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Test bank for Concepts for Nursing Practice 3rd Edition Giddens

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Test bank for Concepts for Nursing Practice 3rd Edition Giddens

Concept 01: Development
Giddens: Concepts for Nursing Practice, 3rd Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The nurse manager of a pediatric clinic could confirm that the new nurse recognized the
purpose of the HEADSS Adolescent Risk Profile when the new nurse responds that it is
used to review for needs related to
a. anticipatory guidance.
b. low-risk adolescents.
c. physical development.
d. sexual development.
ANS: A

The HEADSS Adolescent Risk Profile is a psychosocial assessment screening tool which
reviews home, education, activities, drugs, sex, and suicide for the purpose of identifying
high-risk adolescents and the need for anticipatory guidance. It is used to identify high-risk,
not low-risk, adolescents. Physical development is reviewed with anthropometric data.
Sexual development is reviewed using physical examination.
OBJ: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Health Promotion and Maintenance

2. The nurse preparing a teaching plan for a preschooler knows that, according to Piaget, the
expected stage of development for a preschooler is
a. concrete operational.
b. formal operational.
c. preoperational.
d. sensorimotor.
ANS: C
The expected stage of development for a preschooler (3–4 years old) is pre-operational.
Concrete operational describes the thinking of a school-age child (7–11 years old). Formal
operational describes the thinking of an individual after about 11 years of age. Sensorimotor
describes the earliest pattern of thinking from birth to 2 years old.
OBJ: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Health Promotion and Maintenance

3. The school nurse talking with a high school class about the difference between growth and
development would best describe growth as
a. processes by which early cells specialize.
b. psychosocial and cognitive changes.
c. qualitative changes associated with aging.
d. quantitative changes in size or weight.
ANS: D

TEST BANK FOR CONCEPTS FOR NURSING PRACTICE 3RD EDITION BY GIDDENS

Growth is a quantitative change in which an increase in cell number and size results in an
increase in overall size or weight of the body or any of its parts. The processes by which
early cells specialize are referred to as differentiation. Psychosocial and cognitive changes
are referred to as development. Qualitative changes associated with aging are referred to as
maturation.
OBJ: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Health Promotion and Maintenance

4. The most appropriate response of the nurse when a mother asks what the Denver II does is
that it
a. can diagnose developmental disabilities.
b. identifies a need for physical therapy.
c. is a developmental screening tool.
d. provides a framework for health teaching.
ANS: C
The Denver II is the most commonly used measure of developmental status used by
healthcare professionals; it is a screening tool. Screening tools do not provide a diagnosis.
Diagnosis requires a thorough neurodevelopment history and physical examination.
Developmental delay, which is suggested by screening, is a symptom, not a diagnosis. The
need for any therapy would be identified with a comprehensive evaluation, not a screening
tool. Some providers use the Denver II as a framework for teaching about expected
development, but this is not the primary purpose of the tool.

5. To plan early intervention and care for an infant with Down syndrome, the nurse considers
knowledge of other physical development exemplars such as
a. cerebral palsy.
b. failure to thrive.
c. fetal alcohol syndrome.
d. hydrocephaly.
ANS: D
Hydrocephaly is also a physical development exemplar. Cerebral palsy is an exemplar of
adaptive developmental delay. Failure to thrive is an exemplar of social/emotional
developmental delay. Fetal alcohol syndrome is an exemplar of cognitive developmental
delay.
OBJ: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Health Promotion and Maintenance

6. To plan early intervention and care for a child with a developmental delay, the nurse would
consider knowledge of the concepts most significantly impacted by development, including
a. culture.
b. environment.
c. functional status.
d. nutrition.
ANS: C

TEST BANK FOR CONCEPTS FOR NURSING PRACTICE 3RD EDITION BY GIDDENS

Function is one of the concepts most significantly impacted by development. Others include
sensory-perceptual, cognition, mobility, reproduction, and sexuality. Knowledge of these
concepts can help the nurse anticipate areas that need to be addressed. Culture is a concept
that is considered to significantly affect development; the difference is the concepts that
affect development are those that represent major influencing factors (causes); hence
determination of development would be the focus of preventive interventions. Environment
is considered to significantly affect development. Nutrition is considered to significantly
affect development.
OBJ: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Health Promotion and Maintenance

7. A mother complains to the nurse at the pediatric clinic that her 4-year-old child always talks
to her toys and makes up stories. The mother wants her child to have a psychological
evaluation. The nurse’s best initial response is to
a. refer the child to a psychologist immediately.
b. explain that playing make believe is normal at this age.
c. complete a developmental screening using a validated tool.
d. separate the child from the mother to get more information.
ANS: B

By the end of the fourth year, it is expected that a child will engage in fantasy, so this is
normal at this age. A referral to a psychologist would be premature based only on the
complaint of the mother. Completing a developmental screening would be very appropriate
but not the initial response. The nurse would certainly want to get more information, but
separating the child from the mother is not necessary at this time.
OBJ: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Health Promotion and Maintenance

