScreening, high-risk referrals to the attending obstetrician and completion of a PPD symptom questionnaire were all incorporated.
PTS:1 CON: Pregnancy | Mood | Promoting Health | Assessment | Quality Improvement 15.A PHN treats a patient who may be depressed. To verify suspicions, the PHN checks ____, the definitive clinical guide for diagnosing mental disorders and providing consistency and accuracy in the screening for mental disorders.
A.The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5)
B.The Center for Epidemiological Studies Depression Scale (CESD-10)
C.Patient Health Questionnaire 2
D.Brief System Checklist-18 of the My Mood Monitor
ANS: A
Chapter 1. The Concept of Stress Adaptation

Test Bank for Psychiatric Mental Health Nursing 8th Edition by Townsend

Multiple Choice
  1. A client has experienced the death of a close family member and at the same time becomes unemployed. This situation has resulted in a 6-month score of 110 on the Recent Life Changes Questionnaire. How should the nurse evaluate this client data?
  2. The client is experiencing severe distress and is at risk for physical and psychological illness.
  3. A score of 110 on the Miller and Rahe Recent Life Changes Questionnaire indicates no significant threat of stress-related illness.
  4. Susceptibility to stress-related physical or psychological illness cannot be estimated without knowledge of coping resources and available supports.
  5. The client may view these losses as challenges and perceive them as opportunities.
ANS: C The Recent Life Changes Questionnaire is an expanded version of the Schedule of Recent Experiences and the Rahe-Holmes Social Readjustment Rating Scale. A 6-month score of 300 or more, or a year-score total of 500 or more, indicates high stress in a client’s life. However, positive coping mechanisms and strong social support can limit susceptibility to stress-related illnesses. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Evaluation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
  1. A physically and emotionally healthy client has just been fired. During a routine office visit he states to a nurse: “Perhaps this was the best thing to happen. Maybe I’ll look into pursuing an art degree.” How should the nurse characterize the client’s appraisal of the job loss stressor?
  2. Irrelevant
  3. Harm/loss
  4. Threatening
  5. Challenging
ANS: D The client perceives the situation of job loss as a challenge and an opportunity for growth. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Assessment | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
  1. Which client statement should alert a nurse that a client may be responding maladaptively to stress?
  2. “I’ve found that avoiding contact with others helps me cope.”
  3. “I really enjoy journaling; it’s my private time.”
  4. “I signed up for a yoga class this week.”
  5. “I made an appointment to meet with a therapist.”
ANS: A Reliance on social isolation as a coping mechanism is a maladaptive method to relieve stress. It can prevent learning appropriate coping skills and can prevent access to needed support systems.  KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Evaluation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
  1. A nursing student finds that she comes down with a sinus infection toward the end of every semester. When this occurs, which stage of stress is the student most likely experiencing?
  2. Alarm reaction stage
  3. Stage of resistance
  4. Stage of exhaustion
  5. Fight-or-flight stage
ANS: C At the stage of exhaustion, the student’s exposure to stress has been prolonged and adaptive energy has been depleted. Diseases of adaptation occur more frequently in this stage. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Assessment | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
  1. A school nurse is assessing a female high school student who is overly concerned about her appearance. The client’s mother states, “That’s not something to be stressed about!” Which is the most appropriate nursing response?
  2. “Teenagers! They don’t know a thing about real stress.”
  3. “Stress occurs only when there is a loss.”
  4. “When you are in poor physical condition, you can’t experience psychological well-being.”
  5. “Stress can be psychological. A threat to self-esteem may result in high stress levels.”
ANS: D Stress can be physical or psychological in nature. A perceived threat to self-esteem can be as stressful as a physiological change. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Implementation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
  1. A bright student confides in the school nurse about conflicts related to attending college or working to add needed financial support to the family. Which coping strategy is most appropriate for the nurse to recommend to the student at this time?
  2. Meditation
  3. Problem-solving training
  4. Relaxation
  5. Journaling
ANS: B The student must assess his or her situation and determine the best course of action. Problem-solving training, by providing structure and objectivity, can assist in decision making. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Implementation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
  1. An unemployed college graduate is experiencing severe anxiety over not finding a teaching position and has difficulty with independent problem-solving. During a routine physical examination, the graduate confides in the clinic nurse. Which is the most appropriate nursing intervention?
  2. Encourage the student to use the alternative coping mechanism of relaxation exercises.
  3. Complete the problem-solving process for the client.
  4. Work through the problem-solving process with the client.
  5. Encourage the client to keep a journal.
ANS: C During times of high anxiety and stress, clients will need more assistance in problem-solving and decision making. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Implementation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
  1. A school nurse is assessing a distraught female high school student who is overly concerned because her parents can’t afford horseback riding lessons. How should the nurse interpret the student’s reaction to her perceived problem?
  2. The problem is endangering her well-being.
  3. The problem is personally relevant to her.
  4. The problem is based on immaturity.
  5. The problem is exceeding her capacity to cope.
ANS: B Psychological stressors to self-esteem and self-image are related to how the individual perceives the situation or event. Self-image is of particular importance to adolescents, who feel entitled to have all the advantages that other adolescents experience. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Evaluation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
  1. Meditation has been shown to be an effective stress management technique. When meditation is effective, what should a nurse expect to assess?
  2. An achieved state of relaxation
  3. An achieved insight into one’s feelings
  4. A demonstration of appropriate role behaviors
  5. An enhanced ability to problem-solve
ANS: A Meditation produces relaxation by creating a special state of consciousness through focused concentration. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Evaluation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
  1. A distraught, single, first-time mother cries and asks a nurse, “How can I go to work if I can’t afford childcare?” What is the nurse’s initial action in assisting the client with the problem-solving process?
  2. Determine the risks and benefits for each alternative.
  3. Formulate goals for resolution of the problem.
  4. Evaluate the outcome of the implemented alternative.
  5. Assess the facts of the situation.
ANS: D Before any other steps can be taken, accurate information about the situation must be gathered and assessed. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Implementation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
Weight
DimensionsN/AN/AN/AN/AN/AN/A
Additional information
Select the fields to be shown. Others will be hidden. Drag and drop to rearrange the order.
  • Image
  • SKU
  • Rating
  • Price
  • Stock
  • Availability
  • Add to cart
  • Description
  • Content
  • Weight
  • Dimensions
  • Additional information
  • Attributes
  • Custom attributes
  • Custom fields
Click outside to hide the comparison bar
Compare
Compare ×
Let's Compare! Continue shopping