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Test Bank for Community Health Nursing in Canada 3rd Edition by Stanhope

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Test Bank Community Health Nursing in Canada, 3rd Edition by Marcia Stanhope

Chapter 01: Community Health Nursing

Stanhope: Community Health Nursing in Canada, 3rd Canadian Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1.   Which of the following best describes community health nursing?

a. Giving care with a focus on the aggregate’s needs
b. Giving care with a focus on the group’s needs
c. Focusing on the health care of individual clients in the community
d. Working with an approach of unique client care

ANS:  C

By definition, community health nursing is the health care of individual clients in the community.

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remember                         REF:   p. 3

OBJ:   1.6

TOP:   Client Need: Safe and Effective Care Environment – Management of Care

2.   Which of the following best describes primary health care?

a. A comprehensive way to address issues of social justice
b. Giving the care to manage acute or chronic conditions
c. Giving direct care to ill individuals within their family setting
d. Having the goal of health promotion and disease prevention

ANS:  A

By definition, primary health care is comprehensive and addresses issues of social justice and equity. Social justice in the context of health refers to ensuring fairness and equality in health services so that vulnerable individuals in society have easy access to health care.

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remember                         REF:   p. 10

OBJ:   1.4                 TOP:   Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance

3.   The health of which of the following is the primary focus of public health nurses (PHNs)?

a. Families
b. Groups
c. Individuals
d. Populations

ANS:  D

PHNs use knowledge of nursing, social sciences, and public health sciences for the promotion and protection of health and for the prevention of disease among populations.

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remember                         REF:   p. 13, Table 1-4 | p. 20

OBJ:   1.5                 TOP:   Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance

4.   Which change is the primary explanation for life expectancy increasing so notably since the early 1900s?

a. An increase in findings from medical laboratory research
b. Incredible advances in surgical techniques and procedures
c. Improved sanitation and other public health activities
d. Increased use of antibiotics to fight infections

ANS:  C

Improvement in control of infectious diseases through immunizations, sanitation, and other public health activities led to the increase in life expectancy since the early 1900s.

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remember                         REF:   pp. 12-13

OBJ:   1.5                 TOP:   Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance

5.   Which community health nursing practice area receives funding from the private sector?

a. Telenurses
b. Corrections nurses
c. Nurse entrepreneurs
d. Street or outreach nurses

ANS:  C

The nurse entrepreneur receives private funding, whereas all of the other community health nurse (CHN) roles are with provincially or federally funded positions.

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remember                         REF:   p. 22, Table 1-4 Examples

OBJ:   1.6

TOP:   Client Need: Safe and Effective Care Environment – Management of Care

6.   A PHN strives to prevent disease and disability, often in partnership with other community groups. Which statement is an appropriate summary of the PHN’s role?

a. The PHN asks the political leaders what interventions should be chosen.
b. The PHN assesses the community and decides on appropriate interventions.
c. The PHN uses data from the main health care institutions in the community to determine needed health services.
d. The PHN works with community members to carry out public health functions.

ANS:  D

It is crucial that the PHN work with members of the community to carry out core public health functions.

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Application/Apply                                          REF:    p. 13, How To box

OBJ:   1.5                 TOP:   Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance

7.   Which of the following is used as a measurement of population health?

a. Health status indicators
b. The levels of prevention
c. The number of memberships at the local fitness centre
d. Reported provincial alcohol and tobacco sales in any given month

ANS:  A

Population health refers to the health outcomes of a population as measured by determinants of health and health outcomes.

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remember                         REF:   p. 16

OBJ:   1.2                 TOP:   Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance

8.   A registered nurse (RN), has just been employed as a CHN. Which question would be most relevant to her practice as she begins her position?

a. “Which community groups are at greatest risk for problems?”
b. “Which patients should I see first as I begin my day?”
c. “With which physicians will I be collaborating most closely?”
d. “Who is the nursing assistant to whom I can refer patients?”

ANS:  A

CHNs apply the nursing process to the entire community; asking which groups are at greatest risk reflects a community-oriented perspective. The other possible responses focus on particular individuals.

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Application/Apply                                          REF:    p. 15

OBJ:   1.6                 TOP:   Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance

9.   The CHN working with women at the senior citizens’ centre reminds them that the only way the centre will be able to afford a driver and a van service for those who cannot drive themselves is to continue to write letters to their local city council representatives, requesting funding for such a service. What is the CHN doing?

a. Ensuring that the women do not expect the CHN herself to do anything about their problem
b. Demonstrating that she understands the women’s concerns and needs
c. Expressing empathy, support, and concern
d. Helping the women engage in political action locally

ANS:  D

CHNs have an imperative to work with the members of the community to carry out public health functions such as political action.

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Application/Apply                                          REF:    p. 13, How To box

OBJ:   1.5 | 1.6

TOP:   Client Need: Safe and Effective Care Environment – Management of Care

10.   Which activity is an example of the “advocate” role of the CHN?

a. Organizing home care support for a newly discharged older adult client
b. Acting as a member of a community action group for provision of accessible transit choices
c. Doing prenatal assessments
d. Facilitating a self-help group for smoking cessation

ANS:  B

An advocate provides a voice to client concerns when acting as a member of a community action group for provision of accessible transit choices.

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Application/Apply                                          REF:    p. 19, Table 1-3

OBJ:   1.6

TOP:   Client Need: Safe and Effective Care Environment – Management of Care

11.   In which scenario is the PHN most comprehensively fulfilling collaborative practice responsibilities?

a. The PHN meets with several groups about community recreation issues.
b. The PHN spends the day attending meetings at various health agencies.
c. The PHN talks to several people about their particular health concerns.
d. The PHN watches television, including a telecast of a city council meeting on the local cable station.