8. A 17-year-old girl is hospitalized for appendicitis, and her mother asks the nurse why she is
so needy and acting like a child. The best response of the nurse is that in the hospital,
adolescents
a. have separation anxiety.
b. rebel against rules.
c. regress because of stress.
d. want to know everything.
ANS: C
Regression to an earlier stage of development is a common response to stress. Separation
anxiety is most common in infants and toddlers. Rebellion against hospital rules is usually
not an issue if the adolescent understands the rules and would not create childlike behaviors.
An adolescent may want to “know everything” with their logical thinking and deductive
reasoning, but that would not explain why they would act like a child.
OBJ: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Health Promotion and Maintenance

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Test bank for Concepts for Nursing Practice 3rd Edition Giddens

Concept 01: Development Giddens: Concepts for Nursing Practice, 3rd Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The nurse manager of a pediatric clinic could confirm that the new nurse recognized the purpose of the HEADSS Adolescent Risk Profile when the new nurse responds that it is used to review for needs related to a. anticipatory guidance. b. low-risk adolescents. c. physical development. d. sexual development. ANS: A The HEADSS Adolescent Risk Profile is a psychosocial assessment screening tool which reviews home, education, activities, drugs, sex, and suicide for the purpose of identifying high-risk adolescents and the need for anticipatory guidance. It is used to identify high-risk, not low-risk, adolescents. Physical development is reviewed with anthropometric data. Sexual development is reviewed using physical examination. OBJ: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Health Promotion and Maintenance 2. The nurse preparing a teaching plan for a preschooler knows that, according to Piaget, the expected stage of development for a preschooler is a. concrete operational. b. formal operational. c. preoperational. d. sensorimotor. ANS: C The expected stage of development for a preschooler (3–4 years old) is pre-operational. Concrete operational describes the thinking of a school-age child (7–11 years old). Formal operational describes the thinking of an individual after about 11 years of age. Sensorimotor describes the earliest pattern of thinking from birth to 2 years old. OBJ: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Health Promotion and Maintenance 3. The school nurse talking with a high school class about the difference between growth and development would best describe growth as a. processes by which early cells specialize. b. psychosocial and cognitive changes. c. qualitative changes associated with aging. d. quantitative changes in size or weight. ANS: D TEST BANK FOR CONCEPTS FOR NURSING PRACTICE 3RD EDITION BY GIDDENS Growth is a quantitative change in which an increase in cell number and size results in an increase in overall size or weight of the body or any of its parts. The processes by which early cells specialize are referred to as differentiation. Psychosocial and cognitive changes are referred to as development. Qualitative changes associated with aging are referred to as maturation. OBJ: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Health Promotion and Maintenance 4. The most appropriate response of the nurse when a mother asks what the Denver II does is that it a. can diagnose developmental disabilities. b. identifies a need for physical therapy. c. is a developmental screening tool. d. provides a framework for health teaching. ANS: C The Denver II is the most commonly used measure of developmental status used by healthcare professionals; it is a screening tool. Screening tools do not provide a diagnosis. Diagnosis requires a thorough neurodevelopment history and physical examination. Developmental delay, which is suggested by screening, is a symptom, not a diagnosis. The need for any therapy would be identified with a comprehensive evaluation, not a screening tool. Some providers use the Denver II as a framework for teaching about expected development, but this is not the primary purpose of the tool. 5. To plan early intervention and care for an infant with Down syndrome, the nurse considers knowledge of other physical development exemplars such as a. cerebral palsy. b. failure to thrive. c. fetal alcohol syndrome. d. hydrocephaly. ANS: D Hydrocephaly is also a physical development exemplar. Cerebral palsy is an exemplar of adaptive developmental delay. Failure to thrive is an exemplar of social/emotional developmental delay. Fetal alcohol syndrome is an exemplar of cognitive developmental delay. OBJ: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Health Promotion and Maintenance 6. To plan early intervention and care for a child with a developmental delay, the nurse would consider knowledge of the concepts most significantly impacted by development, including a. culture. b. environment. c. functional status. d. nutrition. ANS: C TEST BANK FOR CONCEPTS FOR NURSING PRACTICE 3RD EDITION BY GIDDENS Function is one of the concepts most significantly impacted by development. Others include sensory-perceptual, cognition, mobility, reproduction, and sexuality. Knowledge of these concepts can help the nurse anticipate areas that need to be addressed. Culture is a concept that is considered to significantly affect development; the difference is the concepts that affect development are those that represent major influencing factors (causes); hence determination of development would be the focus of preventive interventions. Environment is considered to significantly affect development. Nutrition is considered to significantly affect development. OBJ: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Health Promotion and Maintenance 7. A mother complains to the nurse at the pediatric clinic that her 4-year-old child always talks to her toys and makes up stories. The mother wants her child to have a psychological evaluation. The nurse’s best initial response is to a. refer the child to a psychologist immediately. b. explain that playing make believe is normal at this age. c. complete a developmental screening using a validated tool. d. separate the child from the mother to get more information. ANS: B By the end of the fourth year, it is expected that a child will engage in fantasy, so this is normal at this age. A referral to a psychologist would be premature based only on the complaint of the mother. Completing a developmental screening would be very appropriate but not the initial response. The nurse would certainly want to get more information, but separating the child from the mother is not necessary at this time. OBJ: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Health Promotion and Maintenance 8. A 17-year-old girl is hospitalized for appendicitis, and her mother asks the nurse why she is so needy and acting like a child. The best response of the nurse is that in the hospital, adolescents a. have separation anxiety. b. rebel against rules. c. regress because of stress. d. want to know everything. ANS: C Regression to an earlier stage of development is a common response to stress. Separation anxiety is most common in infants and toddlers. Rebellion against hospital rules is usually not an issue if the adolescent understands the rules and would not create childlike behaviors. An adolescent may want to “know everything” with their logical thinking and deductive reasoning, but that would not explain why they would act like a child. OBJ: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Chapter 01: Using Evidence in Practice Perry et al.: Clinical Nursing Skills & Techniques, 9th Edition   MULTIPLE CHOICE  
  1. Evidence-based practice is a problem-solving approach to making decisions about patient care that is grounded in:
a. the latest information found in textbooks.
b. systematically conducted research studies.
c. tradition in clinical practice.
d. quality improvement and risk-management data.
    ANS:   B The best evidence comes from well-designed, systematically conducted research studies described in scientific journals. Portions of a textbook often become outdated by the time it is published. Many health care settings do not have a process to help staff adopt new evidence in practice, and nurses in practice settings lack easy access to risk-management data, relying instead on tradition or convenience. Some sources of evidence do not originate from research. These include quality improvement and risk-management data; infection control data; retrospective or concurrent chart reviews; and clinicians’ expertise. Although non–research-based evidence is often very valuable, it is important that you learn to rely more on research-based evidence.   DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension       REF:    Text reference: p. 2 OBJ:    Discuss the benefits of evidence-based practice. TOP:    Evidence-Based Practice                   KEY:   Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC:   NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment (management of care)  
