| Content | Chapter 01: Using Evidence in Practice
Perry et al.: Clinical Nursing Skills & Techniques, 9th Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
- Evidence-based practice is a problem-solving approach to making decisions about patient care that is grounded in:
| a. |
the latest information found in textbooks. |
| b. |
systematically conducted research studies. |
| c. |
tradition in clinical practice. |
| d. |
quality improvement and risk-management data. |
ANS: B
The best evidence comes from well-designed, systematically conducted research studies described in scientific journals. Portions of a textbook often become outdated by the time it is published. Many health care settings do not have a process to help staff adopt new evidence in practice, and nurses in practice settings lack easy access to risk-management data, relying instead on tradition or convenience. Some sources of evidence do not originate from research. These include quality improvement and risk-management data; infection control data; retrospective or concurrent chart reviews; and clinicians’ expertise. Although non–research-based evidence is often very valuable, it is important that you learn to rely more on research-based evidence.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: Text reference: p. 2
OBJ: Discuss the benefits of evidence-based practice.
TOP: Evidence-Based Practice KEY: Nursing Process Step: Assessment
MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment (management of care)
- When evidence-based practice is used, patient care will be:
| a. |
standardized for all. |
| b. |
unhampered by patient culture. |
| c. |
variable according to the situation. |
| d. |
safe from the hazards of critical thinking. |
ANS: C
Using your clinical expertise and considering patients’ cultures, values, and preferences ensures that you will apply available evidence in practice ethically and appropriately. Even when you use the best evidence available, application and outcomes will differ; as a nurse, you will develop critical thinking skills to determine whether evidence is relevant and appropriate.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: Text reference: p. 2
OBJ: Discuss the benefits of evidence-based practice.
TOP: Evidence-Based Practice KEY: Nursing Process Step: Assessment
MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment (management of care)
- When a PICOT question is developed, the letter that corresponds with the usual standard of care is:
ANS: C
C = Comparison of interest. What standard of care or current intervention do you usually use now in practice?
P = Patient population of interest. Identify your patient by age, gender, ethnicity, disease, or health problem.
I = Intervention of interest. What intervention (e.g., treatment, diagnostic test, and prognostic factor) do you think is worthwhile to use in practice?
O = Outcome. What result (e.g., change in patient’s behavior, physical finding, and change in patient’s perception) do you wish to achieve or observe as the result of an intervention?
DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: Text reference: p. 3
OBJ: Develop a PICO question. TOP: PICO
KEY: Nursing Process Step: Implementation
MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment (management of care)
- A well-developed PICOT question helps the nurse:
| a. |
search for evidence. |
| b. |
include all five elements of the sequence. |
| c. |
find as many articles as possible in a literature search. |
| d. |
accept standard clinical routines. |
ANS: A
The more focused a question that you ask is, the easier it is to search for evidence in the scientific literature. A well-designed PICOT question does not have to include all five elements, nor does it have to follow the PICOT sequence. Do not be satisfied with clinical routines. Always question and use critical thinking to consider better ways to provide patient care.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis REF: Text reference: p. 3
OBJ: Describe the six steps of evidence-based practice.
TOP: Evidence-Based Practice KEY: Nursing Process Step: Implementation
MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment (management of care)
- The nurse is not sure that the procedure the patient requires is the best possible for the situation. Utilizing which of the following resources would be the quickest way to review research on the topic?
| a. |
CINAHL |
| b. |
PubMed |
| c. |
MEDLINE |
| d. |
The Cochrane Database |
ANS: D
The Cochrane Community Database of Systematic Reviews is a valuable source of synthesized evidence (i.e., pre-appraised evidence). The Cochrane Database includes the full text of regularly updated systematic reviews and protocols for reviews currently happening. MEDLINE, CINAHL, and PubMed are among the most comprehensive databases and represent the scientific knowledge base of health care.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Synthesis REF: Text reference: p. 4
OBJ: Describe the six steps of evidence-based practice.
TOP: Evidence-Based Practice KEY: Nursing Process Step: Implementation
MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment (management of care)
- The nurse is getting ready to develop a plan of care for a patient who has a specific need. The best source for developing this plan of care would probably be:
| a. |
The Cochrane Database. |
| b. |
MEDLINE. |
| c. |
NGC. |
| d. |
CINAHL. |
ANS: C
The National Guidelines Clearinghouse (NGC) is a database supported by the Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ). It contains clinical guidelines—systematically developed statements about a plan of care for a specific set of clinical circumstances involving a specific patient population. The NGC is a valuable source when you want to develop a plan of care for a patient. The Cochrane Community Database of Systematic Reviews, MEDLINE, and CINAHL are all valuable sources of synthesized evidence (i.e., pre-appraised evidence).
DIF: Cognitive Level: Synthesis REF: Text reference: p. 4
OBJ: Describe the six steps of evidence-based practice.
TOP: Evidence-Based Practice KEY: Nursing Process Step: Implementation
MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment (management of care)
- The nurse has done a literature search and found 25 possible articles on the topic that she is studying. To determine which of those 25 best fit her inquiry, the nurse first should look at:
| a. |
the abstracts. |
| b. |
the literature reviews. |
| c. |
the “Methods” sections. |
| d. |
the narrative sections. |
ANS: A
An abstract is a brief summary of an article that quickly tells you whether the article is research based or clinically based. An abstract summarizes the purpose of the study or clinical query, the major themes or findings, and the implications for nursing practice. The literature review usually gives you a good idea of how past research led to the researcher’s question. The “Methods” or “Design” section explains how a research study is organized and conducted to answer the research question or to test the hypothesis. The narrative of a manuscript differs according to the type of evidence-based article—clinical or research.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: Text reference: p. 7
OBJ: Discuss elements to review when critiquing the scientific literature.
