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Test Bank For Foundations for Population Health in Community Public Health Nursing 5th Edition Stanhope

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Test Bank For Foundations for Population Health in Community Public Health Nursing 5th Edition Stanhope

Chapter 01: Community- and Prevention-Oriented Practice to Improve Population
Health
Stanhope: Foundations for Population Health in Community/Public Health Nursing,5th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Which of the following best describes community-based nursing?
a. A practice in which care is provided for individuals and families
b. Providing care with a focus on the group’s needs
c. Giving care with a focus on the aggregate’s needs
d. A value system in which all clients receive optimal care
ANS: A
By definition, community-based nursing is a setting-specific practice in which care is
provided for “sick” individuals and families where they live, work, and attend school. The
emphasis is on acute and chronic care and the provision of comprehensive, coordinated, and
continuous care. These nurses may be generalists or specialists in maternal–infant, pediatric,
adult, or psychiatric mental health nursing. Community-based nursing emphasizes acute and
chronic care to individuals and families, rather than focusing on groups, aggregates, or
systems.

2. Which of the following best describes community-oriented nursing?
a. Focusing on the provision of care to individuals and families
b. Providing care to manage acute or chronic conditions
c. Giving direct care to ill individuals within their family setting
d. Having the goal of health promotion and disease prevention
ANS: D
By definition, community-oriented nursing has the goal of preserving, protecting, or
maintaining health and preventing disease to promote the quality of life. All nurses may focus
on individuals and families, give direct care to ill persons within their family setting, and help
manage acute or chronic conditions. These definitions are not specific to community-oriented
nursing.

3. Which of the following is the primary focus of public health nursing?
a. Families and groups
b. Illness-oriented care
c. Individuals within the family unit
d. Health care of communities and populations
ANS: D
In public health nursing the primary focus is on the health care of communities and
populations rather than on individuals, groups, and families. The goal is to prevent disease and
preserve, promote, restore, and protect health for the community and the population within it.
Community-based nurses deal primarily with illness-oriented care of individuals and families
acorss the life span. The aim is to amanage acute and chronic health conditions in the
community, and the focus of practice is on individual or family-centered illness care.

Foundations for Population Health in Community Public Health Nursing 5th Edition Stanhope

4. Which of the following is responsible for the dramatic increase in life expectancy during the
20th century?
a. Technology increases in the field of medical laboratory research
b. Advances in surgical techniques and procedures
c. Sanitation and other population-based prevention programs
d. Use of antibiotics to fight infections
ANS: C
Improvements in control of infectious diseases through immunizations, sanitation, and other
population-based prevention programs led to the increase in life expectancy from less than 50
years in 1900 to more than 78 years in 2013. Although people are excited when a new drug is
discovered that cures a disease or when a new way to transplant organs is perfected, it is
important to know about the significant gains in the health of populations that have come
largely from public health accomplishments.

5. A nurse is developing a plan to decrease the number of premature deaths in the community.
Which of the following interventions would most likely be implemented by the nurse?
a. Increase the community’s knowledge about hospice care.
b. Promote healthy lifestyle behavior choices among the community members.
c. Encourage employers to have wellness centers at each industrial site.
d. Ensure timely and effective medical intervention and treatment for community
members.
ANS: B
Public health approaches could help prevent premature deaths by influencing the way people
eat, drink, drive, engage in exercise, and treat the environment. Increasing knowledge of
hospice care, encouraging on-site wellness centers, and ensuring timely treatment of medical
conditions do not address the focus of improving overall health through health promotion
strategies. This is the major method that is suggested to decrease the incidence of premature
death.

6. Which of the following is a basic assumption of public health efforts?
a. Health disparities among any groups are morally and legally wrong.
b. Health care is the most important priority in government planning and funding.
c. The health of individuals cannot be separated from the health of the community.
d. The government is responsible for lengthening the life span of Americans.
ANS: C
Public health practice focuses on the community as a whole, and the effect of the
community’s health status (resources) on the health of individuals, families, and groups. The
goal is to prevent disease and disability and promote and protect the health of the community
as a whole. Public health can be described as what society collectively does to ensure that
conditions exist in which people can be healthy. The basic assumptions of public health do not
judge the morality of health disparities. The focus is on prevention of illness not on spending
more on illness care. Additionally, individual responsibility for making healthy choices is the
directive for lengthening life span not the role of the government.

7. Which of the following actions would most likely be performed by a public health nurse?
a. Asking community leaders what interventions should be chosen
b. Assessing the community and deciding on appropriate interventions
c. Using data from the main health care institutions in the community to determine

Foundations for Population Health in Community Public Health Nursing 5th Edition Stanhope needed health services
d. Working with community groups to create policies to improve the environment
ANS: D
Although the public health nurse might engage in any of the tasks listed, he or she works
primarily with members of the community to carry out core public health functions, including
assessment of the population as a whole and engaging in promoting health and improving the
environment. The interventions of asking community leaders which interventions should be
chosen, asessing the community and deciding on appropriate interventions, and using data
from health care institutions do not demonstrate the engagement of the community when
making decisions about what the community actually wants and needs.

8. Which of the following public health nurses most clearly fulfills the responsibilities of this
role?
a. The nurse who met with several groups to discuss community recreation issues
b. The nurse who spent the day attending meetings of various health agencies
c. The nurse who talked to several people about their particular health concerns
d. The nurse who watched the city council meeting on local cable television
ANS: B
Any of these descriptions might represent a nurse communicating, cooperating, or
collaborating with community residents or groups about health concerns. However, the nurse
who spent the day attending meetings of various health agencies is the most representative,
because in public health, concerns are addressed from a broader perspective. In public health,
broad concerns of the community should be addressed. Concerns are broader than recreation,
individual concerns are not as important as aggregate priorities, and watching television (a
one-way form of communication) is less effective than interacting with others.

9. Which of the following best defines aggregate?
a. A large group of persons
b. A collection of individuals and families
c. A collection of people who share one or more characteristics
d. Another name for demographic group
ANS: C
An aggregate is defined a collection of people who share one or more personal or
environmental characteristics. Members of a community can be defined in terms of either
geography (e.g., a county, a group of counties, or a state) or a special interest (e.g., children
attending a particular school). These members make up a population. The term population
may be used interchangeably with the term aggregate. A large group of persons, a collection
of individuals and families, and another name for demograhpic group are not accurate
definitions of the term aggregate.

10. A registered nurse was just employed as a public health nurse. Which question would be the
most relevant for the nurse to ask?
a. “Which groups are at the greatest risk for problems?”
b. “Which patients should I see first as I begin my day?”
c. “With which physicians will I be most closely collaborating?”
d. “With which nursing assistants will I partner the most?”
ANS: A
NURSINGTB.COM
Foundations for Population Health in Community Public Health Nursing 5th Edition Stanhope

Asking which groups are at greatest risk reflects a community-oriented perspective. The
incorrect responses reflect a focus on individuals rather than a community-oriented
perspective.

11. Making sure that essential community-oriented health services are available defines which of
the core public health functions?
a. Policy development
b. Assessment
c. Assurance
d. Scientific knowledge-based care
ANS: C
Assurance includes making sure that essential community-oriented health services are
available in the community. The definition does not fit the terms assessment, policy
development. Scientific knowledge-based care is not a core function of public health.
Assessment is systematic data collection on the population, monitoring the population’s health
status, and making information available about the health of the community. Policy
development refers to efforts to develop policies that support the health of the population,
including using a scientific knowledge base to make policy decisions.

12. When talking to a women’s group at the senior citizens’ center, the nurse reminded them that
the only way the center would be able to afford to provide transportation services for them
would be for them to continue to write letters to their local city council representatives
requesting funding for such a service. What was the nurse trying to accomplish through this
action?
a. Ensure that the women did not expect the nurse to solve their problem.
b. Demonstrate that the nurse understood the women’s concerns and needs.
c. Express empathy, support, and concern.
d. Help the women engage in political action.
ANS: D
Public health nurses engage themselves and others in policy development and encourage and
assist persons to communicate their needs to those with the power to take action. The nurse is demonstrating the role of advocate through this action, it goes beyond merely understanding the women’s concern, and instead mobilizes them to take action. This action does not
demonstrate the nurse showing empathy rather the nurse is empowering these women.