  1. When evidence-based practice is used, patient care will be:
a. standardized for all.
b. unhampered by patient culture.
c. variable according to the situation.
d. safe from the hazards of critical thinking.
    ANS:   C Using your clinical expertise and considering patients’ cultures, values, and preferences ensures that you will apply available evidence in practice ethically and appropriately. Even when you use the best evidence available, application and outcomes will differ; as a nurse, you will develop critical thinking skills to determine whether evidence is relevant and appropriate.   DIF:    Cognitive Level: Application             REF:    Text reference: p. 2 OBJ:    Discuss the benefits of evidence-based practice. TOP:    Evidence-Based Practice                   KEY:   Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC:   NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment (management of care)  
  1. When a PICOT question is developed, the letter that corresponds with the usual standard of care is:
a. P.
b. I.
c. C.
d. O.
    ANS:   C C = Comparison of interest. What standard of care or current intervention do you usually use now in practice? P = Patient population of interest. Identify your patient by age, gender, ethnicity, disease, or health problem. I = Intervention of interest. What intervention (e.g., treatment, diagnostic test, and prognostic factor) do you think is worthwhile to use in practice? O = Outcome. What result (e.g., change in patient’s behavior, physical finding, and change in patient’s perception) do you wish to achieve or observe as the result of an intervention?   DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge             REF:    Text reference: p. 3 OBJ:    Develop a PICO question.                 TOP:    PICO KEY:   Nursing Process Step: Implementation MSC:   NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment (management of care)  
  1. A well-developed PICOT question helps the nurse:
a. search for evidence.
b. include all five elements of the sequence.
c. find as many articles as possible in a literature search.
d. accept standard clinical routines.
    ANS:   A The more focused a question that you ask is, the easier it is to search for evidence in the scientific literature. A well-designed PICOT question does not have to include all five elements, nor does it have to follow the PICOT sequence. Do not be satisfied with clinical routines. Always question and use critical thinking to consider better ways to provide patient care.   DIF:    Cognitive Level: Analysis                  REF:    Text reference: p. 3 OBJ:    Describe the six steps of evidence-based practice. TOP:    Evidence-Based Practice                   KEY:   Nursing Process Step: Implementation MSC:   NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment (management of care)  
  1. The nurse is not sure that the procedure the patient requires is the best possible for the situation. Utilizing which of the following resources would be the quickest way to review research on the topic?
a. CINAHL
b. PubMed
c. MEDLINE
d. The Cochrane Database
    ANS:   D The Cochrane Community Database of Systematic Reviews is a valuable source of synthesized evidence (i.e., pre-appraised evidence). The Cochrane Database includes the full text of regularly updated systematic reviews and protocols for reviews currently happening. MEDLINE, CINAHL, and PubMed are among the most comprehensive databases and represent the scientific knowledge base of health care.   DIF:    Cognitive Level: Synthesis                REF:    Text reference: p. 4 OBJ:    Describe the six steps of evidence-based practice. TOP:    Evidence-Based Practice                   KEY:   Nursing Process Step: Implementation MSC:   NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment (management of care)  
  1. The nurse is getting ready to develop a plan of care for a patient who has a specific need. The best source for developing this plan of care would probably be:
a. The Cochrane Database.
b. MEDLINE.
c. NGC.
d. CINAHL.
    ANS:   C The National Guidelines Clearinghouse (NGC) is a database supported by the Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ). It contains clinical guidelines—systematically developed statements about a plan of care for a specific set of clinical circumstances involving a specific patient population. The NGC is a valuable source when you want to develop a plan of care for a patient. The Cochrane Community Database of Systematic Reviews, MEDLINE, and CINAHL are all valuable sources of synthesized evidence (i.e., pre-appraised evidence).   DIF:    Cognitive Level: Synthesis                REF:    Text reference: p. 4 OBJ:    Describe the six steps of evidence-based practice. TOP:    Evidence-Based Practice                   KEY:   Nursing Process Step: Implementation MSC:   NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment (management of care)  
  1. The nurse has done a literature search and found 25 possible articles on the topic that she is studying. To determine which of those 25 best fit her inquiry, the nurse first should look at:
a. the abstracts.
b. the literature reviews.
c. the “Methods” sections.
d. the narrative sections.
    ANS:   A An abstract is a brief summary of an article that quickly tells you whether the article is research based or clinically based. An abstract summarizes the purpose of the study or clinical query, the major themes or findings, and the implications for nursing practice. The literature review usually gives you a good idea of how past research led to the researcher’s question. The “Methods” or “Design” section explains how a research study is organized and conducted to answer the research question or to test the hypothesis. The narrative of a manuscript differs according to the type of evidence-based article—clinical or research.   DIF:    Cognitive Level: Application             REF:    Text reference: p. 7 OBJ:    Discuss elements to review when critiquing the scientific literature. TOP:    Randomized Controlled Trials           KEY:   Nursing Process Step: Implementation MSC:   NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment (management of care)  
  1. The nurse wants to determine the effects of cardiac rehabilitation program attendance on the level of postmyocardial depression for individuals who have had a myocardial infarction. The type of study that would best capture this information would be a:
a. randomized controlled trial.
b. qualitative study.
c. case control study.
d. descriptive study.
    ANS:   B Qualitative studies examine individuals’ experiences with health problems and the contexts in which these experiences occur. A qualitative study is best in this case of an individual nurse who wants to examine the effectiveness of a local program. Randomized controlled trials involve close monitoring of control groups and treatment groups to test an intervention against the usual standard of care. Case control studies typically compare one group of subjects with a certain condition against another group without the condition, to look for associations between the condition and predictor variables. Descriptive studies focus mainly on describing the concepts under study.   DIF:    Cognitive Level: Synthesis                REF:    Text reference: p. 6 OBJ:    Discuss ways to apply evidence in nursing practice. TOP:    Randomized Controlled Trials           KEY:   Nursing Process Step: Implementation MSC:   NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment (management of care)  
  1. Six months after an early mobility protocol was implemented, the incidence of deep vein thrombosis in patients was decreased. This is an example of what stage in the EBP process?
a. Asking a clinical question
b. Applying the evidence
c. Evaluating the practice decision
d. Communicating your results
    ANS:   C After implementing a practice change, your next step is to evaluate the effect. You do this by analyzing the outcomes data that you collected during the pilot project. Outcomes evaluation tells you whether your practice change improved conditions, created no change, or worsened conditions.   DIF:    Cognitive Level: Application             REF:    Text reference: p. 9 OBJ:    Discuss ways to apply evidence in nursing practice. TOP:    Evidence-Based Practice                   KEY:   Nursing Process Step: Evaluation MSC:   NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment (safety and infection control)   MULTIPLE RESPONSE  
  1. To use evidence-based practice appropriately, you need to collect the most relevant and best evidence and to critically appraise the evidence you gather. This process also includes: (Select all that apply.)
a. asking a clinical question.
b. applying the evidence.
c. evaluating the practice decision.
d. communicating your results.
    ANS:   A, B, C, D