TOP: Randomized Controlled Trials KEY: Nursing Process Step: Implementation
MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment (management of care)
- The nurse wants to determine the effects of cardiac rehabilitation program attendance on the level of postmyocardial depression for individuals who have had a myocardial infarction. The type of study that would best capture this information would be a:
| a. |
randomized controlled trial. |
| b. |
qualitative study. |
| c. |
case control study. |
| d. |
descriptive study. |
ANS: B
Qualitative studies examine individuals’ experiences with health problems and the contexts in which these experiences occur. A qualitative study is best in this case of an individual nurse who wants to examine the effectiveness of a local program. Randomized controlled trials involve close monitoring of control groups and treatment groups to test an intervention against the usual standard of care. Case control studies typically compare one group of subjects with a certain condition against another group without the condition, to look for associations between the condition and predictor variables. Descriptive studies focus mainly on describing the concepts under study.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Synthesis REF: Text reference: p. 6
OBJ: Discuss ways to apply evidence in nursing practice.
TOP: Randomized Controlled Trials KEY: Nursing Process Step: Implementation
MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment (management of care)
- Six months after an early mobility protocol was implemented, the incidence of deep vein thrombosis in patients was decreased. This is an example of what stage in the EBP process?
| a. |
Asking a clinical question |
| b. |
Applying the evidence |
| c. |
Evaluating the practice decision |
| d. |
Communicating your results |
ANS: C
After implementing a practice change, your next step is to evaluate the effect. You do this by analyzing the outcomes data that you collected during the pilot project. Outcomes evaluation tells you whether your practice change improved conditions, created no change, or worsened conditions.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: Text reference: p. 9
OBJ: Discuss ways to apply evidence in nursing practice.
TOP: Evidence-Based Practice KEY: Nursing Process Step: Evaluation
MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment (safety and infection control)
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
- To use evidence-based practice appropriately, you need to collect the most relevant and best evidence and to critically appraise the evidence you gather. This process also includes: (Select all that apply.)
| a. |
asking a clinical question. |
| b. |
applying the evidence. |
| c. |
evaluating the practice decision. |
| d. |
communicating your results. |
ANS: A, B, C, D | Chapter 1. The Concept of Stress Adaptation
Multiple Choice
- A client has experienced the death of a close family member and at the same time becomes unemployed. This situation has resulted in a 6-month score of 110 on the Recent Life Changes Questionnaire. How should the nurse evaluate this client data?
- The client is experiencing severe distress and is at risk for physical and psychological illness.
- A score of 110 on the Miller and Rahe Recent Life Changes Questionnaire indicates no significant threat of stress-related illness.
- Susceptibility to stress-related physical or psychological illness cannot be estimated without knowledge of coping resources and available supports.
- The client may view these losses as challenges and perceive them as opportunities.
ANS: C
The Recent Life Changes Questionnaire is an expanded version of the Schedule of Recent Experiences and the Rahe-Holmes Social Readjustment Rating Scale. A 6-month score of 300 or more, or a year-score total of 500 or more, indicates high stress in a client’s life. However, positive coping mechanisms and strong social support can limit susceptibility to stress-related illnesses.
KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Evaluation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
- A physically and emotionally healthy client has just been fired. During a routine office visit he states to a nurse: “Perhaps this was the best thing to happen. Maybe I’ll look into pursuing an art degree.” How should the nurse characterize the client’s appraisal of the job loss stressor?
- Irrelevant
- Harm/loss
- Threatening
- Challenging
ANS: D
The client perceives the situation of job loss as a challenge and an opportunity for growth.
KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Assessment | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
- Which client statement should alert a nurse that a client may be responding maladaptively to stress?
- “I’ve found that avoiding contact with others helps me cope.”
- “I really enjoy journaling; it’s my private time.”
- “I signed up for a yoga class this week.”
- “I made an appointment to meet with a therapist.”
ANS: A
Reliance on social isolation as a coping mechanism is a maladaptive method to relieve stress. It can prevent learning appropriate coping skills and can prevent access to needed support systems.
KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Evaluation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
- A nursing student finds that she comes down with a sinus infection toward the end of every semester. When this occurs, which stage of stress is the student most likely experiencing?
- Alarm reaction stage
- Stage of resistance
- Stage of exhaustion
- Fight-or-flight stage
ANS: C
At the stage of exhaustion, the student’s exposure to stress has been prolonged and adaptive energy has been depleted. Diseases of adaptation occur more frequently in this stage.
KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Assessment | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
- A school nurse is assessing a female high school student who is overly concerned about her appearance. The client’s mother states, “That’s not something to be stressed about!” Which is the most appropriate nursing response?
- “Teenagers! They don’t know a thing about real stress.”
- “Stress occurs only when there is a loss.”
- “When you are in poor physical condition, you can’t experience psychological well-being.”
- “Stress can be psychological. A threat to self-esteem may result in high stress levels.”
ANS: D
Stress can be physical or psychological in nature. A perceived threat to self-esteem can be as stressful as a physiological change.
KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Implementation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
- A bright student confides in the school nurse about conflicts related to attending college or working to add needed financial support to the family. Which coping strategy is most appropriate for the nurse to recommend to the student at this time?
- Meditation
- Problem-solving training
- Relaxation
- Journaling
ANS: B
The student must assess his or her situation and determine the best course of action. Problem-solving training, by providing structure and objectivity, can assist in decision making.
KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Implementation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
- An unemployed college graduate is experiencing severe anxiety over not finding a teaching position and has difficulty with independent problem-solving. During a routine physical examination, the graduate confides in the clinic nurse. Which is the most appropriate nursing intervention?
- Encourage the student to use the alternative coping mechanism of relaxation exercises.
- Complete the problem-solving process for the client.
- Work through the problem-solving process with the client.
- Encourage the client to keep a journal.
ANS: C
During times of high anxiety and stress, clients will need more assistance in problem-solving and decision making.
KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Implementation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
- A school nurse is assessing a distraught female high school student who is overly concerned because her parents can’t afford horseback riding lessons. How should the nurse interpret the student’s reaction to her perceived problem?
- The problem is endangering her well-being.
- The problem is personally relevant to her.
- The problem is based on immaturity.
- The problem is exceeding her capacity to cope.