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Test Bank For Foundations for Population Health in Community Public Health Nursing 5th Edition Stanhope

Chapter 01: Community- and Prevention-Oriented Practice to Improve Population Health Stanhope: Foundations for Population Health in Community/Public Health Nursing,5th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following best describes community-based nursing? a. A practice in which care is provided for individuals and families b. Providing care with a focus on the group’s needs c. Giving care with a focus on the aggregate’s needs d. A value system in which all clients receive optimal care ANS: A By definition, community-based nursing is a setting-specific practice in which care is provided for “sick” individuals and families where they live, work, and attend school. The emphasis is on acute and chronic care and the provision of comprehensive, coordinated, and continuous care. These nurses may be generalists or specialists in maternal–infant, pediatric, adult, or psychiatric mental health nursing. Community-based nursing emphasizes acute and chronic care to individuals and families, rather than focusing on groups, aggregates, or systems. 2. Which of the following best describes community-oriented nursing? a. Focusing on the provision of care to individuals and families b. Providing care to manage acute or chronic conditions c. Giving direct care to ill individuals within their family setting d. Having the goal of health promotion and disease prevention ANS: D By definition, community-oriented nursing has the goal of preserving, protecting, or maintaining health and preventing disease to promote the quality of life. All nurses may focus on individuals and families, give direct care to ill persons within their family setting, and help manage acute or chronic conditions. These definitions are not specific to community-oriented nursing. 3. Which of the following is the primary focus of public health nursing? a. Families and groups b. Illness-oriented care c. Individuals within the family unit d. Health care of communities and populations ANS: D In public health nursing the primary focus is on the health care of communities and populations rather than on individuals, groups, and families. The goal is to prevent disease and preserve, promote, restore, and protect health for the community and the population within it. Community-based nurses deal primarily with illness-oriented care of individuals and families acorss the life span. The aim is to amanage acute and chronic health conditions in the community, and the focus of practice is on individual or family-centered illness care. Foundations for Population Health in Community Public Health Nursing 5th Edition Stanhope 4. Which of the following is responsible for the dramatic increase in life expectancy during the 20th century? a. Technology increases in the field of medical laboratory research b. Advances in surgical techniques and procedures c. Sanitation and other population-based prevention programs d. Use of antibiotics to fight infections ANS: C Improvements in control of infectious diseases through immunizations, sanitation, and other population-based prevention programs led to the increase in life expectancy from less than 50 years in 1900 to more than 78 years in 2013. Although people are excited when a new drug is discovered that cures a disease or when a new way to transplant organs is perfected, it is important to know about the significant gains in the health of populations that have come largely from public health accomplishments. 5. A nurse is developing a plan to decrease the number of premature deaths in the community. Which of the following interventions would most likely be implemented by the nurse? a. Increase the community’s knowledge about hospice care. b. Promote healthy lifestyle behavior choices among the community members. c. Encourage employers to have wellness centers at each industrial site. d. Ensure timely and effective medical intervention and treatment for community members. ANS: B Public health approaches could help prevent premature deaths by influencing the way people eat, drink, drive, engage in exercise, and treat the environment. Increasing knowledge of hospice care, encouraging on-site wellness centers, and ensuring timely treatment of medical conditions do not address the focus of improving overall health through health promotion strategies. This is the major method that is suggested to decrease the incidence of premature death. 6. Which of the following is a basic assumption of public health efforts? a. Health disparities among any groups are morally and legally wrong. b. Health care is the most important priority in government planning and funding. c. The health of individuals cannot be separated from the health of the community. d. The government is responsible for lengthening the life span of Americans. ANS: C Public health practice focuses on the community as a whole, and the effect of the community’s health status (resources) on the health of individuals, families, and groups. The goal is to prevent disease and disability and promote and protect the health of the community as a whole. Public health can be described as what society collectively does to ensure that conditions exist in which people can be healthy. The basic assumptions of public health do not judge the morality of health disparities. The focus is on prevention of illness not on spending more on illness care. Additionally, individual responsibility for making healthy choices is the directive for lengthening life span not the role of the government. 7. Which of the following actions would most likely be performed by a public health nurse? a. Asking community leaders what interventions should be chosen b. Assessing the community and deciding on appropriate interventions c. Using data from the main health care institutions in the community to determine Foundations for Population Health in Community Public Health Nursing 5th Edition Stanhope needed health services d. Working with community groups to create policies to improve the environment ANS: D Although the public health nurse might engage in any of the tasks listed, he or she works primarily with members of the community to carry out core public health functions, including assessment of the population as a whole and engaging in promoting health and improving the environment. The interventions of asking community leaders which interventions should be chosen, asessing the community and deciding on appropriate interventions, and using data from health care institutions do not demonstrate the engagement of the community when making decisions about what the community actually wants and needs. 8. Which of the following public health nurses most clearly fulfills the responsibilities of this role? a. The nurse who met with several groups to discuss community recreation issues b. The nurse who spent the day attending meetings of various health agencies c. The nurse who talked to several people about their particular health concerns d. The nurse who watched the city council meeting on local cable television ANS: B Any of these descriptions might represent a nurse communicating, cooperating, or collaborating with community residents or groups about health concerns. However, the nurse who spent the day attending meetings of various health agencies is the most representative, because in public health, concerns are addressed from a broader perspective. In public health, broad concerns of the community should be addressed. Concerns are broader than recreation, individual concerns are not as important as aggregate priorities, and watching television (a one-way form of communication) is less effective than interacting with others. 9. Which of the following best defines aggregate? a. A large group of persons b. A collection of individuals and families c. A collection of people who share one or more characteristics d. Another name for demographic group ANS: C An aggregate is defined a collection of people who share one or more personal or environmental characteristics. Members of a community can be defined in terms of either geography (e.g., a county, a group of counties, or a state) or a special interest (e.g., children attending a particular school). These members make up a population. The term population may be used interchangeably with the term aggregate. A large group of persons, a collection of individuals and families, and another name for demograhpic group are not accurate definitions of the term aggregate. 10. A registered nurse was just employed as a public health nurse. Which question would be the most relevant for the nurse to ask? a. “Which groups are at the greatest risk for problems?” b. “Which patients should I see first as I begin my day?” c. “With which physicians will I be most closely collaborating?” d. “With which nursing assistants will I partner the most?” ANS: A NURSINGTB.COM Foundations for Population Health in Community Public Health Nursing 5th Edition Stanhope Asking which groups are at greatest risk reflects a community-oriented perspective. The incorrect responses reflect a focus on individuals rather than a community-oriented perspective. 11. Making sure that essential community-oriented health services are available defines which of the core public health functions? a. Policy development b. Assessment c. Assurance d. Scientific knowledge-based care ANS: C Assurance includes making sure that essential community-oriented health services are available in the community. The definition does not fit the terms assessment, policy development. Scientific knowledge-based care is not a core function of public health. Assessment is systematic data collection on the population, monitoring the population’s health status, and making information available about the health of the community. Policy development refers to efforts to develop policies that support the health of the population, including using a scientific knowledge base to make policy decisions. 12. When talking to a women’s group at the senior citizens’ center, the nurse reminded them that the only way the center would be able to afford to provide transportation services for them would be for them to continue to write letters to their local city council representatives requesting funding for such a service. What was the nurse trying to accomplish through this action? a. Ensure that the women did not expect the nurse to solve their problem. b. Demonstrate that the nurse understood the women’s concerns and needs. c. Express empathy, support, and concern. d. Help the women engage in political action. ANS: D Public health nurses engage themselves and others in policy development and encourage and assist persons to communicate their needs to those with the power to take action. The nurse is demonstrating the role of advocate through this action, it goes beyond merely understanding the women’s concern, and instead mobilizes them to take action. This action does not demonstrate the nurse showing empathy rather the nurse is empowering these women.