Test Bank for Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Practice Nurse Prescribers 4th Edition by Woo

Chapter 1. The Role of the Nurse Practitioner   Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.   ____    1.   Nurse practitioner prescriptive authority is regulated by:
1. The National Council of State Boards of Nursing
2. The U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration
3. The State Board of Nursing for each state
4. The State Board of Pharmacy
    ____    2.   The benefits to the patient of having an Advanced Practice Registered Nurse (APRN) prescriber include:
1. Nurses know more about Pharmacology than other prescribers because they take it both in their basic nursing program and in their APRN program.
2. Nurses care for the patient from a holistic approach and include the patient in decision making regarding their care.
3. APRNs are less likely to prescribe narcotics and other controlled substances.
4. APRNs are able to prescribe independently in all states, whereas a physician’s assistant needs to have a physician supervising their practice.
    ____    3.   Clinical judgment in prescribing includes:
1. Factoring in the cost to the patient of the medication prescribed
2. Always prescribing the newest medication available for the disease process
3. Handing out drug samples to poor patients
4. Prescribing all generic medications to cut costs
    ____    4.   Criteria for choosing an effective drug for a disorder include:
1. Asking the patient what drug they think would work best for them
2. Consulting nationally recognized guidelines for disease management
3. Prescribing medications that are available as samples before writing a prescription
4. Following U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration guidelines for prescribing
    ____    5.   Nurse practitioner practice may thrive under health-care reform because of:
1. The demonstrated ability of nurse practitioners to control costs and improve patient outcomes
2. The fact that nurse practitioners will be able to practice independently
3. The fact that nurse practitioners will have full reimbursement under health-care reform
4. The ability to shift accountability for Medicaid to the state level
  Chapter 1. The Role of the Nurse Practitioner Answer Section   MULTIPLE CHOICE  
  1. ANS:  3                     PTS:   1
 