ANS:  B

Any of these might represent a PHN communicating, cooperating, or collaborating with community residents or groups about health concerns. However, the PHN who spends the day attending meetings at various health agencies is most comprehensively fulfilling requirements effectively, since health is broader than recreation, individual concerns are not as important as aggregate priorities, and watching television is only one-way communication.

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Synthesis/Synthesize                            REF:   pp. 15-16

OBJ:   1.5

TOP:   Client Need: Safe and Effective Care Environment – Management of Care

12.   A CHN often has to make resource allocation decisions. In such cases, which approach will most help the CHN to arrive at the decision?

a. Choosing a moral or ethical principle
b. Choosing the cheapest, most economical approach
c. Choosing the most rational outcome
d. Choosing the needs of the aggregate, rather than the needs of a few individuals

ANS:  D

Although all of the answers represent components of the CHN’s decision-making process, the predominant needs of the population outweigh the expressed needs of one person or a few people.

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Application/Apply                                          REF:    pp. 7-8

OBJ:   1.3

TOP:   Client Need: Safe and Effective Care Environment – Management of Care

13.   Which situation most closely represents the focus of public health nursing?

a. Assessing the services and effectiveness of the school health clinic
b. Caring for patients after their outpatient surgeries
c. Giving care to schoolchildren at the school clinic and to the children’s families
d. Treating paediatric patients at an outpatient clinic

ANS:  A

A public health or population-focused approach would consider the entire group of children receiving care, to see if services are effective in achieving the goal of improving the health of the school population.

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Application/Apply                                          REF:    p. 13, How To box

OBJ:   1.5                 TOP:   Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance

14.   Which public health service best represents primary prevention?

a. Developing a health education program about the dangers of smoking
b. Providing a diabetes clinic for adults in low-income neighbourhoods
c. Providing an influenza vaccination program in a community retirement village
d. Teaching school-aged children about the positive effects of exercise

ANS:  C

Although all the services listed are appropriate and valuable, providing influenza vaccines to healthy adults represents the primary level of health prevention.

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Application/Apply                                          REF:    p. 14

OBJ:   1.5                 TOP:   Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance

15.   What term is used interchangeably with the term subpopulations?

a. Groups
b. Aggregates
c. Clients
d. Communities

ANS:  B

Generally, subpopulations are referred to as aggregates within the larger community population.

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remember                         REF:   p. 16

OBJ:   1.2                 TOP:   Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance

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DescriptionBy: Stanhope Edition: 3rd Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadBy: Bauldoff Edition: 7th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadBy: Wilkinson Edition: 3rd Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadBy: Urden Edition: 8th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadBy: Murray, McKinney Edition: 6th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadBy: Willihnganz Edition: 18th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant Download
Content