Test Bank for The Human Body in Health and Disease 7th Edition by Patton

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.   Which word is derived from the Greek word meaning “cutting up”?
a. Dissection
b. Physiology
c. Pathology
d. Anatomy
ANS:   D                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Memorization REF:    P. 3                  TOP:    Introduction 2.   Which word is defined as the study of the function of living organisms and their parts?
a. Dissection
b. Physiology
c. Pathology
d. Anatomy
ANS:   B                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Memorization REF:    p. 3                  TOP:    Introduction 3.   Which word is defined as the scientific study of disease?
a. Dissection
b. Physiology
c. Pathology
d. Anatomy
ANS:   C                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Memorization REF:    P. 3                  TOP:    Introduction 4.   Cells
a. are more complex than tissues.
b. are the first level of organization in the body.
c. are the smallest living units of structure and function in the body.
d. both B and C.
ANS:   C                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Application     REF:    p. 6 TOP:    Structural levels of organization 5.   A group of cells that act together to perform a function is called a(n)
a. molecule.
b. organ.
c. tissue.
d. organism.
ANS:   C                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Memorization REF:    p. 6                  TOP:    Structural levels of organization 6.   The heart is an example of a(n)
a. organ.
b. tissue.
c. organism.
d. system.
ANS:   A                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Application     REF:    p. 6 TOP:    Structural levels of organization 7.   The levels of organization from most simple to most complex are
a. cell chemical organ tissue system.
b. tissue cell chemical organ system.
c. chemical tissue cell organ system.
d. chemical cell tissue organ system.
ANS:   D                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Memorization REF:    p. 5                  TOP:    Structural levels of organization 8.   When using directional terms to describe the body, it is assumed that the body is in what position?
a. Supine
b. Anatomical
c. Lateral
d. Prone
ANS:   B                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Memorization REF:    p. 7                  TOP:    Anatomical position 9.   The supine position
a. describes the body lying face up.
b. is also called anatomical position.
c. describes the body lying face down.
d. both A and B.
ANS:   A                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Memorization REF:    p. 7                  TOP:    Anatomical position 10.   The prone position
a. describes the body lying face up.
b. is also called the anatomical position.
c. describes the body lying face down.
d. both B and C.
ANS:   C                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Memorization REF:    p. 7                  TOP:    Anatomical position 11.   Because humans walk upright, the term dorsal can be used in place of the term
a. inferior.
b. posterior.
c. anterior.
d. distal.
ANS:   B                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Memorization REF:    p. 7                  TOP:    Anatomical direction 12.   The opposite term for posterior in humans is
a. superior.
b. anterior.
c. ventral.
d. both B and C.
ANS:   D                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Application     REF:    p. 7 TOP:    Anatomical direction 13.   The opposite term for superficial is
a. deep.
b. inferior.
c. posterior.
d. medial.
ANS:   A                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Memorization REF:    p. 7                  TOP:    Anatomical direction 14.   The body section that divides the right ear from the left ear is a _____ section.
a. frontal
b. sagittal
c. coronal
d. transverse
ANS:   B                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Application     REF:    p. 9 TOP:    Planes or body sections 15.   The body section that divides the nose from the back of the head is a _____ section.
a. frontal
b. sagittal
c. midsagittal
d. transverse
ANS:   A                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Application     REF:    p. 9 TOP:    Planes or body sections 16.   A section that divides the body into mirror images is a _____ section.
a. frontal
b. coronal
c. midsagittal
d. transverse
ANS:   C                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Application     REF:    p. 9 TOP:    Planes or body sections 17.   The two major body cavities are called
a. thoracic and abdominal.
b. thoracic and pelvic.
c. dorsal and ventral.
d. mediastinum and pleural.
ANS:   C                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Memorization REF:    p. 9                  TOP:    Body cavities 18.   The liver can be found in the
a. upper right quadrant.
b. epigastric region.
c. hypogastric region.
d. both A and B.
ANS:   D                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Application     REF:    p. 10 TOP:    Body cavities 19.   The word “leg” correctly describes the
a. area from the hip to the foot.
b. area from the knee to the ankle.
c. area between the hip and the knee.
d. femoral area.
ANS:   B                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Memorization REF:    p. 13                TOP:    Body regions 20.   The human body tries to maintain a constant body temperature. This is an example of
a. homeostasis.
b. a positive feedback loop.
c. an effector.
d. a sensor.
ANS:   A                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Application     REF:    p. 14 TOP:    The balance of body functions 21.   The part of a feedback loop that has the direct effect on the regulated condition is called
a. homeostasis.
b. the effector.
c. the sensor.
d. the control center.
ANS:   B                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Memorization REF:    p. 14                TOP:    The balance of body functions 22.   The part of the feedback loop that detects a change in the regulated condition is called
a. homeostasis.
b. the effector.
c. the sensor.
d. the control center.
ANS:   C                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Memorization REF:    p. 14                TOP:    The balance of body functions 23.   The part of the feedback loop that compares the present condition within a body part or region to its homeostatic condition is called
a. homeostasis.
b. the effector.
c. the sensor.
d. the control center.
ANS:   D                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Memorization REF:    p. 14                TOP:    The balance of body functions 24.   When your body temperature drops below normal, your muscles begin to contract rapidly, making you shiver and generating heat. In this case your muscles are acting as the
a. sensor.
b. effector.
c. control center.
d. both A and C.
ANS:   B                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Synthesis         REF:    p. 14 TOP:    The balance of body functions 25.   Which of the following body functions is an example of a positive feedback loop?
a. Maintaining a pH of 7.45 in the body
b. Forming a blood clot
c. Uterine contractions during labor
d. Both B and C
ANS:   D                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Application     REF:    pp. 15-16 TOP:    The balance of body functions 26.   The level of organization that precedes the organ level is the _____ level.
a. system
b. cellular
c. tissue
d. chemical
ANS:   C                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Memorization REF:    p. 5                  TOP:    Structural levels of organization 27.   Which of these terms cannot be applied to a body in the anatomical position?
a. Dorsal
b. Posterior
c. Supine
d. Both A and B
ANS:   C                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Memorization REF:    p. 7                  TOP:    Anatomical position 28.   Which term means toward the head?
a. Anterior
b. Superior
c. Superficial
d. Ventral
ANS:   B                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Memorization REF:    p. 7                  TOP:    Anatomical direction 29.   Which describes the anatomical relationship of the wrist to the elbow?
a. The elbow is proximal to the wrist.
b. The elbow is distal to the wrist.
c. The elbow is superficial to the wrist.
d. The elbow is lateral to the wrist.
ANS:   A                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Application     REF:    p. 7