ANS: B
Psychological stressors to self-esteem and self-image are related to how the individual perceives the situation or event. Self-image is of particular importance to adolescents, who feel entitled to have all the advantages that other adolescents experience.
KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Evaluation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
- Meditation has been shown to be an effective stress management technique. When meditation is effective, what should a nurse expect to assess?
- An achieved state of relaxation
- An achieved insight into one’s feelings
- A demonstration of appropriate role behaviors
- An enhanced ability to problem-solve
ANS: A
Meditation produces relaxation by creating a special state of consciousness through focused concentration.
KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Evaluation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
- A distraught, single, first-time mother cries and asks a nurse, “How can I go to work if I can’t afford childcare?” What is the nurse’s initial action in assisting the client with the problem-solving process?
- Determine the risks and benefits for each alternative.
- Formulate goals for resolution of the problem.
- Evaluate the outcome of the implemented alternative.
- Assess the facts of the situation.
ANS: D
Before any other steps can be taken, accurate information about the situation must be gathered and assessed.
KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Implementation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity |
Chapter 1
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. A nurse is educating a nursing student about nursing history. The nurse explains that throughout ancient history, nursing care was provided by family members and
| 1. |
Nurses. |
| 2. |
Physicians. |
| 3. |
Male priests. |
| 4. |
Female priests. |
____ 2. A nurse is teaching a student about the history of nursing. The nurse informs the student that in 1836, the first school of nursing was established in Kaiserworth, Germany, by
| 1. |
Jean Watson. |
| 2. |
Clara Barton. |
| 3. |
Theodor Fliedner. |
| 4. |
Florence Nightingale. |
____ 3. A nurse teaches a student nurse that in 1897, the Nurses Associated Alumnae of the United States was formed in an effort to
| 1. |
Set standards and rules in nursing education. |
| 2. |
Keep nurses aware of the newest medical information. |
| 3. |
Oversee training to protect patients from incompetent nurses. |
| 4. |
Keep nurses updated on the newest information about nursing education. |
____ 4. The purpose of the National League for Nursing is to
| 1. |
Set standards and rules in nursing education. |
| 2. |
Keep nurses aware of the newest medical information. |
| 3. |
Oversee training to protect patients from incompetent nurses. |
| 4. |
Keep nurses updated on the newest information about nursing education. |
____ 5. All states required practical nurses to be licensed in the year
| 1. |
1940. |
| 2. |
1945. |
| 3. |
1950. |
| 4. |
1955. |
____ 6. The title licensed practical nurse (LPN) is used in all states except California and
| 1. |
Texas. |
| 2. |
Maine. |
| 3. |
Alaska. |
| 4. |
Arizona. |
____ 7. The National Council Licensure Examination for Practical Nursing (NCLEX-PN) is
| 1. |
Taken in order to practice as a nurse. |
| 2. |
Given as an entrance examination for nursing school. |
| 3. |
Individualized based on where an examinee resides. |
| 4. |
Taken in order to practice as a certified nursing assistant (CNA). |
____ 8. A nurse recruiter is seeking a graduate nurse who has been educated more extensively on management and leadership. The graduate nurse who most likely fits this description is the
| 1. |
Diploma nurse. |
| 2. |
Associate degree nurse (ADN). |
| 3. |
Licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN). |
| 4. |
Baccalaureate degree nurse (BSN). |
____ 9. Which statement about the Nurse Practice Act is accurate?
| 1. |
The Nurse Practice Act clarifies who can supervise a physician. |
| 2. |
The Nurse Practice Act is the law that governs the actions of nurses. |
| 3. |
The Nurse Practice Act is determined by the National League of Nursing. |
| 4. |
The Nurse Practice Act specifies the tasks of the unlicensed assistive personnel. |
____ 10. A nurse educates a nursing student about the Nurse Practice Act. The nursing student demonstrates understanding when he or she states:
| 1. |
“The Nurse Practice Act is the same in every state.” |
| 2. |
“The Nurse Practice Act does not specify who can supervise a nurse.” |
| 3. |
“The Nurse Practice Act is determined by the American Nurses Association.” |
| 4. |
“The Nurse Practice Act establishes the scope of practice for each level of nurse.” |
____ 11. While caring for a patient, a nurse performs a nursing action that is not within his or her scope of practice. The nurse has violated the
| 1. |
Ethics Committee. |
| 2. |
Nurse Practice Act. |
| 3. |
State Department of Health. |
| 4. |
National League for Nursing Education. |
____ 12. The Nurse Practice Act is enforced by the
| 1. |
State Board of Nursing. |
| 2. |
County Health Department. |
| 3. |
State Department of Health. |
| 4. |
National League for Nursing. |
____ 13. A nurse is caring for a resident in a long-term setting. The nurse best demonstrates a caring approach when
| 1. |
Performing all activities of daily living for the resident. |
| 2. |
Asking the resident’s spouse to bring a family picture for the resident’s room. |
| 3. |
Answering the resident’s questions quickly without allowing time for clarification. |
| 4. |
Encouraging the resident’s spouse to decide which activities the resident should do. |
____ 14. A nurse is caring for multiple patients on a medical unit. The nurse can best practice the art of nursing with an emphasis on caring by
| 1. |
Providing identical care to each patient. |
| 2. |
Individualizing care provided to each patient. |
| 3. |
Viewing the patients in terms of a cellular disorder. |
| 4. |
Viewing the patients as seriously ill and needing a cure. |
____ 15. A nurse is educating a student nurse about the responsibilities of a student nurse. The nurse recognizes that additional teaching is needed when the student nurse states:
| 1. |
“I will check laboratory results for my patients often.” |
| 2. |
“I am responsible for noting abnormal assessment findings.” |
| 3. |
“I will frequently check the patient’s chart for diagnostic test results.” |
| 4. |
“It is not within my scope of practice to notify someone of abnormal findings.” |
____ 16. A nursing instructor teaches a student nurse about the importance of joining a professional organization. The nursing instructor recognizes that further instruction is necessary when the student nurse states,
| 1. |
“Professional organizations allow me to have a collective voice.” |
| 2. |
“Professional organizations limit my ability to influence laws and policies.” |
| 3. |
“Professional behavior is demonstrated by joining a professional organization.” |
| 4. |
“By joining a professional organization, I will have opportunities for leadership.” |
| LeMone & Burke's Medical-Surgical Nursing, 7e (Bauldoff/Gubrud/Carno)
Chapter 1 Medical-Surgical Nursing in the 21st Century
1) A patient is instructed on the role of diet, exercise, and medication to control type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which core competency for healthcare professionals is the nurse implementing?