  1. ANS:  2                     PTS:   1
 
  1. ANS:  1                     PTS:   1
 
  1. ANS:  2                     PTS:   1
 
  1. ANS:  1                     PTS:   1

Test Bank for Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 9th Edition

Contents Chapter 01: The Nursing Process and Drug Therapy................................................................................. 4 Chapter 02: Pharmacologic Principles...................................................................................................... 8 Chapter 03: Lifespan Considerations...................................................................................................... 14 Chapter 04: Cultural, Legal, and Ethical Considerations.......................................................................... 20 Chapter 05: Medication Errors: Preventing and Responding .................................................................. 26 Chapter 06: Patient Education and Drug Therapy................................................................................... 29 Chapter 07: Over-the-Counter Drugs and Herbal and Dietary Supplements ........................................... 34 Chapter 08: Gene Therapy and Pharmacogenomics............................................................................... 38 Chapter 09: Photo Atlas of Drug Administration .................................................................................... 41 Chapter 10: Analgesic Drugs.................................................................................................................. 50 Chapter 11: General and Local Anesthetics............................................................................................ 57 Chapter 12: Central Nervous System Depressants and Muscle Relaxants............................................... 61 Chapter 13: Central Nervous System Stimulants and Related Drugs....................................................... 66 Chapter 14: Antiepileptic Drugs............................................................................................................. 70 Chapter 15: Antiparkinson Drugs.............................................................................................................76 Chapter 16: Psychotherapeutic Drugs.................................................................................................... 81 Chapter 17: Substance Use Disorder...................................................................................................... 88 Chapter 18: Adrenergic Drugs................................................................................................................ 93 Chapter 19: Adrenergic-Blocking Drugs.................................................................................................. 98 Chapter 20: Cholinergic Drugs ............................................................................................................. 103 Chapter 21: Cholinergic-Blocking Drugs............................................................................................... 108 Chapter 22: Antihypertensive Drugs.................................................................................................... 113 Chapter 23: Antianginal Drugs............................................................................................................. 119 Chapter 24: Heart Failure Drugs........................................................................................................... 125 Chapter 25: Antidysrhythmic Drugs..................................................................................................... 131 Chapter 26: Coagulation Modifier Drugs.............................................................................................. 137 Chapter 27: Antilipemic Drugs............................................................................................................. 143 Chapter 28: Diuretic Drugs................................................................................................................... 148 Chapter 29: Fluids and Electrolytes...................................................................................................... 154 Chapter 30: Pituitary Drugs.................................................................................................................. 160 Chapter 31: Thyroid and Antithyroid Drugs.......................................................................................... 163 Chapter 32: Antidiabetic Drugs............................................................................................................ 168 Chapter 33: Adrenal Drugs................................................................................................................... 177 Chapter 34: Women’s Health Drugs..................................................................................................... 181 Chapter 35: Men’s Health Drugs.......................................................................................................... 188 Chapter 36: Antihistamines, Decongestants, Antitussives, and Expectorants ....................................... 193 Chapter 37: Respiratory Drugs............................................................................................................. 198 Chapter 38: Antibiotics Part 1.............................................................................................................. 204 Chapter 39: Antibiotics Part 2.............................................................................................................. 211 Chapter 40: Antiviral Drugs.................................................................................................................. 216 Chapter 41: Antitubercular Drugs ........................................................................................................ 221 Chapter 42: Antifungal Drugs............................................................................................................... 226 Chapter 43: Antimalarial, Antiprotozoal, and Anthelmintic Drugs ........................................................ 231 Chapter 44: Anti-inflammatory and Antigout Drugs............................................................................. 236 Chapter 45: Antineoplastic Drugs Part 1: Cancer Overview and Cell Cycle–Specific Drugs..................... 242 Chapter 46: Antineoplastic Drugs Part 2: Cell Cycle–Nonspecific Drugs and Miscellaneous Drugs......... 248 Chapter 47: Biologic Response–Modifying and Antirheumatic Drugs ................................................... 253 Chapter 48: Immunosuppressant Drugs............................................................................................... 258 Chapter 49: Immunizing Drugs............................................................................................................. 263 Chapter 50: Acid-Controlling Drugs...................................................................................................... 268 Chapter 51: Bowel Disorder Drugs....................................................................................................... 274 Chapter 52: Antiemetic and Antinausea Drugs..................................................................................... 281 Chapter 53: Vitamins and Minerals...................................................................................................... 286 Chapter 54: Anemia Drugs................................................................................................................... 292 Chapter 55: Nutritional Supplements................................................................................................... 299 Chapter 56: Dermatologic Drugs.......................................................................................................... 304 Chapter 57: Ophthalmic Drugs............................................................................................................. 310 Chapter 58: Otic Drugs ............................