Test Bank for Introduction to Critical Care Nursing 7th Edition by Sole

Chapter 05: Comfort and Sedation

Sole: Introduction to Critical Care Nursing, 7th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.Nociceptors differ from other nerve receptors in the body in that they:
a. adapt very little to continual pain response.
b. inhibit the infiltration of neutrophils and eosinophils.
c. play no role in the inflammatory response.
d. transmit only the thermal stimuli.
ANS: A Nociceptors are stimulated by mechanical, chemical, or thermal stimuli. Nociceptors differ from other nerve receptors in the body in that they adapt very little to the pain response. The body continues to experience pain until the stimulus is discontinued or therapy is initiated. This is a protective mechanism so that the body tissues being damaged will be removed from harm. Nociceptors usually initiate inflammatory responses near injured capillaries. As such, the response promotes infiltration of injured tissues with neutrophils and eosinophils. DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember/Knowledge REF: p. 54 OBJ:Discuss the physiology of pain and anxiety. TOP:Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 2.A postsurgical patient is on a ventilator in the critical care unit. The patient has been tolerating the ventilator well and has not required any sedation. On assessment, the nurse notes the patient is tachycardic and hypertensive with an increased respiratory rate of 28 breaths/min. The patient has been suctioned recently via the endotracheal tube, and the airway is clear. The patient responds appropriately to the nurse’s commands. The nurse should:
a. assess the patient’s level of pain.
b. decrease the ventilator rate.
c. provide sedation as ordered.
d. suction the patient again.
ANS: A Pulse, respirations, and blood pressure frequently result from activation of the sympathetic nervous system by the pain stimulus. Because the patient is postoperative, the patient should be assessed for the presence of pain and need for pain medication. Decreasing the ventilator rate will not help in this situation. Providing sedation may calm the patient but will not solve the problem if the physiological changes are from pain. The patient has just been suctioned and the airway is clear. There is no need to suction again. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze/Analysis REF: p. 55 OBJ: Describe the positive and negative effects of pain and anxiety in critically ill patients. TOP:Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 3.The assessment of pain and anxiety is a continuous process. When critically ill patients exhibit signs of anxiety, the nurse’s first priority is to
a. administer antianxiety medications as ordered.
b. administer pain medication as ordered.
c. identify and treat the underlying cause.
d. reassess the patient hourly to determine whether symptoms resolve on their own.
ANS: C When patients exhibit signs of anxiety or agitation, the first priority is to identify and treat the underlying cause, which could be hypoxemia, hypoglycemia, hypotension, pain, or withdrawal from alcohol and drugs. Treatment is not initiated until assessment is completed. Medication may not be needed if the underlying cause can be resolved. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply/Application REF: p. 70 | Table 5-11 OBJ: Describe methods and tools for assessing pain and anxiety in the critically ill patient. TOP:Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 4.Both the electroencephalogram (EEG) monitor and the Bispectral Index Score (BIS) or Patient State Index (PSI) analyzer monitors are used to assess patient sedation levels in critically ill patients. The BIS and PSI monitors are simpler to use because they
a. can be used only on heavily sedated patients.
b. can be used only on pediatric patients.
c. provide raw EEG data and a numeric value.
d. require only five leads.
ANS: C The BIS and PSI have very simple steps for application, and results are displayed as raw EEG data and the numeric value. A single electrode is placed across the patient’s forehead and is attached to a monitor. These monitors can be used in both children and adults and in patients with varying levels of sedation. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand/Comprehension REF: p. 60 OBJ: Describe methods and tools for assessing pain and anxiety in the critically ill patient. TOP:Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 5.The nurse is caring for a patient who requires administration of a neuromuscular blocking agent to facilitate ventilation with nontraditional modes. The nurse understands that neuromuscular blocking agents provide:
a. antianxiety effects.
b. complete analgesia.
c. high levels of sedation.
d. no sedation or analgesia.
ANS: D Neuromuscular blocking (NMB) agents do not possess any sedative or analgesic properties. Patients who receive NMBs must also receive sedatives and pain medication. DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember/Knowledge REF: p. 72 OBJ: Discuss assessment and management challenges in subsets of critically ill patients. TOP:Nursing Process Step: Implementation MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 6.The patient is receiving neuromuscular blockade. Which nursing assessment indicates a target level of paralysis?
a. Glasgow Coma Scale score of 3
b. Train-of-four yields two twitches
c. Bispectral index of 60
d. CAM-ICU positive
ANS: B A train-of-four response of two twitches (out of four) using a peripheral nerve stimulator indicates adequate paralysis. The Glasgow Coma Scale does not assess paralysis; it is an indicator of consciousness. The bispectral index provides an assessment of sedation. The CAM-ICU is a tool to assess delirium. DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember/Knowledge REF: p. 73 OBJ: Discuss assessment and management challenges in subsets of critically ill patients. TOP:Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 7.The nurse is concerned that the patient will pull out the endotracheal tube. As part of the nursing management, the nurse obtains an order for
a. arm binders or splints.
b. a higher dosage of lorazepam.
c. propofol.
d. soft wrist restraints.
ANS: D The priority in caring for agitated patients is safety. The least restrictive methods of keeping the patient safe are appropriate. If possible, the tube or device causing irritation should be removed, but if that is not possible, the nurse must prevent the patient from pulling it out. Restraints are associated with an increased incidence of agitation and delirium. Therefore, restraints should not be used unless as a last resort for combative patients. The least amount of sedation is also recommended; therefore, neither increasing the dosage of lorazepam nor adding propofol is indicated and would be likely to prolong mechanical ventilation. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply/Application REF: p. 61 OBJ:Identify nonpharmacological and pharmacological strategies to promote comfort and reduce anxiety.TOP:Nursing Process Step: Planning MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment 8.The primary mode of action for neuromuscular blocking agents used in the management of some ventilated patients is
a. analgesia.
b. anticonvulsant therapy.
c. paralysis.
d. sedation.
ANS: C These agents cause respiratory muscle paralysis. They do not provide analgesia or sedation. They do not have anticonvulsant properties. DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember/Knowledge REF: p. 72 OBJ: Discuss assessment and management challenges in subsets of critically ill patients. TOP:Nursing Process Step: Implementation MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 9.The most important nursing intervention for patients who receive neuromuscular blocking agents is to
a. administer sedatives in conjunction with the neuromuscular blocking agents.
b. assess neurological status every 30 minutes.
c. avoid interaction with the patient, because he or she won’t be able to hear.
d. restrain the patient to avoid self-extubation.
ANS: A Neuromuscular blocking agents cause paralysis only; they do not cause sedation. Therefore, concomitant administration of sedatives is essential. Neurological status is monitored according to unit protocol. Nurses should communicate with all critically ill patients, regardless of their status. If the patient is paralyzed, restraining devices may not be needed. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply/Application REF: p. 72 OBJ: Discuss assessment and management challenges in subsets of critically ill patients. TOP:Nursing Process Step: Implementation MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 10.The best way to monitor agitation and effectiveness of treating it in the critically ill patient is to use a/the:
a. Confusion Assessment Method (CAM-ICU).
b. FACES assessment tool.
c. Glasgow Coma Scale.
d. Richmond Agitation Sedation Scale.
ANS: D Various sedation scales are available to assist the nurse in monitoring the level of sedation and assessing response to treatment. The Richmond Agitation Sedation Scale is a commonly used tool that has been validated. The CAM-ICU assesses for delirium. The FACES scale assesses pain. The Glasgow Coma Scale assesses neurological status. DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember/Knowledge REF: p. 59 | Table 5-5 OBJ: Describe methods and tools for assessing pain and anxiety in the critically ill patient. TOP:Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 11.The nurse is caring for a patient receiving intravenous ibuprofen for pain management. The nurse recognizes which laboratory assessment to be a possible side effect of the ibuprofen?
a. Creatinine: 3.1 mg/dL
b. Platelet count 350,000 billion/L
c. White blood count 13, 550 mm3
d. ALT 25 U/L
ANS: A Ibuprofen can result in renal insufficiency, which may be noted in an elevated serum creatinine level. Thrombocytopenia (low platelet count) is another possible side effect. This platelet count is elevated. An elevated white blood count indicates infection. Although ibuprofen is cleared primarily by the kidneys, it is also important to assess liver function, which would show elevated liver enzymes, not low values such as shown here. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze/Analysis REF: p. 71 OBJ:Identify nonpharmacological and pharmacological strategies to promote comfort and reduce anxiety.TOP:Nursing Process Step: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 12.The nurse is assessing pain levels in a critically ill patient using the Behavioral Pain Scale. The nurse recognizes __________ as indicating the greatest level of pain.
a. brow lowering
b. eyelid closing
c. grimacing
d. relaxed facial expression
ANS: C The Behavioral Pain Scale issues the most points, indicating the greatest amount of pain, to assessment of facial grimacing. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand/Comprehension REF: p. 58 | Table 5-3 OBJ: Describe methods and tools for assessing pain and anxiety in the critically ill patient. TOP:Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 13.The nurse wishes to assess the quality of a patient’s pain. Which of the following questions is appropriate to obtain this assessment if the patient is able to give a verbal response?
a. “Is the pain constant or intermittent?”
b. “Is the pain sharp, dull, or crushing?”
c. “What makes the pain better? Worse?”
d. “When did the pain start?”
ANS: B If the patient can describe the pain, the nurse can assess quality, such as sharp, dull, or crushing. The other responses relate to continuous or intermittent presence, what provides relief, and duration. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand/Comprehension REF: p. 56 OBJ: Describe methods and tools for assessing pain and anxiety in the critically ill patient. TOP:Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 14.The nurse is assessing the patient’s pain using the Critical Care Pain Observation Tool. Which of the following assessments would indicate the greatest likelihood of pain and need for nursing intervention?
a. Absence of vocal sounds
b. Fighting the ventilator
c. Moving legs in bed
d. Relaxed muscles in upper extremities
ANS: B Fighting the ventilator is rated with the greatest number of points for compliance with the ventilator, and could indicate pain or anxiety. Absence of vocal sounds (e.g., no crying) and relaxed muscles do not indicate pain and are not given a point value. The patient may be moving the legs as a method of range of motion, not necessarily in response to pain. The patient needs to be assessed for restlessness if the movement is excessive. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply/Application REF: p. 59 | Table 5-4 OBJ: Describe methods and tools for assessing pain and anxiety in the critically ill patient. TOP:Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 15.The nurse is caring for four patients on the progressive care unit. Which patient is at greatest risk for developing delirium?
a. 36-year-old recovering from a motor vehicle crash; being treated with an evidence-based alcohol withdrawal protocol.