- Quality improvement
- Evidence-based practice
- Patient-centered care
- Teamwork and collaboration
Answer: 3
Explanation: 1. Identifying safety hazards and measuring quality is an example of the core competency quality improvement.
- Using best research when providing patient care is an example of the core competency evidence-based practice.
- Patient teaching is an example of the competency patient-centered care.
- The core competency teamwork and collaboration involves collaboration between disciplines to provide continuous and reliable care.
Page Ref: 5
Cognitive Level: Applying
Client Need & Sub: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
Standards: QSEN Competencies: I.A.1. Integrate understanding of multiple dimensions of patient-centered care | AACN Essentials Competencies: IX.7. Provide appropriate patient teaching that reflects developmental stage, age, culture, spirituality, patient preferences, and health literacy considerations to foster patient engagement in their care | NLN Competencies: Relationship-Centered Care; Practice-Know-How; Communicate information effectively; listen openly and cooperatively | Nursing/Integrated Concepts: Nursing Process: Implementation/Teaching/Learning
Learning Outcome: 1.1 Describe the core competencies for healthcare professionals: Patient-centered care, interprofessional teams, evidence-based practice, quality improvement, safety, and health information technology.
MNL Learning Outcome: 1. Demonstrate use of the core competencies for healthcare professionals in nursing practice.
2) The nurse is planning to utilize the core competency use informatics when providing patient care. Which action should the nurse perform when using this core competency?
- Change the sharps container in a patient's room.
- Document the effectiveness of pain medication for a patient.
- Discuss the effectiveness of bedside physical therapy with the therapist.
- Search through a database of articles to find current research on wound care.
Answer: 4
Explanation: 1. Changing the sharps container is an example of quality improvement.
- Documenting the effectiveness of pain medication for a patient is an example of patient-centered care.
- Discussing the effectiveness of bedside physical therapy with the therapist is an example of teamwork and collaboration.
- Searching through a database of articles to find current research on wound care is an example of use informatics.
Page Ref: 5
Cognitive Level: Applying
Client Need & Sub: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
Standards: QSEN Competencies: VI.B.2. Apply technology and information management tools to support safe processes of care | AACN Essentials Competencies: IV.1. Demonstrate skills in using patient care technologies, information systems, and communication devices that support safe nursing practice | NLN Competencies: Knowledge and Science: Practice-Know-How: Retrieve research findings and other sources of information | Nursing/Integrated Concepts: | Chapter 01: Foundations of Maternity, Women’s Health, and Child Health Nursing
MULTIPLE CHOICE
- Which factor significantly contributed to the shift from home births to hospital births in the early 20th century?
| a. |
Puerperal sepsis was identified as a risk factor in labor and delivery. |
| b. |
Forceps were developed to facilitate difficult births. |
| c. |
The importance of early parental-infant contact was identified. |
| d. |
Technologic developments became available to physicians. |
ANS: D
Technologic developments were available to physicians, not lay midwives. So in-hospital births increased in order to take advantage of these advancements. Puerperal sepsis has been a known problem for generations. In the late 19th century, Semmelweis discovered how it could be prevented with improved hygienic practices. The development of forceps is an example of a technology advance made in the early 20th century but is not the only reason birthplaces moved. Unlike home births, early hospital births hindered bonding between parents and their infants.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remembering
REF: p. 1 OBJ: Integrated Process: Teaching-Learning
MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
- Family-centered maternity care developed in response to
| a. |
demands by physicians for family involvement in childbirth. |
| b. |
the Sheppard-Towner Act of 1921. |
| c. |
parental requests that infants be allowed to remain with them rather than in a nursery. |
| d. |
changes in pharmacologic management of labor. |
ANS: C
As research began to identify the benefits of early extended parent-infant contact, parents began to insist that the infant remain with them. This gradually developed into the practice of rooming-in and finally to family-centered maternity care. Family-centered care was a request by parents, not physicians. The Sheppard-Towner Act of 1921 provided funds for state-managed programs for mothers and children. The changes in pharmacologic management of labor were not a factor in family-centered maternity care.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remembering
REF: p. 2 OBJ: Integrated Process: Teaching-Learning
MSC: Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity
- Which setting for childbirth allows the least amount of parent-infant contact?