Medical-Surgical Nursing: Making Connections to Practice 1st edition Hoffman, Sullivan Test Bank

 

Chapter 1: Foundations for Medical-Surgical Nursing

Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. The medical-surgical nurse identifies a clinical practice issue and wants to determine if there is sufficient evidence to support a change in practice. Which type of study provides the strongest evidence to support a practice change? 1) Randomized control study 2) Quasi-experimental study 3) Case-control study 4) Cohort study

____ 2. The medical-surgical unit recently implemented a patient-centered care model. Which action implemented by the nurse supports this model? 1) Evaluating care 2) Assessing needs 3) Diagnosing problems 4) Providing compassion

____ 3. Which action should the nurse implement when providing patient care in order to support The Joint Commission’s (TJC) National Patient Safety Goals (NPSG)? 1) Silencing a cardiorespiratory monitor 2) Identifying each patient using one source 3) Determining patient safety issues upon admission 4) Decreasing the amount of pain medication administered

____ 4. Which interprofessional role does the nurse often assume when providing patient care in an acute care setting? 1) Social worker 2) Client advocate 3) Care coordinator 4) Massage therapist

____ 5. The medical-surgical nurse wants to determine if a policy change is needed for an identified clinical problem. Which is the first action the nurse should implement? 1) Developing a question 2) Disseminating the findings 3) Conducting a review of the literature 4) Evaluating outcomes of practice change

____ 6. The nurse is evaluating the level of evidence found during a recent review of the literature. Which evidence carries the lowest level of support for a practice change? 1) Level IV 2) Level V 3) Level VI 4) Level VII

____ 7. The nurse is reviewing evidence from a quasi-experimental research study. Which level of evidence should the nurse identify for this research study? 1) Level ITestBankWorld.org 2) Level II 3) Level III 4) Level IV

____ 8. Which level of evidence should the nurse identify when reviewing evidence from a single descriptive research study? 1) Level IV 2) Level V 3) Level VI 4) Level VII