b. 54-year-old postoperative aortic aneurysm resection with a 40 pack-year history of smoking
c. 86-year-old from nursing home with dementia, postoperative from colon resection, still being mechanically ventilated
d. 95-year-old with community-acquired pneumonia; family has brought in eyeglasses and hearing aid
ANS: C From this list, the 86-year-old postoperative nursing home resident is at greatest risk due to advanced age, cognitive impairment, and some degree of respiratory failure. The 96-year-old has been provided eyeglasses and a hearing aid, which will decrease the risk of delirium. Smoking is a possible risk for delirium. The 36-year-old is receiving medications as part of an alcohol withdrawal protocol, which should decrease the risk for delirium. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze/Analysis REF: p. 61 | Table 5-8 OBJ: Describe methods and tools for assessing pain and anxiety in the critically ill patient. TOP:Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 16.The nurse is caring for a patient with hyperactive delirium. The nurse focuses interventions toward keeping the patient:
a. comfortable.
b. nourished.
c. safe.
d. sedated.
ANS: C The greatest priority in managing delirium is to keep the patient safe. Sedation may contribute to the development of delirium. Comfort and nutrition are important, but they are not priorities. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand/Comprehension REF: p. 61 OBJ: Identify nonpharmacological and pharmacological strategies to promote comfort, reduce anxiety, and prevent delirium. TOP: Nursing Process Step: Implementation MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment 17.The nurse is caring for a critically ill trauma patient who is expected to be hospitalized for an extended period. Which of the following nursing interventions would improve the patient’s well-being and reduce anxiety the most?
a. Arrange for the patient’s dog to be brought into the unit (per protocol).
b. Provide aromatherapy with scents such as lavender that are known to help anxiety.
c. Secure the harpist to come and play soothing music for an hour every afternoon.
d. Wheel the patient out near the unit aquarium to observe the tropical fish.
ANS: A Nonpharmacological approaches are helpful in reducing stress and anxiety, and each of these activities has the potential for improving the patient’s well-being. The patient is likely to benefit most from the presence of his or her own dog rather than the other activities, however; if unit protocol does not allow the patient’s own dog, the nurse should investigate the use of therapy animals or the other options. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply/Application REF: p. 64 OBJ: Identify nonpharmacological and pharmacological strategies to promote comfort, reduce anxiety, and prevent delirium. TOP: Nursing Process Step: Intervention MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Psychological Integrity 18.The nurse recognizes that which patient is likely to benefit most from patient-controlled analgesia (PCA)?
a. Patient with a C4 fracture and quadriplegia
b. Patient with a femur fracture and closed head injury
c. Postoperative patient who had elective bariatric surgery
d. Postoperative cardiac surgery patient with mild dementia
ANS: C The patient undergoing bariatric surgery (an elective procedure) is the best candidate for PCA as this patient should be awake, cognitively intact, and will have the acute pain related to the surgical procedure. The quadriplegic would be unable to operate the PCA pump. The cardiac surgery patient with mild dementia may not understand how to operate the pump. Likewise, the patient with the closed head injury may not be cognitively intact. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze/Analysis REF: p. 71 | Box 5-6 OBJ: Identify nonpharmacological and pharmacological strategies to promote comfort, reduce anxiety, and prevent delirium. TOP: Nursing Process Step: Intervention MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 19.The nurse is caring for a patient receiving a benzodiazepine intermittently. The nurse understands that the best way to administer such drugs is to:
a. administer around the clock, rather than as needed, to ensure constant sedation.
b. administer the medications through the feeding tube to prevent complications.
c. give the highest allowable dose for the greatest effect.
d. titrate to a predefined endpoint using a standard sedation scale.
ANS: D The best approach for administering benzodiazepines (and all sedatives) is to administer and titrate to a desired endpoint using a standard sedation scale. Administering around the clock as well as giving the highest allowable dose without basing it on an assessment target may result in excessive sedation. For greatest effect, most benzodiazepines are given intravenously. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply/Application REF: p. 72 OBJ: Identify nonpharmacological and pharmacological strategies to promote comfort, reduce anxiety, and prevent delirium. TOP: Nursing Process Step: Intervention MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 20.The nurse is concerned about the risk of alcohol withdrawal syndrome in a postoperative patient. Which statement by the nurse indicates understanding of management of this patient?
a. “Alcohol withdrawal is common; we see it all of the time in the trauma unit.”
b. “There is no way to assess for alcohol withdrawal.”
c. “This patient will require less pain medication.”
d. “We have initiated the alcohol withdrawal protocol.”
ANS: D The most important treatment of alcohol withdrawal syndrome is prevention. Many units have protocols that are initiated early to prevent the syndrome. Alcohol withdrawal syndrome is common; however, this statement does not indicate knowledge of management. The patient experiencing alcohol withdrawal may exhibit a variety of symptoms, such as disorientation, agitation, and tachycardia. Patients with substance abuse require increased dosages of pain medications. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand/Comprehension REF: p. 74 OBJ: Identify nonpharmacological and pharmacological strategies to promote comfort, reduce anxiety, and prevent delirium. TOP: Nursing Process Step: Intervention MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1.Nonpharmacological approaches to pain and/or anxiety that may best meet the needs of critically ill patients include: (Select all that apply.)
a. anaerobic exercise.
b. art therapy.
c. guided imagery.
d. music therapy.
e. animal therapy.
ANS: C, D, E Guided imagery is a powerful technique for controlling pain and anxiety, especially that associated with painful procedures. Similar to guided imagery, a music therapy program offers patients a diversionary technique for pain and anxiety relief. Likewise animal therapy has many benefits for the critically ill patient. Anaerobic exercise is not a nonpharmacological approach for managing pain and anxiety. Most critically ill patients are not able to participate in art therapy. DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember/Knowledge REF: pp. 62-64 OBJ:Identify nonpharmacological and pharmacological strategies to promote comfort and reduce anxiety.TOP:Nursing Process Step: Implementation MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 2.Which of the following statements regarding pain and anxiety are true? (Select all that apply.)
a. Anxiety is a state marked by apprehension, agitation, autonomic arousal, and/or fearful withdrawal.
b. Critically ill patients often experience anxiety, but they rarely experience pain.
c. Pain and anxiety are often interrelated and may be difficult to differentiate because their physiological and behavioral manifestations are similar.
d. Pain is defined by each patient; it is whatever the person experiencing the pain says it is.
e. While anxiety is unpleasant, it does not contribute to mortality or morbidity of the critically ill patient.
ANS: A, C, D Pain is defined by each patient, anxiety is associated with marked apprehension, and pain and anxiety are often interrelated. Critically ill patients commonly have both pain and anxiety. Anxiety does increase both morbidity and mortality in critically ill patients, especially those with cardiovascular disease. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand/Comprehension REF: p. 53 OBJ: Define pain and anxiety. TOP: Nursing Process Step: Planning MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 3.Which of the following factors predispose the critically ill patient to pain and anxiety? (Select all that apply.)
a. Inability to communicate
b. Invasive procedures
c. Monitoring devices
d. Nursing care
e. Preexisting conditions
ANS: A, B, C, D, E All of these factors predispose the patient to pain or anxiety. DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember/Knowledge REF: pp. 53-54 OBJ: Identify factors that place the critically ill patient at risk for developing pain and anxiety. TOP:Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 4.Choose the items that are common to both pain and anxiety. (Select all that apply.)
a. Cyclical exacerbation of one another
b. Require good nursing assessment for proper treatment
c. Response only to real phenomena
d. Subjective in nature
e. Perception may be influenced by prior experience
ANS: A, B, D, E Both pain and anxiety are subjective in nature. One can exacerbate the other in a vicious cycle that often requires good nursing assessment to manage the precipitating problem and break the cycle. Anxiety is a response to a real or perceived fear. Pain is a response to real or “phantom” phenomenon but always involves transmission of nerve impulses. Both relate to the patient’s perceptions of pain and fear. Previous experiences of both pain and/or anxiety can influence the patient’s perception of both. Anxiety is a response to real or perceived fear, and pain is a response to a real or “phantom” phenomenon. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand/Comprehension REF: pp. 53-54 OBJ: Identify factors that place the critically ill patient at risk for developing pain and anxiety. TOP:Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 5.Anxiety differs from pain in that: (Select all that apply.)
a. it is confined to neurological processes in the brain.
b. it is linked to reward and punishment centers in the limbic system.
c. it is subjective.
d. there is no actual tissue injury.
e. it can be increased by noise and light.
ANS: A, B, D, E Unlike pain, anxiety is linked to the reward and punishment centers in the limbic system of the brain. It is totally neurological and does not involve tissue injury. Like pain, it is a subjective phenomenon. Noise, light, and other stimuli can increase the intensity of anxiety. Both anxiety and pain are subjective in nature. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand/Comprehension REF: pp. 53-55 OBJ:Discuss the physiology of pain and anxiety. TOP: Nursing Process Step: Assessment 6.Factors in the critical care unit that may predispose the client to increased pain and anxiety include: (Select all that apply.)
a. an endotracheal tube.
b. frequent vital signs.
c. monitor alarms.
d. room temperature.
e. hostile environment.
ANS: A, B, C, D, E Anxiety is likely to result from loss of control, the inability to communicate, continuous noise and lighting, excessive stimulation (including repeated vital sign measurements), lack of mobility, and uncomfortable room temperatures. Increased anxiety levels often lead to increased pain perception. Environments that are perceived as hostile also contribute. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand/Comprehension REF: pp. 53-54 OBJ: Identify factors that place the critically ill patient at risk for developing pain and anxiety. TOP:Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 7.In the healthy individual, pain and anxiety: (Select all that apply.)
a. activate the sympathetic nervous system (SNS).
b. decrease stress levels.
c. help remove one from harm.
d. increase performance levels.
e. limit sympathetic nervous system activity.
ANS: A, C, D In the healthy person, pain and anxiety are adaptive mechanisms used to increase performance levels or to remove one from potential harm. The “fight or flight” response occurs in response to pain and/or anxiety and involves the activation of the sympathetic nervous system. Pain and anxiety, however, can induce significant stress. The SNS is activated, not limited, by pain and/or anxiety. DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember/Knowledge REF: p. 55 OBJ: Describe the positive and negative effects of pain and anxiety in critically ill patients. TOP:Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 8.The nurse is caring for a patient who is intubated and on a ventilator following extensive abdominal surgery. Although the patient is responsive, the nurse is not able to read the patient’s lips as the patient attempts to mouth the words. Which of the following assessment tools would be the most appropriate for the nurse to use when assessing the patient’s pain level? (Select all that apply.)
a. The FACES scale
b. Pain Intensity Scale
c. The PQRST method
d. The Visual Analogue Scale
e. The CAM tool
ANS: A, D