| a. |
Labor/delivery/recovery/postpartum room |
| b. |
Birth center |
| c. |
Traditional hospital birth |
| d. |
Home birth |
ANS: C
In the traditional hospital setting, the mother may see the infant for only short feeding periods, and the infant is cared for in a separate nursery. The labor/delivery/recovery/postpartum room setting allows increased parent-infant contact. Birth centers are set up to allow an increase in parent-infant contact. Home births allow an increase in parent-infant contact.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remembering
REF: p. 2 OBJ: Nursing Process: Planning
MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
- As a result of changes in health care delivery and funding, a current trend seen in the pediatric setting is
| a. |
increased hospitalization of children. |
| b. |
decreased number of children living in poverty. |
| c. |
an increase in ambulatory care. |
| d. |
decreased use of managed care. |
ANS: C
One effect of managed care has been that pediatric health care delivery has shifted dramatically from the acute care setting to the ambulatory setting in order to provide more cost-efficient care. The number of hospital beds being used has decreased as more care is given in outpatient settings and in the home. The number of children living in poverty has increased over the past decade. One of the biggest changes in health care has been the growth of managed care.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remembering
REF: p. 5 OBJ: Nursing Process: Planning
MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
- The Women, Infants, and Children (WIC) program provides
| a. |
well-child examinations for infants and children living at the poverty level. |
| b. |
immunizations for high-risk infants and children. |
| c. |
screening for infants with developmental disorders. |
| d. |
supplemental food supplies to low-income pregnant or breastfeeding women. |
ANS: D
WIC is a federal program that provides supplemental food supplies to low-income women who are pregnant or breastfeeding and to their children until age 5 years. Medicaid’s Early and Periodic Screening, Diagnosis, and Treatment Program provides for well-child examinations and for treatment of any medical problems diagnosed during such checkups. Children in the WIC program are often referred for immunizations, but that is not the primary focus of the program. Public Law 99-457 is part of the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act that provides financial incentives to states to establish comprehensive early intervention services for infants and toddlers with, or at risk for, developmental disabilities.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 8
OBJ: Integrated Process: Teaching-Learning
MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
- In most states, adolescents who are not emancipated minors must have the permission of their parents before
| a. |
treatment for drug abuse. |
| b. |
treatment for sexually transmitted diseases (STDs). |
| c. |
accessing birth control. |
| d. |
surgery. |
ANS: D
Minors are not considered capable of giving informed consent, so a surgical procedure would require consent of the parent or guardian. Exceptions exist for obtaining treatment for drug abuse or STDs or for getting birth control in most states.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remembering
REF: p. 17 OBJ: Nursing Process: Planning
MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
- The maternity nurse should have a clear understanding of the correct use of a clinical pathway. One characteristic of clinical pathways is that they
| a. |
are developed and implemented by nurses. |
| b. |
are used primarily in the pediatric setting. |
| c. |
set specific time lines for sequencing interventions. |
| d. |
are part of the nursing process. |
ANS: C
Clinical pathways are standardized, interdisciplinary plans of care devised for patients with a particular health problem. They are used to identify patient outcomes, specify time lines to achieve those outcomes, direct appropriate interventions and sequencing of interventions, include interventions from a variety of disciplines, promote collaboration, and involve a comprehensive approach to care. They are developed by multiple health care professionals and reflect interdisciplinary care. They can be used in multiple settings and for patients throughout the life span. They are not part of the nursing process but can be used in conjunction with the nursing process to provide care to patients.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remembering
REF: p. 7 OBJ: Nursing Process: Planning
MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
- The fastest growing group of homeless people is
| a. |
men and women preparing for retirement. |
| b. |
migrant workers. |
| c. |
single women and their children. |
| d. |
intravenous (IV) substance abusers. |
ANS: C
Pregnancy and birth, especially for a teenager, are important contributing factors for becoming homeless. People preparing for retirement, migrant workers, and IV substance abusers are not among the fastest growing groups of homeless people.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remembering
REF: p. 14 OBJ: Nursing Process: Assessment
MSC: Client Needs: Physiologic Integrity
- A nurse wishes to work to reduce infant mortality in the United States. Which activity would this nurse most likely participate in?
| a. |
Creating pamphlets in several different languages using an interpreter. |
| b. |
Assisting women to enroll in Medicaid by their third trimester. |
| c. |
Volunteering to provide prenatal care at community centers. |
| d. |
Working as an intake counselor at a women’s shelter. |
ANS: C
Prenatal care is vital to reducing infant mortality and medical costs. This nurse would most likely participate in community service providing prenatal care outreach activities in community centers, particularly in low-income areas. Pamphlets in other languages, enrolling in Medicaid, and working at a women’s shelter all might impact infant mortality, but the greatest effect would be from assisting women to get consistent prenatal care.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application/Applying
REF: p. 14 OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation
MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
- The intrapartum woman sees no need for a routine admission fetal monitoring strip. If she continues to refuse, what is the first action the nurse should take?
| a. |
Consult the family of the woman. |
| b. |
Notify the provider of the situation. |
| c. |
Document the woman’s refusal in the nurse’s notes. |
| d. |
Make a referral to the hospital ethics committee. |
ANS: B
Patients must be allowed to make choices voluntarily without undue influence or coercion from others. The physician, especially if unaware of the patient’s decision, should be notified immediately. Both professionals can work to ensure the mother understands the rationale for the action and the possible consequences of refusal. The woman herself is the decision-maker, unless incapacitated. Documentation should occur but is not the first action. This situation does not rise to the level of an ethical issue so there is no reason to call the ethics committee.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application/Applying
REF: p. 18 OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation
MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
- Which statement is true regarding the “quality assurance” or “incident” report?
| a. |
The report assures the legal department that no problem exists. |
| b. |
Reports are a permanent part of the patient’s chart. |
| c. |
The nurse’s notes should contain, “Incident report filed, and copy placed in chart.” |
| d. |
This report is a form of documentation of an event that may result in legal action. |
ANS: D
An incident report is used when something occurs that might result in legal action, such as a patient fall or medication error. It warns the legal department that there may be a problem in a particular patient’s care. Incident reports are not part of the patient’s chart; thus the nurses’ notes should not contain any reference to them.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remembering
REF: p. 18 OBJ: Integrated Process: Communication and Documentation
MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
- Elective abortion is considered an ethical issue because
| a. |
abortion law is unclear about a woman’s constitutional rights. |
| b. |
the Supreme Court ruled that life begins at conception. |
| c. |
a conflict exists between the rights of the woman and the rights of the fetus. |
| d. |
it requires third-party consent. |
ANS: C | Test Bank for Public Health Science and Nursing Practice Caring For Populations by Savage
Chapter 10: Mental Health
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
1.According to Healthy People 2020, which of the following are characteristics of mental health?