Test Bank Community Health Nursing in Canada, 3rd Edition by Marcia Stanhope

Chapter 01: Community Health Nursing

Stanhope: Community Health Nursing in Canada, 3rd Canadian Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1.   Which of the following best describes community health nursing?
a. Giving care with a focus on the aggregate’s needs
b. Giving care with a focus on the group’s needs
c. Focusing on the health care of individual clients in the community
d. Working with an approach of unique client care
ANS:  C By definition, community health nursing is the health care of individual clients in the community. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remember                         REF:   p. 3 OBJ:   1.6 TOP:   Client Need: Safe and Effective Care Environment - Management of Care 2.   Which of the following best describes primary health care?
a. A comprehensive way to address issues of social justice
b. Giving the care to manage acute or chronic conditions
c. Giving direct care to ill individuals within their family setting
d. Having the goal of health promotion and disease prevention
ANS:  A By definition, primary health care is comprehensive and addresses issues of social justice and equity. Social justice in the context of health refers to ensuring fairness and equality in health services so that vulnerable individuals in society have easy access to health care. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remember                         REF:   p. 10 OBJ:   1.4                 TOP:   Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance 3.   The health of which of the following is the primary focus of public health nurses (PHNs)?
a. Families
b. Groups
c. Individuals
d. Populations
ANS:  D PHNs use knowledge of nursing, social sciences, and public health sciences for the promotion and protection of health and for the prevention of disease among populations. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remember                         REF:   p. 13, Table 1-4 | p. 20 OBJ:   1.5                 TOP:   Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance 4.   Which change is the primary explanation for life expectancy increasing so notably since the early 1900s?
a. An increase in findings from medical laboratory research
b. Incredible advances in surgical techniques and procedures
c. Improved sanitation and other public health activities
d. Increased use of antibiotics to fight infections
ANS:  C Improvement in control of infectious diseases through immunizations, sanitation, and other public health activities led to the increase in life expectancy since the early 1900s. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remember                         REF:   pp. 12-13 OBJ:   1.5                 TOP:   Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance 5.   Which community health nursing practice area receives funding from the private sector?
a. Telenurses
b. Corrections nurses
c. Nurse entrepreneurs
d. Street or outreach nurses
ANS:  C The nurse entrepreneur receives private funding, whereas all of the other community health nurse (CHN) roles are with provincially or federally funded positions. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remember                         REF:   p. 22, Table 1-4 Examples OBJ:   1.6 TOP:   Client Need: Safe and Effective Care Environment - Management of Care 6.   A PHN strives to prevent disease and disability, often in partnership with other community groups. Which statement is an appropriate summary of the PHN’s role?
a. The PHN asks the political leaders what interventions should be chosen.
b. The PHN assesses the community and decides on appropriate interventions.
c. The PHN uses data from the main health care institutions in the community to determine needed health services.
d. The PHN works with community members to carry out public health functions.
ANS:  D It is crucial that the PHN work with members of the community to carry out core public health functions. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Application/Apply                                          REF:    p. 13, How To box OBJ:   1.5                 TOP:   Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance 7.   Which of the following is used as a measurement of population health?
a. Health status indicators
b. The levels of prevention
c. The number of memberships at the local fitness centre
d. Reported provincial alcohol and tobacco sales in any given month
ANS:  A Population health refers to the health outcomes of a population as measured by determinants of health and health outcomes. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remember                         REF:   p. 16 OBJ:   1.2                 TOP:   Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance 8.   A registered nurse (RN), has just been employed as a CHN. Which question would be most relevant to her practice as she begins her position?
a. “Which community groups are at greatest risk for problems?”
b. “Which patients should I see first as I begin my day?”
c. “With which physicians will I be collaborating most closely?”
d. “Who is the nursing assistant to whom I can refer patients?”
ANS:  A CHNs apply the nursing process to the entire community; asking which groups are at greatest risk reflects a community-oriented perspective. The other possible responses focus on particular individuals. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Application/Apply                                          REF:    p. 15 OBJ:   1.6                 TOP:   Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance 9.   The CHN working with women at the senior citizens’ centre reminds them that the only way the centre will be able to afford a driver and a van service for those who cannot drive themselves is to continue to write letters to their local city council representatives, requesting funding for such a service. What is the CHN doing?
a. Ensuring that the women do not expect the CHN herself to do anything about their problem
b. Demonstrating that she understands the women’s concerns and needs
c. Expressing empathy, support, and concern
d. Helping the women engage in political action locally
ANS:  D CHNs have an imperative to work with the members of the community to carry out public health functions such as political action. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Application/Apply                                          REF:    p. 13, How To box OBJ:   1.5 | 1.6 TOP:   Client Need: Safe and Effective Care Environment - Management of Care 10.   Which activity is an example of the “advocate” role of the CHN?
a. Organizing home care support for a newly discharged older adult client
b. Acting as a member of a community action group for provision of accessible transit choices
c. Doing prenatal assessments
d. Facilitating a self-help group for smoking cessation
ANS:  B An advocate provides a voice to client concerns when acting as a member of a community action group for provision of accessible transit choices. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Application/Apply                                          REF:    p. 19, Table 1-3 OBJ:   1.6 TOP:   Client Need: Safe and Effective Care Environment - Management of Care 11.   In which scenario is the PHN most comprehensively fulfilling collaborative practice responsibilities?
a. The PHN meets with several groups about community recreation issues.
b. The PHN spends the day attending meetings at various health agencies.
c. The PHN talks to several people about their particular health concerns.
d. The PHN watches television, including a telecast of a city council meeting on the local cable station.
ANS:  B Any of these might represent a PHN communicating, cooperating, or collaborating with community residents or groups about health concerns. However, the PHN who spends the day attending meetings at various health agencies is most comprehensively fulfilling requirements effectively, since health is broader than recreation, individual concerns are not as important as aggregate priorities, and watching television is only one-way communication. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Synthesis/Synthesize                            REF:   pp. 15-16 OBJ:   1.5 TOP:   Client Need: Safe and Effective Care Environment - Management of Care 12.   A CHN often has to make resource allocation decisions. In such cases, which approach will most help the CHN to arrive at the decision?
a. Choosing a moral or ethical principle
b. Choosing the cheapest, most economical approach
c. Choosing the most rational outcome
d. Choosing the needs of the aggregate, rather than the needs of a few individuals
ANS:  D Although all of the answers represent components of the CHN’s decision-making process, the predominant needs of the population outweigh the expressed needs of one person or a few people. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Application/Apply                                          REF:    pp. 7-8 OBJ:   1.3 TOP:   Client Need: Safe and Effective Care Environment - Management of Care 13.   Which situation most closely represents the focus of public health nursing?
a. Assessing the services and effectiveness of the school health clinic
b. Caring for patients after their outpatient surgeries
c. Giving care to schoolchildren at the school clinic and to the children’s families
d. Treating paediatric patients at an outpatient clinic
ANS:  A A public health or population-focused approach would consider the entire group of children receiving care, to see if services are effective in achieving the goal of improving the health of the school population. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Application/Apply                                          REF:    p. 13, How To box OBJ:   1.5                 TOP:   Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance 14.   Which public health service best represents primary prevention?
a. Developing a health education program about the dangers of smoking
b. Providing a diabetes clinic for adults in low-income neighbourhoods
c. Providing an influenza vaccination program in a community retirement village
d. Teaching school-aged children about the positive effects of exercise
ANS:  C Although all the services listed are appropriate and valuable, providing influenza vaccines to healthy adults represents the primary level of health prevention. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Application/Apply                                          REF:    p. 14 OBJ:   1.5                 TOP:   Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance 15.   What term is used interchangeably with the term subpopulations?
a. Groups
b. Aggregates
c. Clients
d. Communities
ANS:  B Generally, subpopulations are referred to as aggregates within the larger community population. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remember                         REF:   p. 16 OBJ:   1.2                 TOP:   Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance

LeMone & Burke's Medical-Surgical Nursing, 7e (Bauldoff/Gubrud/Carno)