Test Bank for Public Health Science and Nursing Practice Caring For Populations by Savage

Chapter 10: Mental Health MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1.According to Healthy People 2020, which of the following are characteristics of mental health? Select all that apply.
A. Engaging in productive activities
B. Having fulfilling relationships
C. Experiencing alterations in thinking
D. Adapting to change
E. Coping with challenges
ANS: A, B, D, E Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders. pp. 225-226 Heading: Introduction Integrated Processes: N/A Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Knowledge [Remembering] Concept: Promoting Health Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
1. Mental health is a state of successful performance of mental function, including engagement in productive activities.
2. Mental health is a state of successful performance of mental function, including being able to form fulfilling relationships with other people.
3. This is incorrect; it is an example of a mental disorder. Mental disorders are health conditions that are characterized by alterations in thinking, mood, or behavior that are associated with distress or impaired functioning.
4. Mental health is a state of successful performance of mental function, including the ability to adapt to change.
5. Mental health is a state of successful performance of mental function, including the ability to cope with challenges.
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health MULTIPLE CHOICE 2.In 2010, approximately how many people in the United States reported experiencing mental disorders in the previous year?
A. 15%
B. 50%
C. 30%
D. 25%
ANS: D Objective: 1. Define the burden of disease related to mental disorders using current epidemiological frameworks. pp. 226-227 Heading: Epidemiology of Mental Disorders Integrated Processes: N/A Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Comprehension [Understanding] Concept: Promoting Health Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A This is incorrect. In the United States in 2010 an estimated 25% of adults reported having mental disorders in the previous year.
B This is incorrect. In the United States in 2010 an estimated 25% of adults reported having mental disorders in the previous year.
C This is incorrect. In the United States in 2010 an estimated 25% of adults reported having mental disorders in the previous year.
D In the United States in 2010 an estimated 25% of adults reported having mental disorders in the previous year.
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health 3.A student nurse is studying stress and mental health. The student nurse learns that ____ is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events.
A. Intervention
B. Support
C. Resilience
D. Therapy
ANS: C Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders. pp. 229-231 Heading: Protective Factors: Building Resilience Integrated Processes: Teaching/Learning Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Trauma; Stress; Promoting Health; Nursing Roles Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A This is incorrect. Resilience is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events. Preventive and treatment interventions are useful tools to build on an individual’s natural resilience to promote positive outcomes.
B This is incorrect. Resilience is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events. Support from family, friends, and community is an important part of strengthening an individual’s resilience.
C Resilience is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events.
D This is incorrect. Resilience is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events. Therapy is an important part of an overall treatment plan, in conjunction with intervention, support, and an individual’s capacity for resilience.
PTS: 1 CON: Trauma | Stress | Promoting Health | Nursing Roles 4.____ addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder.
A. Indicated prevention
B. Selective prevention
C. Universal prevention
D. Both 1 and 2
ANS: A Objective: 4. Apply current evidence-based population level interventions to the prevention of mental disorders and the promotion of optimal mental health for communities and populations. pp. 232-233 Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Institute of Medicine Model of Prevention Integrated Processes: Nursing Process Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Comprehension [Understanding] Concept: Promoting Health Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A Indicated prevention addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder. The purpose of indicated techniques is to delay or reduce the severity of a mental disorder.
B Selective prevention includes interventions provided to specific subgroups that are known to be at high risk for mental disorders owing to biological, psychological, social, or environmental factors but that have not yet been diagnosed with mental disorders. High-risk subgroups include but are not limited to those with a family history of mental disorders, history of adverse childhood events, or victims of violence.
C Universal prevention refers to prevention interventions provided to the entire population, not just those who may be at risk. The interventions include but are not limited to public service announcements provided to the public at large through billboards, media messages (print and electronic), or general health education programs.
D Indicated prevention addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder. The purpose of indicated techniques is to delay or reduce the severity of a mental disorder. Selective prevention includes interventions provided to specific subgroups that are known to be at high risk for mental disorders owing to biological, psychological, social, or environmental factors but that have not yet been diagnosed with mental disorders. High-risk subgroups include but are not limited to those with a family history of mental disorders, history of adverse childhood events, or victims of violence.
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health 5.The public health nurse (PHN) recognizes that which of the following are used as screening tools for depression?
A. Patient Health Questionnaire 2
B. Center for Epidemiological Studies Depression Scale (CESD-10)
C. Brief Symptom Checklist-18 of the My Mood Monitor (M-3)
D. Both 1 and 2
ANS: D Objective: 5. Describe systems approaches to the promotion of mental health and the prevention and treatment of mental health disorders. p. 232 Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Measure of Mental Health: Health-Related Quality of Life Integrated Processes: Nursing Process Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Promoting Health; Mood; Assessment Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A Tools to screen for depression include the Patient Health Questionnaire 2 and the CESD-10.
B Tools to screen for depression include the Patient Health Questionnaire 2 and the CESD-10.
C This is incorrect. Tools to screen for depression include the Patient Health Questionnaire 2 and the CESD-10. Screening tools for anxiety disorders include the Brief Symptom Checklist-18 of the My Mood Monitor (M-3).
D Tools to screen for depression include the Patient Health Questionnaire 2 and the CESD-10.
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health | Mood | Assessment 6.During a course on mental disorders, a PHN learns that the term serious mental illness (SMI) refers to diagnosable mental disorders that may disrupt a person’s ability to function and may qualify that person for support services. The PHN also notes that the mental disorders that can lead to SMI include:
A. Mild depression
B. Panic disorder
C. Schizophrenia
D. Both 2 and 3
ANS: D Objective: 1. Define the burden of disease related to mental disorders using current epidemiological frameworks. pp. 225-226 Heading: Introduction Integrated Processes: Teaching/Learning Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Cognition; Mood; Stress; Promoting Health; Nursing Roles Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A This is incorrect. Major depression, however, is one of the mental disorders that can lead to SMI.
B Both panic disorder and schizophrenia, among other mental disorders, can lead to SMI.
C Both schizophrenia and panic disorder, among other mental disorders, can lead to SMI.
D The mental disorders that can lead to SMI include major depression, panic disorder, schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD), post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), and borderline personality disorder.
PTS: 1 CON: Cognition | Mood | Stress | Promoting Health | Nursing Roles 7.While studying the prevalence of mental health disorders worldwide, a PHN learns about the World Mental Health Survey, which is used to determine estimates of human capital costs and prevalence of mental disorders in a wide range of countries. The survey was developed by
A. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
B. The World Health Organization (WHO)
C. The Institute of Medicine (IOM)
D. The World Health Assembly
ANS: B Objective: 1. Define the burden of disease related to mental disorders using current epidemiological frameworks. p. 227 Heading: Epidemiology of Mental Disorders > Surveillance of Mental Health Disorders Integrated Processes: Teaching/Learning Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Promoting Health; Nursing Roles Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A This is incorrect. WHO developed the World Mental Health Survey to estimate human capital costs and mental disorders prevalence on a global scale. The CDC conducts many types of surveys on the prevalence of mental disorders but the organization did not develop the World Mental Health Survey.
B The WHO developed the World Mental Health Survey to estimate human capital costs and mental disorders prevalence on a global scale.
C This is incorrect. WHO developed the World Mental Health Survey to estimate human capital costs and mental disorders prevalence on a global scale. The IOM is involved in screening for mental health disorders and addresses the need for appropriate behavioral health treatment in its report, Improving the Quality of Health Care for Mental and Substance-Use Conditions: Quality Chasm Series.
D This is incorrect. WHO developed the World Mental Health Survey to estimate human capital costs and mental disorders prevalence on a global scale. The World Health Assembly issued a resolution on mental health that aims to reduce the global burden of mental disorders and improve overall mental health worldwide.
PTS: 1 CON: Promoting Health | Nursing Roles 8.Which ethnic group has the highest 12-month prevalence of a mental disorder?