Select all that apply.
| A. |
Engaging in productive activities |
| B. |
Having fulfilling relationships |
| C. |
Experiencing alterations in thinking |
| D. |
Adapting to change |
| E. |
Coping with challenges |
ANS: A, B, D, E
Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders.
pp. 225-226
Heading: Introduction
Integrated Processes: N/A
Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
Cognitive Level: Knowledge [Remembering]
Concept: Promoting Health
Difficulty: Moderate
|
Feedback |
| 1. |
Mental health is a state of successful performance of mental function, including engagement in productive activities. |
| 2. |
Mental health is a state of successful performance of mental function, including being able to form fulfilling relationships with other people. |
| 3. |
This is incorrect; it is an example of a mental disorder. Mental disorders are health conditions that are characterized by alterations in thinking, mood, or behavior that are associated with distress or impaired functioning. |
| 4. |
Mental health is a state of successful performance of mental function, including the ability to adapt to change. |
| 5. |
Mental health is a state of successful performance of mental function, including the ability to cope with challenges. |
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health
MULTIPLE CHOICE
2.In 2010, approximately how many people in the United States reported experiencing mental disorders in the previous year?
| A. |
15% |
| B. |
50% |
| C. |
30% |
| D. |
25% |
ANS: D
Objective: 1. Define the burden of disease related to mental disorders using current epidemiological frameworks.
pp. 226-227
Heading: Epidemiology of Mental Disorders
Integrated Processes: N/A
Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
Cognitive Level: Comprehension [Understanding]
Concept: Promoting Health
Difficulty: Moderate
|
Feedback |
| A |
This is incorrect. In the United States in 2010 an estimated 25% of adults reported having mental disorders in the previous year. |
| B |
This is incorrect. In the United States in 2010 an estimated 25% of adults reported having mental disorders in the previous year. |
| C |
This is incorrect. In the United States in 2010 an estimated 25% of adults reported having mental disorders in the previous year. |
| D |
In the United States in 2010 an estimated 25% of adults reported having mental disorders in the previous year. |
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health
3.A student nurse is studying stress and mental health. The student nurse learns that ____ is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events.
| A. |
Intervention |
| B. |
Support |
| C. |
Resilience |
| D. |
Therapy |
ANS: C
Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders.
pp. 229-231
Heading: Protective Factors: Building Resilience
Integrated Processes: Teaching/Learning
Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
Cognitive Level: Application [Applying]
Concept: Trauma; Stress; Promoting Health; Nursing Roles
Difficulty: Moderate
|
Feedback |
| A |
This is incorrect. Resilience is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events. Preventive and treatment interventions are useful tools to build on an individual’s natural resilience to promote positive outcomes. |
| B |
This is incorrect. Resilience is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events. Support from family, friends, and community is an important part of strengthening an individual’s resilience. |
| C |
Resilience is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events. |
| D |
This is incorrect. Resilience is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events. Therapy is an important part of an overall treatment plan, in conjunction with intervention, support, and an individual’s capacity for resilience. |
PTS: 1 CON: Trauma | Stress | Promoting Health | Nursing Roles
4.____ addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder.
| A. |
Indicated prevention |
| B. |
Selective prevention |
| C. |
Universal prevention |
| D. |
Both 1 and 2 |
ANS: A
Objective: 4. Apply current evidence-based population level interventions to the prevention of mental disorders and the promotion of optimal mental health for communities and populations.
pp. 232-233
Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Institute of Medicine Model of Prevention
Integrated Processes: Nursing Process
Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
Cognitive Level: Comprehension [Understanding]
Concept: Promoting Health
Difficulty: Moderate
|
Feedback |
| A |
Indicated prevention addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder. The purpose of indicated techniques is to delay or reduce the severity of a mental disorder. |
| B |
Selective prevention includes interventions provided to specific subgroups that are known to be at high risk for mental disorders owing to biological, psychological, social, or environmental factors but that have not yet been diagnosed with mental disorders. High-risk subgroups include but are not limited to those with a family history of mental disorders, history of adverse childhood events, or victims of violence. |
| C |
Universal prevention refers to prevention interventions provided to the entire population, not just those who may be at risk. The interventions include but are not limited to public service announcements provided to the public at large through billboards, media messages (print and electronic), or general health education programs. |
| D |
Indicated prevention addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder. The purpose of indicated techniques is to delay or reduce the severity of a mental disorder. Selective prevention includes interventions provided to specific subgroups that are known to be at high risk for mental disorders owing to biological, psychological, social, or environmental factors but that have not yet been diagnosed with mental disorders. High-risk subgroups include but are not limited to those with a family history of mental disorders, history of adverse childhood events, or victims of violence. |
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health
5.The public health nurse (PHN) recognizes that which of the following are used as screening tools for depression?
| A. |
Patient Health Questionnaire 2 |
| B. |
Center for Epidemiological Studies Depression Scale (CESD-10) |
| C. |
Brief Symptom Checklist-18 of the My Mood Monitor (M-3) |
| D. |
Both 1 and 2 |
ANS: D
Objective: 5. Describe systems approaches to the promotion of mental health and the prevention and treatment of mental health disorders.
p. 232
Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Measure of Mental Health: Health-Related Quality of Life
Integrated Processes: Nursing Process
Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
Cognitive Level: Application [Applying]
Concept: Promoting Health; Mood; Assessment
Difficulty: Moderate
|
Feedback |
| A |
Tools to screen for depression include the Patient Health Questionnaire 2 and the CESD-10. |
| B |
Tools to screen for depression include the Patient Health Questionnaire 2 and the CESD-10. |
| C |
This is incorrect. Tools to screen for depression include the Patient Health Questionnaire 2 and the CESD-10. Screening tools for anxiety disorders include the Brief Symptom Checklist-18 of the My Mood Monitor (M-3). |
| D |
Tools to screen for depression include the Patient Health Questionnaire 2 and the CESD-10. |
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health | Mood | Assessment
6.During a course on mental disorders, a PHN learns that the term serious mental illness (SMI) refers to diagnosable mental disorders that may disrupt a person’s ability to function and may qualify that person for support services. The PHN also notes that the mental disorders that can lead to SMI include:
| A. |
Mild depression |
| B. |
Panic disorder |
| C. |
Schizophrenia |
| D. |
Both 2 and 3 |
ANS: D
Objective: 1. Define the burden of disease related to mental disorders using current epidemiological frameworks.