____ 9. Which statement should the nurse make when communicating the “S” in the SBAR approach for effective communication? 1) “The patient presented to the emergency department at 0200 with lower left abdominal pain.” 2) “The patient rated the pain upon admission as a 9 on a 10-point numeric scale.” 3) “The patient has no significant issues in the medical history.” 4) “The patient was given a prescribed opioid analgesic at 0300.” ____ 10. The staff nurse is communicating with the change nurse about the change of status of the patient. The nurse would begin her communication with which statement if correctly using the SBAR format? 1) “The patient’s heartrate is 110.” 2) “I think this patient needs to be transferred to the critical care unit.” 3) “The patient is a 68-year-old male patient admitted last night.” 4) “The patient is complaining of chest pain.” ____ 11. Which nursing action exemplifies the Quality and Safety Education for Nursing (QSEN) competency of safety? 1) Advocating for a patient who is experiencing pain 2) Considering the patient’s culture when planning care 3) Evaluating patient learning style prior to implementing discharge instructions 4) Assessing the right drug prior to administering a prescribed patient medication ____ 12. Which type of nursing is the root of all other nursing practice areas? 1) Pediatric nursing 2) Geriatric nursing 3) Medical-surgical nursing 4) Mental health-psychiatric nursing ____ 13. Which did the Nursing Executive Center of The Advisory Board identify as an academic-practice gap for new graduate nurses? 1) Patient advocacy 2) Patient education 3) Disease pathophysiology 4) Therapeutic communication ____ 14. Which statement regarding the use of the nursing process in clinical practice is accurate? 1) “The nursing process is closely related to clinical decision-making.” 2) “The nursing process is used by all members of the interprofessional team to plan care.” 3) “The nursing process has 4 basic steps: assessment, planning, implementation, evaluation.” 4) “The nursing process is being replaced by the implementation of evidence-based practice.”TestBankWorld.org ____ 15. Which is the basis of nursing care practices and protocols? 1) Assessment 2) Evaluation 3) Diagnosis 4) Research ____ 16. Which is a common theme regarding patient dissatisfaction related to care provided in the hospital setting? 1) Space in hospital rooms 2) Medications received to treat pain 3) Time spent with the health-care team 4) Poor quality food received from dietary ____ 17. The nurse manager is preparing a medical-surgical unit for The Joint Commission (TJC) visit With the nurse manager presenting staff education focusing on TJC benchmarks, which of the following topics would be most appropriate? 1) Implementation of evidence-based practice 2) Implementation of patient-centered care 3) Implementation of medical asepsis practices 4) Implementation of interprofessional care ____ 18. Which aspect of patient-centered care should the nurse manager evaluate prior to The Joint Commission site visit for accreditation? 1) Visitation rights 2) Education level of staff 3) Fall prevention protocol 4) Infection control practices ____ 19. The medical-surgical nurse is providing patient care. Which circumstance would necessitate the nurse verifying the patient’s identification using at least two sources? 1) Prior to delivering a meal tray 2) Prior to passive range of motion 3) Prior to medication administration 4) Prior to documenting in the medical record ____ 20. The nurse is providing care to several patients on a medical-surgical unit. Which situation would necessitate the nurse to use SBAR during the hand-off process? 1) Wound care 2) Discharge to home 3) Transfer to radiology 4) Medication education Multiple Response Identify one or more choices that best complete the statement or answer the question. ____ 21. The staff nurse is teaching a group of student nurses the situations that necessitate hand-off communication. Which student responses indicate the need for further education related to this procedure? Select all that apply. 1) “A hand-off is required prior to administering a medication.” 2) “A hand-off is required during change of shift.” 3) “A hand-off is required for a patient is transferred to the surgical suite.”TestBankWorld.org 4) “A hand-off is required whenever the nurse receives a new patient assignment.” 5) “A hand-off is required prior to family visitation.” ____ 22. Which actions by the nurse enhance patient safety during medication administration? Select all that apply. 1) Answering the call bell while transporting medications for a different patient 2) Identifying the patient using two sources prior to administering the medication 3) Holding a medication if the patient’s diagnosis does not support its use 4) Administering the medication two hours after the scheduled time 5) Having another nurse verify the prescribed dose of insulin the patient is to receive ____ 23. The medical-surgical nurse assumes care for a patient who is receiving continuous cardiopulmonary monitoring. Which actions by the nurse enhance safety for this patient? Select all that apply. 1) Silencing the alarm during family visitation 2) Assessing the alarm parameters at the start of the shift 3) Responding to the alarm in a timely fashion 4) Decreasing the alarm volume to enhance restful sleep 5) Adjusting alarm parameters based on specified practitioner prescription ____ 24. The nurse is planning an interprofessional care conference for a patient who is approaching discharge from the hospital. Which members of the interprofessional team should the nurse invite to attend? Select all that apply. 1) Physician 2) Pharmacist 3) Unit secretary 4) Social worker 5) Home care aide ____ 25. The nurse manager wants to designate a member of the nursing team as the care coordinator for a patient who will require significant care during the hospitalization. Which skills should this nurse possess in order to assume this role? Select all that apply. 1) Effective clinical reasoning 2) Effective communication skills 3) Effective infection control procedures 4) Effective documentation 5) Effective intravenous skillsTestBankWorld.org Chapter 1: Foundations for Medical-Surgical Nursing Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. ANS: 1 Chapter number and title: 1, Foundations for Medical Surgical Practice Chapter learning objective: Discussing the incorporation of evidence-based practices into medical-surgical nursing Chapter page reference: 003-004 Heading: Evidence-Based Nursing Care Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Planning Client Need: Safe and Effective Care Environment/Management of Care Cognitive level: Comprehension [Understanding] Concept: Evidence-Based Practice Difficulty: Easy Feedback 1 Systematic reviews of randomized control studies (Level I) are the highest level of evidence because they include data from selected studies that randomly assigned participants to control and experimental groups. The lower the numerical rating of the level of evidence indicates the highest level of evidence; therefore, this type of study provides the strongest evidence to support a practice change. 2 Quasi-experimental studies are considered Level III; therefore, this study does not provide the strongest evidence to support a practice change. 3 Case-control studies are considered Level IV; therefore, this study does not provide the strongest evidence to support a practice change. 4 Cohort studies are considered Level IV; therefore, this study does not provide the strongest evidence to support a practice change. PTS: 1 CON: Evidence-Based Practice 2. ANS: 4 Chapter number and title: 1, Foundations of Medical-Surgical Practice Chapter learning objective: Explaining the importance of patient-centered care in the management of medical-surgical patients Chapter page reference: 004-005 Heading: Patient-Centered Care in the Medical-Surgical Setting Integrated Processes: Caring Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive level: Application [Applying] Concept: Nursing Roles Difficulty: Moderate Feedback 1 Evaluation is a step in the nursing process; however, this is not an action that supports the patient-centered care model. 2 Assessment is a step in the nursing process; however, this is not an action that supports the patient-centered care model.TestBankWorld.org 3 Diagnosis is a step in the nursing process; however, this is not an action that supports the patient-centered care model. 4 Compassion is a competency closely associated with patient-centered care; therefore, this action supports the patient-centered model of care. PTS: 1 CON: Nursing Roles 3. ANS: 3 Chapter number and title: 1, Foundations of Medical-Surgical Nursing Practice Chapter learning objective: Discussing implications to medical-surgical nurses of Quality and Safety Education for Nurses (QSEN) competencies Chapter page reference: 005-006 Heading: Patient Safety Outcomes Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Implementation Client Need: Safe and Effective Care Environment/Management of Care Cognitive level: Application [Applying] Concept: Safety Difficulty: Moderate Feedback 1 Safely using alarms is a NPSG identified by TJC. Silencing a cardiorespiratory monitor is not nursing action that supports this NPSG. 2 Patient identification using two separate resources is a NPSG identified by TJC. Identifying a patient using only one source does not support this NPSG. 3 Identification of patient safety risks is a NPSG identified by the TJC. Determining patient safety issues upon admission supports this NPSG. 4 Safe use of medication is a NPSG identified by the TJC. Decreasing the amount of pain medication administered does not support this NPSG. PTS: 1 CON: Safety 4. ANS: 3 Chapter number and title: 1, Foundations of Medical-Surgical Nursing Practice Chapter learning objective: Describing the role and competencies of medical-surgical nursing Chapter page reference: 006-007 Heading: Interprofessional Collaboration and Communication Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Implementation Client Need: Safe and Effective Care Environment/Management of Care Cognitive level: Comprehension [Understanding] Concept: Nursing Roles Difficulty: Easy Feedback 1 The nurse does not often assume the interprofessional role of social worker when providing patient care in an acute care setting. 2 The nurse does not often assume the interprofessional role of client advocate role when providing patient care in an acute care setting. 3 The nurse often assumes the interprofessional role of care coordinator when providing patient care in an acute care setting. 4 The nurse does not often assume the interprofessional role of massage therapist when providing patient care in an acute care setting.TestBankWorld.org PTS: 1 CON: Nursing Roles 5. ANS: 1 Chapter number and title: 1, Foundations of Medical-Surgical Practice Chapter learning objective: Discussing the incorporation of evidence-based practices into medical-surgical nursing Chapter page reference: 003 Heading: Box 1.3 Steps of Evidence-Based Practice Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Implementation Client Need: Safe and Effective Care Environment/Management of Care Cognitive level: Analysis [Analyzing] Concept: Evidence-Based Practice Difficulty: Difficult Feedback 1 The first step of evidence-based practice is to develop a question based on the clinical issue. 2 The last step of evidence-based practice is to disseminate findings. 3 The second step of evidence-based practice is to conduct a review of the literature, or current evidence, available. 4 The fifth step of evidence-based practice is to evaluate the outcomes associated with the practice change. PTS: 1 CON: Evidence-Based Practice 6. ANS: 4 Chapter number and title: 1, Foundations of Medical-Surgical Nursing Practice Chapter learning objective: Discussing the incorporation of evidence-based practices into medical-surgical nursing Chapter page reference: 004 Heading: Box 1.4 Evaluating Levels of Evidence Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Planning Client Need: Safe and Effective Care Environment/Management of Care Cognitive level: Comprehension [Understanding] Concept: Evidence-Based Practice Difficulty: Easy Feedback 1 The lower the numeric value of the evidence the greater the support for a change in practice. Level IV evidence does not carry the lowest level of support for a practice change. 2 The lower the numeric value of the evidence the greater the support for a change in practice. Level V evidence does not carry the lowest level of support for a practice change. 3 The lower the numeric value of the evidence the greater the support for a change in practice. Level VI evidence does not carry the lowest level of support for a practice change. 4 The lower the numeric value of the evidence the greater the support for a change in practice. Level VII evidence carries the lowest level of support for a practice change.