A. Hispanics
B. African Americans
C. Asian Americans
D. Non-Hispanic whites
ANS: D Objective: 1. Define the burden of disease related to mental disorders using current epidemiological frameworks. pp. 227-228 Heading: Epidemiology of Mental Disorders > Prevalence of Mental Health Disorders Integrated Processes: N/A Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Knowledge [Remembering] Concept: Promoting Health Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A This is incorrect. Non-Hispanic whites have the highest 12-month prevalence rate for mental disorders at 21% compared with 16% for Hispanics.
B This is incorrect. Non-Hispanic whites have the highest 12-month prevalence rate for mental disorders at 21% compared with 15% for African Americans.
C This is incorrect. Non-Hispanic whites have the highest 12-month prevalence rate for mental disorders at 21% compared with 9% for Asian Americans.
D Non-Hispanic whites have the highest 12-month prevalence rate for mental disorders at 21%.
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health 9.A PHN learns in a behavioral health class that the relationship between physiology and mental health plays an important role in mental disorders. Which of the following physiological factors may contribute to the development of mental disorders?
A. Conditions that affect brain chemistry, such as medication side effects or toxins
B. Physical trauma
C. 1 and 2
D. Unstable family life
ANS: C Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders. pp. 228-229 Heading: Behavioral, Biological, Environmental, and Socioeconomic Risk Factors > Individual Level Risk Factors for Mental Disorders Integrated Processes: Teaching/Learning Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Application] Concept: Cognition; Trauma; Promoting Health Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A Both conditions that affect brain chemistry and physical trauma are the physiological factors that may contribute to the development of mental disorders.
B Both physical trauma and conditions that affect brain chemistry are physiological factors that may contribute to the development of mental disorders.
C Conditions that affect brain chemistry and physical trauma are two of the physiological factors that may contribute to the development of mental disorders.
D This is incorrect. Conditions that affect brain chemistry and physical trauma are two of the physiological factors that may contribute to the development of mental disorders. An unstable family life is not a physiological factor, although it may also contribute to the development of mental disorders.
PTS:1CON:Cognition | Trauma | Promoting Health 10.Which of the following community environment factors play a role in the development of mental disorders?
A. Living in high crime areas
B. Poverty
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Family instability
ANS: C Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders. p. 229 Heading: Behavioral, Biological, Environmental, and Socioeconomic Risk Factors > Community-Level Risk Factors for Mental Disorders Integrated Processes: N/A Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Comprehension [Understanding] Concept: Promoting Health Difficulty: Easy
Feedback
A Living in high crime areas is a factor, along with poverty.
B Both poverty and living in high crime areas play a role in the development of mental disorders.
C Both poverty and living in high crime areas play a role in the development of mental disorders.
D This is incorrect. Although family instability often contributes to the development of mental disorders, it is not considered a community environment factor.
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health 11.____ is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable.
A. Indicated prevention
B. Stigma
C. Risk factors
D. Transinstitutionalization
ANS: B Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders. pp. 231-232 Heading: Culture, Stigma, and Mental Health Disorders Integrated Processes: N/A Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Comprehension [Understanding] Concept: Promoting Health Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A This is incorrect. Stigma is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable. Indicated prevention addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder.
B Stigma is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable.
C This is incorrect. Stigma is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable. Risk factors increase an individual’s chance of developing a mental disorder.
D This is incorrect. Stigma is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable. Transinstitutionalization refers to the growing number of mentally ill persons who are homeless, in jail, in shelters, or in other facilities instead of being home or in a hospital.
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health 12.A nurse interested in working with persons with mental disorders who live in poverty understands that the most effective treatment involves multiple sectors of society, such as government agencies, grass roots groups, nonprofits, and businesses, working in tandem. This interrelationship is called:
A. Indicated prevention
B. Intersectoral strategies
C. Health-Related Quality of Life
D. Institute of Medicine Model of Prevention
ANS: B Objective: 4. Apply current evidence-based population level interventions to the prevention of mental disorders and the promotion of optimal mental health for communities and populations. p. 233 Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Promotion of Mental Health and Policy Integrated Processes: Nursing Process Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Promoting Health; Collaboration Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A This is incorrect. Intersectoral strategies engage more than one sector of society with a shared interest such as government agencies, grass roots citizens groups, nonprofits, and businesses. Indicated prevention addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder.
B Intersectoral strategies engage more than one sector of society with a shared interest such as government agencies, grass roots citizens groups, nonprofits, and businesses.
C This is incorrect. Intersectoral strategies engage more than one sector of society with a shared interest such as government agencies, grass roots citizens groups, nonprofits, and businesses. Health-Related Quality of Life is the self-perceived impact of physical and emotional health on overall quality of life.
D This is incorrect. Intersectoral strategies engage more than one sector of society with a shared interest such as government agencies, grass roots citizens groups, nonprofits, and businesses. The Institute of Medicine Model of Prevention is a framework for mental disorders that clearly separates prevention into three categories with specific interventions at each level.
PTS: 1 CON: Promoting Health | Collaboration 13.A recent graduate nurse working in an urban labor and delivery unit had a patient who experienced a difficult labor. The mother, suffering from postpartum depression (PPD), committed suicide a year after giving birth. Although the nurse knew the basics about PPD, the nurse immediately studied the condition in depth and learned that PPD:
A. Can be triggered by a massive hormone drop following delivery
B. Can intensify to cause delusions
C. Occurs soon after delivery
D. All of the above
ANS: D Objective: 4. Apply current evidence-based population level interventions to the prevention of mental disorders and the promotion of optimal mental health for communities and populations. pp. 233-235 Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Secondary Prevention: Screening for Mental Disorders Integrated Processes: Nursing Process Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Pregnancy; Mood; Violence; Promoting Health; Nursing Roles Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A PPD can be triggered by a massive post-delivery hormone drop, intensify enough to cause delusions, and occur soon after delivery.
B PPD can be triggered by a massive post-delivery hormone drop, intensify enough to cause delusions, and occur soon after delivery.
C PPD can be triggered by a massive post-delivery hormone drop, intensify enough to cause delusions, and occur soon after delivery.
D PPD can be triggered by a massive post-delivery hormone drop, intensify enough to cause delusions, and occur soon after delivery.
PTS: 1 CON: Pregnancy | Mood | Violence | Promoting Health | Nursing Roles 14.A nurse working in labor and delivery requested permission from the nurse manager to conduct a quality improvement project to screen patients that might be susceptible to PPD. After completing the project, which of the following screening guidelines did the unit incorporate?
A. All patients will be screened for PPD when they are admitted to the labor and delivery unit.
B. Patients at high risk are referred to the attending obstetrician.
C. Before being discharged, all new mothers will complete a questionnaire specific to PPD symptoms.
D. All of the above
ANS: D Objective: Apply current evidence-based population level interventions to the prevention of mental disorders and the promotion of optimal mental health for communities and populations. pp. 233-235 Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Secondary Prevention: Screening for Mental Disorders Integrated Processes: Nursing Process Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Pregnancy; Mood; Promoting Health; Assessment; Quality Improvement Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A This is incorrect. Screening, high-risk referrals to the attending obstetrician and completion of a PPD symptom questionnaire were all incorporated.
B This is incorrect. Screening, high-risk referrals to the attending obstetrician and completion of a PPD symptom questionnaire were all incorporated.
C This is incorrect. Screening, high-risk referrals to the attending obstetrician and completion of a PPD symptom questionnaire were all incorporated.
D Screening, high-risk referrals to the attending obstetrician and completion of a PPD symptom questionnaire were all incorporated.
PTS:1 CON: Pregnancy | Mood | Promoting Health | Assessment | Quality Improvement 15.A PHN treats a patient who may be depressed. To verify suspicions, the PHN checks ____, the definitive clinical guide for diagnosing mental disorders and providing consistency and accuracy in the screening for mental disorders.
A. The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5)
B. The Center for Epidemiological Studies Depression Scale (CESD-10)
C. Patient Health Questionnaire 2
D. Brief System Checklist-18 of the My Mood Monitor
ANS: A