pp. 225-226
Heading: Introduction
Integrated Processes: Teaching/Learning
Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
Cognitive Level: Application [Applying]
Concept: Cognition; Mood; Stress; Promoting Health; Nursing Roles
Difficulty: Moderate
|
Feedback |
| A |
This is incorrect. Major depression, however, is one of the mental disorders that can lead to SMI. |
| B |
Both panic disorder and schizophrenia, among other mental disorders, can lead to SMI. |
| C |
Both schizophrenia and panic disorder, among other mental disorders, can lead to SMI. |
| D |
The mental disorders that can lead to SMI include major depression, panic disorder, schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD), post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), and borderline personality disorder. |
PTS: 1 CON: Cognition | Mood | Stress | Promoting Health | Nursing Roles
7.While studying the prevalence of mental health disorders worldwide, a PHN learns about the World Mental Health Survey, which is used to determine estimates of human capital costs and prevalence of mental disorders in a wide range of countries. The survey was developed by
| A. |
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) |
| B. |
The World Health Organization (WHO) |
| C. |
The Institute of Medicine (IOM) |
| D. |
The World Health Assembly |
ANS: B
Objective: 1. Define the burden of disease related to mental disorders using current epidemiological frameworks.
p. 227
Heading: Epidemiology of Mental Disorders > Surveillance of Mental Health Disorders
Integrated Processes: Teaching/Learning
Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
Cognitive Level: Application [Applying]
Concept: Promoting Health; Nursing Roles
Difficulty: Moderate
|
Feedback |
| A |
This is incorrect. WHO developed the World Mental Health Survey to estimate human capital costs and mental disorders prevalence on a global scale. The CDC conducts many types of surveys on the prevalence of mental disorders but the organization did not develop the World Mental Health Survey. |
| B |
The WHO developed the World Mental Health Survey to estimate human capital costs and mental disorders prevalence on a global scale. |
| C |
This is incorrect. WHO developed the World Mental Health Survey to estimate human capital costs and mental disorders prevalence on a global scale. The IOM is involved in screening for mental health disorders and addresses the need for appropriate behavioral health treatment in its report, Improving the Quality of Health Care for Mental and Substance-Use Conditions: Quality Chasm Series. |
| D |
This is incorrect. WHO developed the World Mental Health Survey to estimate human capital costs and mental disorders prevalence on a global scale. The World Health Assembly issued a resolution on mental health that aims to reduce the global burden of mental disorders and improve overall mental health worldwide. |
PTS: 1 CON: Promoting Health | Nursing Roles
8.Which ethnic group has the highest 12-month prevalence of a mental disorder?
| A. |
Hispanics |
| B. |
African Americans |
| C. |
Asian Americans |
| D. |
Non-Hispanic whites |
ANS: D
Objective: 1. Define the burden of disease related to mental disorders using current epidemiological frameworks.
pp. 227-228
Heading: Epidemiology of Mental Disorders > Prevalence of Mental Health Disorders
Integrated Processes: N/A
Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
Cognitive Level: Knowledge [Remembering]
Concept: Promoting Health
Difficulty: Moderate
|
Feedback |
| A |
This is incorrect. Non-Hispanic whites have the highest 12-month prevalence rate for mental disorders at 21% compared with 16% for Hispanics. |
| B |
This is incorrect. Non-Hispanic whites have the highest 12-month prevalence rate for mental disorders at 21% compared with 15% for African Americans. |
| C |
This is incorrect. Non-Hispanic whites have the highest 12-month prevalence rate for mental disorders at 21% compared with 9% for Asian Americans. |
| D |
Non-Hispanic whites have the highest 12-month prevalence rate for mental disorders at 21%. |
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health
9.A PHN learns in a behavioral health class that the relationship between physiology and mental health plays an important role in mental disorders. Which of the following physiological factors may contribute to the development of mental disorders?
| A. |
Conditions that affect brain chemistry, such as medication side effects or toxins |
| B. |
Physical trauma |
| C. |
1 and 2 |
| D. |
Unstable family life |
ANS: C
Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders.
pp. 228-229
Heading: Behavioral, Biological, Environmental, and Socioeconomic Risk Factors > Individual Level Risk Factors for Mental Disorders
Integrated Processes: Teaching/Learning
Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
Cognitive Level: Application [Application]
Concept: Cognition; Trauma; Promoting Health
Difficulty: Moderate
|
Feedback |
| A |
Both conditions that affect brain chemistry and physical trauma are the physiological factors that may contribute to the development of mental disorders. |
| B |
Both physical trauma and conditions that affect brain chemistry are physiological factors that may contribute to the development of mental disorders. |
| C |
Conditions that affect brain chemistry and physical trauma are two of the physiological factors that may contribute to the development of mental disorders. |
| D |
This is incorrect. Conditions that affect brain chemistry and physical trauma are two of the physiological factors that may contribute to the development of mental disorders. An unstable family life is not a physiological factor, although it may also contribute to the development of mental disorders. |
PTS:1CON:Cognition | Trauma | Promoting Health
10.Which of the following community environment factors play a role in the development of mental disorders?
| A. |
Living in high crime areas |
| B. |
Poverty |
| C. |
Both 1 and 2 |
| D. |
Family instability |
ANS: C
Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders.
p. 229
Heading: Behavioral, Biological, Environmental, and Socioeconomic Risk Factors > Community-Level Risk Factors for Mental Disorders
Integrated Processes: N/A
Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
Cognitive Level: Comprehension [Understanding]
Concept: Promoting Health
Difficulty: Easy
|
Feedback |
| A |
Living in high crime areas is a factor, along with poverty. |
| B |
Both poverty and living in high crime areas play a role in the development of mental disorders. |
| C |
Both poverty and living in high crime areas play a role in the development of mental disorders. |
| D |
This is incorrect. Although family instability often contributes to the development of mental disorders, it is not considered a community environment factor. |
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health
11.____ is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable.