Chapter 1   Medical-Surgical Nursing in the 21st Century

  1) A patient is instructed on the role of diet, exercise, and medication to control type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which core competency for healthcare professionals is the nurse implementing?
  1. Quality improvement
  2. Evidence-based practice
  3. Patient-centered care
  4. Teamwork and collaboration
Answer:  3 Explanation:  1. Identifying safety hazards and measuring quality is an example of the core competency quality improvement.
  1. Using best research when providing patient care is an example of the core competency evidence-based practice.
  2. Patient teaching is an example of the competency patient-centered care.
  3. The core competency teamwork and collaboration involves collaboration between disciplines to provide continuous and reliable care.
Page Ref: 5 Cognitive Level:  Applying Client Need & Sub:  Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care Standards:  QSEN Competencies: I.A.1. Integrate understanding of multiple dimensions of patient-centered care | AACN Essentials Competencies: IX.7. Provide appropriate patient teaching that reflects developmental stage, age, culture, spirituality, patient preferences, and health literacy considerations to foster patient engagement in their care | NLN Competencies: Relationship-Centered Care; Practice-Know-How; Communicate information effectively; listen openly and cooperatively | Nursing/Integrated Concepts: Nursing Process: Implementation/Teaching/Learning Learning Outcome:  1.1 Describe the core competencies for healthcare professionals: Patient-centered care, interprofessional teams, evidence-based practice, quality improvement, safety, and health information technology. MNL Learning Outcome:  1. Demonstrate use of the core competencies for healthcare professionals in nursing practice.    

2) The nurse is planning to utilize the core competency use informatics when providing patient care. Which action should the nurse perform when using this core competency?

  1. Change the sharps container in a patient's room.
  2. Document the effectiveness of pain medication for a patient.
  3. Discuss the effectiveness of bedside physical therapy with the therapist.
  4. Search through a database of articles to find current research on wound care.
Answer:  4 Explanation:  1. Changing the sharps container is an example of quality improvement.
  1. Documenting the effectiveness of pain medication for a patient is an example of patient-centered care.
  2. Discussing the effectiveness of bedside physical therapy with the therapist is an example of teamwork and collaboration.
  3. Searching through a database of articles to find current research on wound care is an example of use informatics.
Page Ref: 5 Cognitive Level:  Applying Client Need & Sub:  Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care Standards:  QSEN Competencies: VI.B.2. Apply technology and information management tools to support safe processes of care | AACN Essentials Competencies: IV.1. Demonstrate skills in using patient care technologies, information systems, and communication devices that support safe nursing practice | NLN Competencies: Knowledge and Science: Practice-Know-How: Retrieve research findings and other sources of information | Nursing/Integrated Concepts:

Test Bank for Fundamentals of Nursing 3rd Edition by Wilkinson

Chapter 1. Evolution of Nursing Thought & Action MULTIPLE CHOICE
  1. Which of the following is an example of an illness prevention activity?
a. Encouraging the use of a food diary
b. Joining a cancer support group
c. Administering immunization for HPV
d. Teaching a diabetic patient about his diet
ANS:  C Administering immunization for HPV is an example of illness prevention. Although cancer is a disease, it is assumed that a person joining a support group would already have the disease; therefore, it would be treatment and not disease prevention. Illness prevention activities focus on avoiding a specific disease. A food diary is a health promotion activity. Teaching a diabetic patient about diet is a treatment for diabetes; the patient already has diabetes, so the teaching cannot prevent diabetes. Difficulty: Moderate Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance Cognitive Level: Application Page 15 PTS:   1
  1. Which organization can require nurses to take continuing education courses as a condition of licensure renewal?
a. American Nurses Association
b. National League for Nursing
c. Sigma Theta Tau
d. State Board of Nursing
ANS:  D Continuing education is a professional strategy designed to ensure that nurses remain current in their clinical knowledge. Many states require nurses to engage in a certain number of continuing-education requirements to renew their license. The knowledge gained in the nursing curriculum is sufficient for nursing school graduates to obtain their initial license. Requirements for renewal of a nurse’s license can be found in the state’s nurse practice act (state board of nursing). Difficulty: Difficult Cognitive Level: Analysis Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance Cognitive Level: Application Page 11 PTS:   1
  1. An experienced seasoned nurse uses her knowledge of patient medical conditions and intuition to identify patient problems. She is often the resource for other nurses on the unit. What stage of proficiency has this nurse achieved?
a. Novice
b. Advanced beginner
c. Competent
d. Expert
ANS:  D The nurse who has reached the expert stage of proficiency has a deep understanding of the clinical situation based on knowledge and experience. The nurse often senses a potential problem in the absence of classic signs and symptoms. The novice nurse is inexperienced and relies on rules and processes. The advanced beginner focuses on aspects of a situation and is unable to see the comprehensive perspective. A nurse functioning at the competent level is able to prioritize to meet the patient needs but does not fully grasp the total situation. Difficulty: Moderate Cognitive Level: Comprehension Pages 11-12 PTS:   1
  1. Which of the following best explains the importance of standards of practice?
a. Nurses and other healthcare providers have the same standards of practice.
b. Standard of practice only apply to nurses who work in hospital settings.
c. Standards of practice identify the knowledge, skills, and attitudes nurses need to provide safe care.
d. Standards of practice differ among registered nurses because the roles are different based on the population they serve.
ANS:  C Standards of practice are authoritative statements of the duties that all registered nurses, regardless of role, population, or specialty, are expected to perform competently. Standards are derived from several sources, including professional organizations and healthcare facilities’ policies and procedures. Difficulty: Moderate Cognitive Level: Application Pages 12-13 PTS:   1
  1. What is the primary goal of the National League for Nursing?
a. Advocate for the needs of registered nurses to promote patient safety
b. Establish and maintain standards for nursing education
c. Support global health policies and improve health worldwide
d. Foster nursing scholarship, leadership, and service to improve health worldwide
ANS:  B The National League for Nursing (NLN) was founded to establish and maintain a universal standard of nursing education. The NLN focuses on faculty development in nursing education programs and is the voice for nursing education. Difficulty: Moderate Cognitive Level: Application Page 14   PTS:   1
  1. A patient who requires long-term rehabilitation needs which type of care?
a. Primary care
b. Secondary care
c. Tertiary care
d. Preventive care
ANS:  C Tertiary care is required for individuals who need long-term care or for those who are dying. Difficulty: Easy Cognitive Level: Knowledge Page 18 PTS:   1
  1. An elderly patient is covered under Medicare. She is scheduled for discharge and tells the nursing student that several therapists will come to her home to help her regain functional abilities. The patient then asks, “Why can’t I just stay in the hospital and receive this type of care?” What is the nursing student’s best response?
a. “You should be able to stay in the hospital. I will ask the nurse to call your doctor.”
b. “Once you have reached your reimbursable length of stay and your condition is stable, it is more cost effective to provide you with home healthcare.”
c. “Medicare is a type of managed care, which mean that you are only allowed to stay in the hospital for a certain number of days before being discharged, regardless of your condition.”
d. “You should be glad to be in your own home. You will recover in no time.”
ANS:  B Home healthcare services are provided to patients who still require skilled care but are discharged from the hospital because the reimbursable length-of-stay has expired. The patient is stable and can receive provider services at home. It would be incorrect and misleading to tell the patient she “should be able to stay in the hospital.” It would be incorrect to tell the patient she is allowed only “a certain number of days before being discharged,” because the patient’s condition is a factor in determining whether the patient can be discharged from the hospital. Telling the patient that she should be glad to be going home is a form of closed communication and does not address her question. Difficulty: Moderate