Test Bank for Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Care , (4th Edition)

CONTENTS SECTION 1: FETAL DEVELOPMENT, ASSESSMENT, AND DELIVERY 1. Fetal Lung Development 2. Fetal Gas Exchange and Circulation 3. Antenatal Assessment and High-Risk Delivery SECTION 2: ASSESSMENT AND MONITORING OF THE NEONATAL AND PEDIATRIC PATIENT 4. Exam and Assessment of the Neonatal and Pediatric Patient 5. Pulmonary Function Testing and Bedside Pulmonary Mechanics 6. Radiographic Assessment 7. Bronchoscopy 8. Invasive Blood Gas Analysis and Monitoring 9. Non-Invasive Monitoring in Neonatal and Pediatric Care SECTION 3: THERAPEUTIC PROCEDURES FOR TREATMENT OF NEONATAL AND PEDIATRIC DISORDERS 10. Oxygen Administration 11. Aerosols and Administration of Medication 12. Airway Clearance Techniques and Lung Volume Expansion 13. Airway Management 14. Surfactant Replacement 15. Non-Invasive Mechanical Ventilation and Continuous Positive Pressure of the Neonate 16. Non-Invasive Mechanical Ventilation of the Child 17. Mechanical Ventilation of the Neonatal and Pediatric Patient 18. Administration of Gas Mixtures 19. Extracorporeal Life Support 20. Pharmacology 21. Thoracic Organ Transplantation 22. Neonatal Complications and Pulmonary Disorders SECTION 4: NEONATAL AND PEDIATRIC DISORDERS: PRESENTATION, DIAGNOSIS, AND TREATMENT 23. Congenital and Surgical Disorders that Affect Respiratory Care 24. Congenital Cardiac Defects 25. Sudden Infant Death Syndrome and Sleep Disorders 26. Pediatric Airway Disorders and Pulmonary Infections 27. Asthma 28. Cystic Fibrosis 29. Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome 30. Shock, Sepsis, and Anaphylaxis 31. Pediatric Trauma 32. Disorders of the Pleura 33. Neurological and Neuromuscular Disorders SECTION 5: NEONATAL AND PEDIATRIC TRANSIENT AND AMBULATORY CARE 34. Transport of Infants and Children 35. Home Care 36. Quality and Safety NEW!
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