| A. |
Indicated prevention |
| B. |
Stigma |
| C. |
Risk factors |
| D. |
Transinstitutionalization |
ANS: B
Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders.
pp. 231-232
Heading: Culture, Stigma, and Mental Health Disorders
Integrated Processes: N/A
Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
Cognitive Level: Comprehension [Understanding]
Concept: Promoting Health
Difficulty: Moderate
|
Feedback |
| A |
This is incorrect. Stigma is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable. Indicated prevention addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder. |
| B |
Stigma is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable. |
| C |
This is incorrect. Stigma is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable. Risk factors increase an individual’s chance of developing a mental disorder. |
| D |
This is incorrect. Stigma is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable. Transinstitutionalization refers to the growing number of mentally ill persons who are homeless, in jail, in shelters, or in other facilities instead of being home or in a hospital. |
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health
12.A nurse interested in working with persons with mental disorders who live in poverty understands that the most effective treatment involves multiple sectors of society, such as government agencies, grass roots groups, nonprofits, and businesses, working in tandem. This interrelationship is called:
| A. |
Indicated prevention |
| B. |
Intersectoral strategies |
| C. |
Health-Related Quality of Life |
| D. |
Institute of Medicine Model of Prevention |
ANS: B
Objective: 4. Apply current evidence-based population level interventions to the prevention of mental disorders and the promotion of optimal mental health for communities and populations.
p. 233
Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Promotion of Mental Health and Policy
Integrated Processes: Nursing Process
Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
Cognitive Level: Application [Applying]
Concept: Promoting Health; Collaboration
Difficulty: Moderate
|
Feedback |
| A |
This is incorrect. Intersectoral strategies engage more than one sector of society with a shared interest such as government agencies, grass roots citizens groups, nonprofits, and businesses. Indicated prevention addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder. |
| B |
Intersectoral strategies engage more than one sector of society with a shared interest such as government agencies, grass roots citizens groups, nonprofits, and businesses. |
| C |
This is incorrect. Intersectoral strategies engage more than one sector of society with a shared interest such as government agencies, grass roots citizens groups, nonprofits, and businesses. Health-Related Quality of Life is the self-perceived impact of physical and emotional health on overall quality of life. |
| D |
This is incorrect. Intersectoral strategies engage more than one sector of society with a shared interest such as government agencies, grass roots citizens groups, nonprofits, and businesses. The Institute of Medicine Model of Prevention is a framework for mental disorders that clearly separates prevention into three categories with specific interventions at each level. |
PTS: 1 CON: Promoting Health | Collaboration
13.A recent graduate nurse working in an urban labor and delivery unit had a patient who experienced a difficult labor. The mother, suffering from postpartum depression (PPD), committed suicide a year after giving birth. Although the nurse knew the basics about PPD, the nurse immediately studied the condition in depth and learned that PPD:
| A. |
Can be triggered by a massive hormone drop following delivery |
| B. |
Can intensify to cause delusions |
| C. |
Occurs soon after delivery |
| D. |
All of the above |
ANS: D
Objective: 4. Apply current evidence-based population level interventions to the prevention of mental disorders and the promotion of optimal mental health for communities and populations.
pp. 233-235
Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Secondary Prevention: Screening for Mental Disorders
Integrated Processes: Nursing Process
Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
Cognitive Level: Application [Applying]
Concept: Pregnancy; Mood; Violence; Promoting Health; Nursing Roles
Difficulty: Moderate
|
Feedback |
| A |
PPD can be triggered by a massive post-delivery hormone drop, intensify enough to cause delusions, and occur soon after delivery. |
| B |
PPD can be triggered by a massive post-delivery hormone drop, intensify enough to cause delusions, and occur soon after delivery. |
| C |
PPD can be triggered by a massive post-delivery hormone drop, intensify enough to cause delusions, and occur soon after delivery. |
| D |
PPD can be triggered by a massive post-delivery hormone drop, intensify enough to cause delusions, and occur soon after delivery. |
PTS: 1 CON: Pregnancy | Mood | Violence | Promoting Health | Nursing Roles
14.A nurse working in labor and delivery requested permission from the nurse manager to conduct a quality improvement project to screen patients that might be susceptible to PPD. After completing the project, which of the following screening guidelines did the unit incorporate?
| A. |
All patients will be screened for PPD when they are admitted to the labor and delivery unit. |
| B. |
Patients at high risk are referred to the attending obstetrician. |
| C. |
Before being discharged, all new mothers will complete a questionnaire specific to PPD symptoms. |
| D. |
All of the above |
ANS: D
Objective: Apply current evidence-based population level interventions to the prevention of mental disorders and the promotion of optimal mental health for communities and populations.
pp. 233-235
Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Secondary Prevention: Screening for Mental Disorders
Integrated Processes: Nursing Process
Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
Cognitive Level: Application [Applying]
Concept: Pregnancy; Mood; Promoting Health; Assessment; Quality Improvement
Difficulty: Moderate
|
Feedback |
| A |
This is incorrect. Screening, high-risk referrals to the attending obstetrician and completion of a PPD symptom questionnaire were all incorporated. |
| B |
This is incorrect. Screening, high-risk referrals to the attending obstetrician and completion of a PPD symptom questionnaire were all incorporated. |
| C |
This is incorrect. Screening, high-risk referrals to the attending obstetrician and completion of a PPD symptom questionnaire were all incorporated. |
| D |
Screening, high-risk referrals to the attending obstetrician and completion of a PPD symptom questionnaire were all incorporated. |
PTS:1
CON: Pregnancy | Mood | Promoting Health | Assessment | Quality Improvement
15.A PHN treats a patient who may be depressed. To verify suspicions, the PHN checks ____, the definitive clinical guide for diagnosing mental disorders and providing consistency and accuracy in the screening for mental disorders.
| A. |
The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5) |
| B. |
The Center for Epidemiological Studies Depression Scale (CESD-10) |
| C. |
Patient Health Questionnaire 2 |
| D. |
Brief System Checklist-18 of the My Mood Monitor |
ANS: A |