Test Bank for Journey Across The Life Span Human Development And Health Promotion 5th Edition by Polan

Table of Content

Table of Contents Chapter 1. Healthy Lifestyles Chapter 2. Culture Chapter 3. The Family Chapter 4. Communication Chapter 5. Theories of Growth and Development Chapter 6. Prenatal Period to 1 Year Chapter 7. Toddlerhood Chapter 8. Preschool Chapter 9. School Age Chapter 10. Puberty and Adolescence Chapter 11. Early Adulthood Chapter 12. Middle Adulthood Chapter 13. Late Adulthood Chapter 14. Death and Dying

Test Bank for Medical Terminology for Health Professions 8th Edition by Ehrlich

Match each definition with the correct word part.
a. ​abnormal condition
b. ​deficient
c. ​excessive
d. ​pain, suffering
e. ​surgical removal
 
1. ​-algia
ANSWER:   d
 
2. ​-ectomy
ANSWER:   e
 
3. ​hyper-
ANSWER:   c
 
4. ​hypo-
ANSWER:   b
 
5. ​-osis
ANSWER:   a
 
Match each definition with the correct word part.
a. ​excessive bleeding
b. ​flow or discharge
c. ​rupture
d. ​surgical repair
e. ​surgical suturing
 
6. ​-plasty
ANSWER:   d
 
7. ​-rrhage
ANSWER:   a
 
8. ​-rrhaphy
ANSWER:   e
 
9. ​-rrhea
ANSWER:   b
 
10. ​-rrhexis
ANSWER:   c
 
Match each definition with the correct word part.
a. abnormal hardening​
b. ​surgical incision
c. ​bad, difficult, painful
d. ​creation of an artificial opening
e. ​inflammation
 
11. ​dys-
ANSWER:   c
 
12. ​-itis
ANSWER:   e
 
13. ​-ostomy
ANSWER:   d
 
14. ​-otomy
ANSWER:   b
 
15. ​-sclerosis
ANSWER:   a
 
Match each definition with the correct term.
a. subjective evidence of disease​
b. ​objective evidence of disease
c. ​signs and symptoms that occur together
d. ​sudden onset of a disease
e. ​temporary disappearance of symptoms
 
16. ​acute
ANSWER:   d
 
17. ​remission
ANSWER:   e
 
18. ​sign
ANSWER:   b
 
19. ​symptom
ANSWER:   a
 
20. ​syndrome
ANSWER:   c
 
Match each definition with the correct term.
a. any disease of the stomach​
b. ​frequent watery stools
c. ​pertaining to the lining of an artery
d. ​swelling
e. ​formation of pus
 
21. ​diarrhea
ANSWER:   b
 
22. ​edema
ANSWER:   d
 
23. ​endarterial
ANSWER:   c
 
24. ​gastrosis
ANSWER:   a
 
25. ​suppuration
ANSWER:   e
 
Match each definition with the correct term.
a. ​torn and jagged wound
b. ​higher-than-normal blood pressure
c. ​localized response to a tissue injury
d. ​lower-than-normal blood pressure
e. ​pathologic tissue change caused by disease or injury
 
26. ​hypertension
ANSWER:   b
 
27. ​hypotension
ANSWER:   d
 
28. ​inflammation
ANSWER:   c
 
29. ​laceration
ANSWER:   a
 
30. ​lesion
ANSWER:   e
 
Match each definition with the correct term.
a. abnormal passage between organs
b. crack-like sore of the skin
c. identification of a disease
d. prediction of a disease outcome
e. the study of all aspects of diseases
 
31. ​diagnosis
ANSWER:   c
 
32. ​fissure
ANSWER:   b
 
33. ​fistula
ANSWER:   a
 
34. ​pathology
ANSWER:   e
 
35. ​prognosis
ANSWER:   d
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