Test Bank For Critical Care Nursing 8th Edition By Urden

Sample Questions 

Chapter 04: Genetic Issues Urden: Critical Care Nursing, 8th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE
  1. What is a genetic variant that exists in greater than 1% of the population termed?
a. Genetic mutation
b. Genetic polymorphism
c. Genetic deletion
d. Tandem repeat
ANS:  B When a genetic variant occurs frequently and is present in 1% or more of the population, it is described as a genetic polymorphism. The term genetic mutation refers to a change in the DNA genetic sequence that can be inherited that occurs in less than 1% of the population. Genetic material in the chromosome can also be deleted and new information from another chromosome can be inserted or can be a tandem repeat (multiple repeats of the same sequence). PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Remembering      REF:   p. 43 OBJ:   Nursing Process Step: General        TOP:   Genetics in Critical Care MSC:  NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance
  1. Which type of genetic disorder occurs when there is an interaction between genetic and environmental factors such as that which occurs with type 2 diabetes?
a. Chromosome
b. Mitochondrial
c. Multifactorial disorders
d. Allele dysfunction
ANS:  C In multifactorial disorders there is an interaction between vulnerable genes and the environment. Cardiovascular atherosclerotic diseases and type 2 diabetes are examples of multifactorial disorders that result from an interaction of genetic and environmental factors. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Understanding     REF:   p. 46 OBJ:   Nursing Process Step: General        TOP:   Genetics in Critical Care MSC:  NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance
  1. Prader-Willi syndrome (PWS) is a rare genetic disorder in which genes on chromosome 15 (q11.2-13) are deleted. What type of disorder is PWS?
a. Chromosome disorder
b. Mitochondrial disorder
c. Complex gene disorder
d. Multifactorial disorder
ANS:  A Prader-Willi syndrome (PWS) is a chromosome disorder as a result of several missing genes on chromosome 15. In chromosome disorders, the entire chromosome or very large segments of the chromosome are damaged, missing, duplicated, or otherwise altered. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Applying              REF:   p. 45 OBJ:   Nursing Process Step: General        TOP:   Genetics in Critical Care MSC:  NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance
  1. A family pedigree is used to determine whether a disease has a genetic component. What does a proband indicate in a family pedigree?
a. The disease being mother related or father related
b. The first person in the family who was diagnosed with the disorder
c. Who in the family is the xy band
d. The disease genotype including locus
ANS:  B For nurses, it is important to ask questions that elucidate which family members are affected versus those who are unaffected and then to identify the individuals who may carry the gene in question but who do not have symptoms (carriers). The proband is the name given to the first person diagnosed in the family pedigree. Homozygous versus heterozygous determines if the disorder is carried by a gene from one or both parents. The xy band determines if the disorder is carried through the sex genes. A disease locus is the genetic address of the disorder. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Remembering      REF:   p. 46 OBJ:   Nursing Process Step: General        TOP:   Genetics in Critical Care MSC:  NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance
  1. Philadelphia translocation is a specific chromosomal abnormality that occurs from a reciprocal translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22, where parts of these two chromosomes switch places. This abnormality is associated with which disease?
a. Hemophilia A
b. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
c. Obesity
d. Marfan syndrome
ANS:  B Philadelphia chromosome or Philadelphia translocation is a specific chromosomal abnormality associated with chronic myelogenous leukemia. It occurs from a reciprocal translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22, where parts of these two chromosomes switch places. Hemophilia A is a sex-linked inheritance. Obesity is being studied with the FTO gene on chromosome 16. Marfan syndrome is classified as a single-gene disorder. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Remembering      REF:   p. 42 OBJ:   Nursing Process Step: General        TOP:   Genetics in Critical Care MSC:  NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance
  1. What was the goal of the Human Genome Project?
a. Identifying haplotype tags
b. Exposing untaggable SNPs and recombination hot spots
c. Producing a catalog of human genome variation
d. Mapping all the human genes
ANS:  D The Human Genome Project was a huge international collaborative project that began in 1990 with the goal of making a map of all the human genes (the genome). The final genome sequence was published in 2003. The HapMap project was to identify haplotype tags. The Genome-Wide Association Studies was used to expose untaggable SNPs and recombination hot spots. The 1000 Genomes project was used to map all the human genes. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Remembering      REF:   p. 49 OBJ:   Nursing Process Step: General        TOP:   Genetics in Critical Care MSC:  NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance
  1. The patient is placed under general anesthesia for a carotid endarterectomy. During the surgery, the patient develops muscle contracture with skeletal muscle rigidity, acidosis, and elevated temperature. What is a possible cause for malignant hyperthermia?
a. Polymorphism in RYR1 at chromosome 19q13.1
b. Variant in the VKOR1 gene
c. Variant in the cytochrome P450 enzyme CYP2C9 gene
d. Halothane overdose
ANS:  A Individuals with polymorphisms in the ryanodine receptor gene (RYR1) at chromosome 19q13.1 are at risk of a rare pharmacogenetic condition known as malignant hyperthermia. In affected individuals, exposure to inhalation anesthetics and depolarizing muscle relaxants during general anesthesia induces life-threatening muscle contracture with skeletal muscle rigidity, acidosis, and elevated temperature. Warfarin is being researched as a variant in the VKOR1 gene and in the cytochrome P450 enzyme CYP2C9 gene. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Evaluating            REF:   p. 53|Box 4-3 OBJ:   Nursing Process Step: Diagnosis     TOP:   Genetics in Critical Care MSC:  NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance
  1. What is the study of heredity particularly as it relates to the transfer heritable physical characteristics called?
a. Chromatids
b. Karyotype
c. Genetics
d. Histones
ANS:  C Genetics refers to the study of heredity, particularly as it relates to the ability of individual genes to transfer heritable physical characteristics. Each somatic chromosome, also called an autosome, is made of two strands, called chromatids, which are joined near the center. A karyotype is the arrangement of human chromosomes from largest to smallest. A specialized class of proteins called histones organizes the double-stranded DNA into what looks like a tightly coiled telephone cord. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Remembering      REF:   p. 54 OBJ:   Nursing Process Step: General        TOP:   Genetics in Critical Care MSC:  NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance
  1. Each chromosome consists of an unbroken strand of DNA inside the nucleus of the cell. What is the arrangement of human chromosomes termed?
a. Chromatids
b. Karyotype
c. Genomics
d. Histones
ANS:  B A karyotype is the arrangement of human chromosomes from largest to smallest. Each somatic chromosome, also called an autosome, is made of two strands, called chromatids, which are joined near the center. Genomics refers to the study of all of the genetic material within cells and encompasses the environmental interaction and impact on biologic and physical characteristics. A specialized class of proteins called histones organizes the double-stranded DNA into what looks like a tightly coiled telephone cord. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Remembering      REF:   p. 39 OBJ:   Nursing Process Step: General        TOP:   Genetics in Critical Care MSC:  NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance
  1. What is the study of all the genetic material within the cell and its impact on biologic and physical characteristics called?
a. Chromatids
b. Karyotype
c. Genomics
d. Histones
ANS:  C Genomics refers to the study of all of the genetic material within cells and encompasses the environmental interaction and impact on biologic and physical characteristics. Each somatic chromosome, also called an autosome, is made of two strands, called chromatids, which are joined near the center. A karyotype is the arrangement of human chromosomes from largest to smallest. A specialized class of proteins called histones organizes the double-stranded DNA into what looks like a tightly coiled telephone cord. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Remembering      REF:   p. 39 OBJ:   Nursing Process Step: General        TOP:   Genetics in Critical Care MSC:  NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance
  1. A specialized class of proteins that organizes the double-stranded DNA into what looks like a tightly coiled telephone cord is known which of the following?
a. Chromatids
b. Karyotype
c. Genomics
d. Histones
ANS:  D A specialized class of proteins called histones organizes the double-stranded DNA into what looks like a tightly coiled telephone cord. Genomics refers to the study of all of the genetic material within cells and encompasses the environmental interaction and impact on biologic and physical characteristics. Each somatic chromosome, also called an autosome, is made of two strands, called chromatids, which are joined near the center. A karyotype is the arrangement of human chromosomes from largest to smallest. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Remembering      REF:   p. 39 OBJ:   Nursing Process Step: General        TOP:   Genetics in Critical Care MSC:  NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance
  1. To achieve a consistent distance across the width of the DNA strand, the nucleotide base guanine (G) can only be paired with what other genetic material?
a. Adenine (A)
b. Thymine (T)
c. Cytosine (C)
d. Sex chromosome X
ANS:  C Four nucleotide bases—adenine (A), thymine (T), guanine (G), and cytosine (C)—comprise the “letters” in the genetic DNA “alphabet.” The bases in the double helix are paired T with A and G with C. The nucleotide bases are designed so that only G can pair with C and only T can pair with A to achieve a consistent distance across the width of the DNA strand. The TA and GC combinations are known as base pairs. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Evaluating            REF:   p. 40 OBJ:   Nursing Process Step: Diagnosis     TOP:   Genetics in Critical Care MSC:  NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance
  1. Why are monozygotic twins separated at birth used to study the effects of genetics versus environment?
a. They share an identical genome.
b. They have different sex chromosomes.
c. They have mirror chromosomes.
d. They have identical health issues.
ANS:  A Studies of identical twins offer a unique opportunity to investigate the association of genetics, environment, and health. Identical twins are monozygotic and share an identical genome. Monozygotic twins are the same sex. Studies occur much less frequently today because tremendous efforts are made to keep siblings together when they are adopted. Genetics can be stable in a study group, but the environment and health issues are dynamic even in a controlled study group. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Remembering      REF:   p. 48 OBJ:   Nursing Process Step: General        TOP:   Genetics in Critical Care MSC:  NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance
  1. The process that is used to make polypeptide chains that constitute proteins can be written as:
a. RNA ® DNA ® protein.
b. DNA ® RNA ® protein.
c. Protein ® RNA ® DNA.
d. Protein ® DNA ® RNA.
ANS:  B The nucleotides A, T, C, and G can be thought of as “letters” of a genetic alphabet that are combined into three-letter “words” that are transcribed (written) by the intermediary of ribonucleic acid (RNA). The RNA translates the three-letter words into the amino acids used to make the polypeptide chains that constitute proteins. This process may be written as DNA ® RNA ® protein. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Remembering      REF:   p. 41 OBJ:   Nursing Process Step: Diagnosis     TOP:   Genetics in Critical Care MSC:  NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance
  1. What are the studies called that are done on large, extended families who have several family members affected with a rare disease?
a. Genetic association
b. Genetic epidemiology
c. Kinships
d. Phenotypes
ANS:  C In genetic epidemiologic research of a rare disease, it can be a challenge to find enough people to study. One method is to work with large, extended families, known as kinships, which have several family members affected with the disease. Genetic association studies are usually conducted in large, unrelated groups based on demonstration of a phenotype (disease trait or symptoms) and associated genotype. Genetic epidemiology represents the fusion of epidemiologic studies and genetic and genomic research methods. Phenotypes are different at different stages of a disease and are influenced by medications, environmental factors, and gene–gene interaction. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Remembering      REF:   p. 48 OBJ:   Nursing Process Step: Diagnosis     TOP:   Genetics in Critical Care MSC:  NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance
  1. What is an example of direct-to-consumer genomic testing?
a. Genetic testing through amniocentesis
b. Paternity testing from buccal swabs of the child and father
c. Biopsy of a lump for cancer
d. Drug testing using hair follicles
ANS:  B An example of direct-to-consumer testing is paternity testing from buccal swabs of the child and father. Genetic testing can be done through biopsies and amniocentesis, but they are performed in a facility by a medical professional. Drug testing and genomic testing are two different tests and are unrelated. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Evaluating            REF:   p. 53 OBJ:   Nursing Process Step: Diagnosis     TOP:   Genetics in Critical Care MSC:  NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance
  1. What was the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act (GINA) of 2008 designed to prevent from happening?
a. Abuse of genetic information in employment and health insurance decisions
b. Genetic counselors from reporting results to the health insurance companies
c. Mandatory genetics testing of all individuals with certain diseases
d. Information sharing between biobanks that are studying the same genetic disorders
ANS:  A The Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act (GINA) of 2008 is an essential piece of legislation designed to prevent abuse of genetic information in employment and health insurance decisions in the United States. One of the paramount concerns in the genomic era is to protect the privacy of individuals’ unique genetic information. Many countries have established biobanks as repositories of genetic material, and many tissue samples are stored in medical center tissue banks. Some people who may be at risk for a disorder disease will not be tested because they fear that a positive result may affect their employability. GINA also mandates that genetic information about an individual and his or her family has the same protections as health information. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Remembering      REF:   p. 53 OBJ:   Nursing Process Step: Diagnosis     TOP:   Genetics in Critical Care MSC:  NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance MULTIPLE RESPONSE
  1. Which patients would be candidates for genetic testing for long QT syndrome (LQTS)? (Select all that apply.)
a. Patients with prolonged QT interval during a cardiac and genetic work-up
b. Family history of positive genotype and negative phenotype
c. Patients diagnosed with torsades de pointes
d. Family history of sudden cardiac death
e. Family history of bleeding disorders
f. Family history of obesity
ANS:  A, B, C, D

Test Bank for Foundations of Maternal-Newborn and Women's Health Nursing 6th Edition

Table of Contents Chapter 01: Maternity and Women’s Health Care Today(FREE) Chapter 02: The Nurse’s Role in Maternity and Women’s Health Care(FREE) Chapter 03: Ethical, Social, and Legal Issues(FREE) Chapter 04: Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology Chapter 05: Hereditary and Environmental Influences on Childbearing Chapter 06: Conception and Prenatal Development Chapter 07: Physiologic Adaptations to Pregnancy Chapter 08: Psychosocial Adaptations to Pregnancy Chapter 09: Nutrition for Childbearing Chapter 10: Antepartum Fetal Assessment Chapter 11: Perinatal Education Chapter 12: Processes of Birth Chapter 13: Nursing Care During Labor and Birth Chapter 14: Intrapartum Fetal Surveillance Chapter 15: Pain Management During Childbirth Chapter 16: Nursing Care During Obstetric Procedures Chapter 17: Postpartum Physiologic Adaptations Chapter 18: Postpartum Psychosocial Adaptations Chapter 19: Normal Newborn: Processes of Adaptation Chapter 20: Assessment of the Normal Newborn Chapter 21: Care of the Normal Newborn Chapter 22: Infant Feeding Chapter 23: Home Care of the Infant Chapter 24: The Childbearing Family with Special Needs Chapter 25: Complications of Pregnancy Chapter 26: Concurrent Disorders During Pregnancy Chapter 27: Intrapartum Complications Chapter 28: Postpartum Maternal Complications Chapter 29: High-Risk Newborn: Complications Associated with Gestational Age and Development Chapter 30: High-Risk Newborn: Acquired and Congenital Conditions Chapter 31: Family Planning Chapter 32: Infertility Chapter 33: Preventive Care for Women Chapter 34: Women’s Health Problems

Test Bank for Claytons Basic Pharmacology for Nurses 18th Edition by Willihnganz

Chapter 01: Drug Definitions, Standards, and Information Sources Willihnganz: Clayton’s Basic Pharmacology for Nurses, 18th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.What is the name under which a drug is listed by the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA)?
a. Brand
b. Nonproprietary
c. Official
d. Trademark
ANS:  C The official name is the name under which a drug is listed by the FDA. The brand name, or trademark, is the name given to a drug by its manufacturer. The nonproprietary, or generic, name is provided by the United States Adopted Names Council DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   p. 2                OBJ:   1 NAT:  NCLEX Client Needs Category: Safe, Effective Care Environment TOP:   Nursing Process Step: Assessment  CON:  Patient Education  
  1. Which source contains information specific to nutritional supplements?
a. USP Dictionary of USAN & International Drug Names
b. Natural Medicines Comprehensive Database
c. United States Pharmacopoeia/National Formulary (USP NF)
d. Drug Interaction Facts
ANS:  C United States Pharmacopoeia/National Formulary contains information specific to nutritional supplements. USP Dictionary of USAN & International Drug Names is a compilation of drug names, pronunciation guide, and possible future FDA approved drugs; it does not include nutritional supplements. Natural Medicines Comprehensive Database contains evidence-based information on herbal medicines and herbal combination products; it does not include information specific to nutritional supplements. Drug Interaction Facts contains comprehensive information on drug interaction facts; it does not include nutritional supplements. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   p. 2 | p. 3        OBJ:   3 NAT:  NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity TOP:   Nursing Process Step: Assessment  CON:  Nutrition | Patient Education 3.What is the most comprehensive reference available to research a drug interaction?
a. Drug Facts and Comparisons
b. Drug Interaction Facts
c. Handbook on Injectable Drugs
d. Martindale—The Complete Drug Reference
ANS:  B First published in 1983, Drug Interaction Facts is the most comprehensive book available on drug interactions. In addition to monographs listing various aspects of drug interactions, this information is reviewed and updated by an internationally renowned group of physicians and pharmacists with clinical and scientific expertise. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   p. 4                OBJ:   3 NAT:  NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity TOP:   Nursing Process Step: Assessment  CON:  Safety | Patient Education | Clinical Judgment 4.The physician has written an order for a drug with which the nurse is unfamiliar. Which section of the Physicians’ Desk Reference (PDR) is most helpful to get information about this drug?
a. Manufacturer’s section
b. Brand and Generic name section
c. Product category section
d. Product information section
ANS:  B A physician’s order would include the brand and/or generic name of the drug. The alphabetic index in the PDR would make this section the most user-friendly. Based on a physician’s order, manufacturer’s information and classification information would not be known. The Manufacturer’s section is a roster of manufacturers. The product category section lists products subdivided by therapeutic classes, such as analgesics, laxatives, oxytocics, and antibiotics. The product information section contains reprints of the package inserts for the major products of manufacturers. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   p. 4                OBJ:   3 NAT:  NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity TOP:   Nursing Process Step: Planning       CON:  Safety | Patient Education | Clinical Judgment 5.Which online drug reference makes available to healthcare providers and the public a standard, comprehensive, up-to-date look up and downloadable resource about medicines?
a. American Drug Index
b. American Hospital Formulary
c. DailyMed
d. Physicians’ Desk Reference (PDR)
ANS:  C DailyMed makes available to healthcare providers and the public a standard, comprehensive, up-to-date look up and downloadable resource about medicines. The American Drug Index is not appropriate for patient use. The American Hospital Formulary is not appropriate for patient use. The PDR is not appropriate for patient use. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   p. 3 | p. 5        OBJ:   4 NAT:  NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity TOP:   Nursing Process Step: Implementation CON:  Safety | Patient Education | Clinical Judgment 6.Which legislation authorizes the FDA to determine the safety of a drug before its marketing?
a. Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (1938)
b. Durham Humphrey Amendment (1952)
c. Controlled Substances Act (1970)
d. Kefauver Harris Drug Amendment (1962)
ANS:  A The Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938 authorized the FDA to determine the safety of all drugs before marketing. Later amendments and acts helped tighten FDA control and ensure drug safety. The Durham Humphrey Amendment defines the kinds of drugs that cannot be used safely without medical supervision and restricts their sale to prescription by a licensed practitioner. The Controlled Substances Act addresses only controlled substances and their categorization. The Kefauver Harris Drug Amendment ensures drug efficacy and greater drug safety. Drug manufacturers are required to prove to the FDA the effectiveness of their products before marketing them. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   p. 5                OBJ:   6 NAT:  NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity TOP:   Nursing Process Step: Assessment CON:  Safety | Patient Education | Evidence | Health Care Law 7.Meperidine (Demerol) is a narcotic with a high potential for physical and psychological dependency. Under which classification does this drug fall?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
ANS:  B Meperidine (Demerol) is a Schedule II drug; it has a high potential for abuse and may lead to severe psychological and physical dependence. Schedule I drugs have high potential for abuse and no recognized medical use. Schedule III drugs have some potential for abuse. Use may lead to low to moderate physical dependence or high psychological dependence. Schedule IV drugs have low potential for abuse. Use may lead to limited physical or psychological dependence. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   p. 5                OBJ:   2 NAT:  NCLEX Client Needs Category: Safe, Effective Care Environment TOP:   Nursing Process Step: Assessment  CON:  Patient Education | Addiction | Pain 8:What would the FDA do to expedite drug development and approval for an outbreak of smallpox, for which there is no known treatment?
a. List smallpox as a health orphan disease.
b. Omit the preclinical research phase.
c. Extend the clinical research phase.
d. Fast track the investigational drug.
    ANS:  D
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