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Test Bank for Foundations of Nursing 7th Edition by Cooper

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By: Cooper

Edition: 7th Edition

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Test Bank for Foundations of Nursing 7th Edition by Cooper

Table of Content

Unit I: Fundamentals of Nursing

1. Evolution of Nursing

2. Legal and Ethical Aspects of Nursing

3. Documentation

4. Communication

5. Nursing Process and Critical Thinking

6. Cultural and Ethnic ConsiderationsUnit

II: Fundamentals of Clinical Practice

7. Asepsis and Infection Control

8. Body Mechanics and Patient Mobility

9. Hygiene and Care of the Patient?s Environment

10. SafetyUnit III: Introduction to Nursing Interventions

11. Vital Signs

12. Physical Assessment

13. Admission, Transfer, and Discharge

14. Surgical Wound Care

15. Specimen Collection and Diagnostic Testing

16. Care of Patients Experiencing Urgent Alterations in Health

17. Complementary and Alternative Therapies

18. Pain Management, Comfort, Rest, and Sleep

19. Nutritional Concepts and Related Therapies

20. Fluids and Electrolytes

21. Dosage Calculation and Medication Administration

22. Care of Patients with Alterations in Health Unit

IV: Nursing Care Across the Lifespan

23. Lifespan Development

24. Loss, Grief, Dying, and Death

25. Health Promotion and Pregnancy

26. Labor and Delivery

27. Care of the Mother and Newborn

28. Care of the High-Risk Mother, Newborn, and Family with Special Needs

29. Health Promotion for the Infant, Child, and Adolescent

30. Basic Pediatric Nursing Care

31. Care of the Child with a Physical and Mental or Cognitive Disorder

32. Health Promotion and Care of the Older AdultUnit

V: Fundamentals of Mental Health Nursing

33. Concepts of Mental Health

34. Care of the Patient with a Psychiatric Disorder

35. Care of the Patient with an Addictive PersonalityUnit

VI: Fundamentals of Community Health Nursing

36. Home Health Nursing

37. Long-Term Care

38. Rehabilitation Nursing

39. Hospice care unit

VII: Transition to Professional Nursing

40. Professional Roles and Leadership

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DescriptionBy: Cooper Edition: 7th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadBy: Sole Edition: 7th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadEdition: 8th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadBy: Ackley Edition: 11th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Solution manual Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadBy: Townsend Edition: 8th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadBy: McKinney Edition: 5th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant Download
Content

Test Bank for Foundations of Nursing 7th Edition by Cooper

Table of Content

Unit I: Fundamentals of Nursing

1. Evolution of Nursing 2. Legal and Ethical Aspects of Nursing 3. Documentation 4. Communication 5. Nursing Process and Critical Thinking 6. Cultural and Ethnic ConsiderationsUnit

II: Fundamentals of Clinical Practice

7. Asepsis and Infection Control 8. Body Mechanics and Patient Mobility 9. Hygiene and Care of the Patient?s Environment 10. SafetyUnit III: Introduction to Nursing Interventions 11. Vital Signs 12. Physical Assessment 13. Admission, Transfer, and Discharge 14. Surgical Wound Care 15. Specimen Collection and Diagnostic Testing 16. Care of Patients Experiencing Urgent Alterations in Health 17. Complementary and Alternative Therapies 18. Pain Management, Comfort, Rest, and Sleep 19. Nutritional Concepts and Related Therapies 20. Fluids and Electrolytes 21. Dosage Calculation and Medication Administration 22. Care of Patients with Alterations in Health Unit

IV: Nursing Care Across the Lifespan

23. Lifespan Development 24. Loss, Grief, Dying, and Death 25. Health Promotion and Pregnancy 26. Labor and Delivery 27. Care of the Mother and Newborn 28. Care of the High-Risk Mother, Newborn, and Family with Special Needs 29. Health Promotion for the Infant, Child, and Adolescent 30. Basic Pediatric Nursing Care 31. Care of the Child with a Physical and Mental or Cognitive Disorder 32. Health Promotion and Care of the Older AdultUnit

V: Fundamentals of Mental Health Nursing

33. Concepts of Mental Health 34. Care of the Patient with a Psychiatric Disorder 35. Care of the Patient with an Addictive PersonalityUnit

VI: Fundamentals of Community Health Nursing

36. Home Health Nursing 37. Long-Term Care 38. Rehabilitation Nursing 39. Hospice care unit

VII: Transition to Professional Nursing

40. Professional Roles and Leadership

Test Bank for Introduction to Critical Care Nursing 7th Edition by Sole

Chapter 05: Comfort and Sedation

Sole: Introduction to Critical Care Nursing, 7th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.Nociceptors differ from other nerve receptors in the body in that they:
a. adapt very little to continual pain response.
b. inhibit the infiltration of neutrophils and eosinophils.
c. play no role in the inflammatory response.
d. transmit only the thermal stimuli.
ANS: A Nociceptors are stimulated by mechanical, chemical, or thermal stimuli. Nociceptors differ from other nerve receptors in the body in that they adapt very little to the pain response. The body continues to experience pain until the stimulus is discontinued or therapy is initiated. This is a protective mechanism so that the body tissues being damaged will be removed from harm. Nociceptors usually initiate inflammatory responses near injured capillaries. As such, the response promotes infiltration of injured tissues with neutrophils and eosinophils. DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember/Knowledge REF: p. 54 OBJ:Discuss the physiology of pain and anxiety. TOP:Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 2.A postsurgical patient is on a ventilator in the critical care unit. The patient has been tolerating the ventilator well and has not required any sedation. On assessment, the nurse notes the patient is tachycardic and hypertensive with an increased respiratory rate of 28 breaths/min. The patient has been suctioned recently via the endotracheal tube, and the airway is clear. The patient responds appropriately to the nurse’s commands. The nurse should:
a. assess the patient’s level of pain.
b. decrease the ventilator rate.
c. provide sedation as ordered.
d. suction the patient again.
ANS: A Pulse, respirations, and blood pressure frequently result from activation of the sympathetic nervous system by the pain stimulus. Because the patient is postoperative, the patient should be assessed for the presence of pain and need for pain medication. Decreasing the ventilator rate will not help in this situation. Providing sedation may calm the patient but will not solve the problem if the physiological changes are from pain. The patient has just been suctioned and the airway is clear. There is no need to suction again. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze/Analysis REF: p. 55 OBJ: Describe the positive and negative effects of pain and anxiety in critically ill patients. TOP:Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 3.The assessment of pain and anxiety is a continuous process. When critically ill patients exhibit signs of anxiety, the nurse’s first priority is to
a. administer antianxiety medications as ordered.
b. administer pain medication as ordered.
c. identify and treat the underlying cause.
d. reassess the patient hourly to determine whether symptoms resolve on their own.
ANS: C When patients exhibit signs of anxiety or agitation, the first priority is to identify and treat the underlying cause, which could be hypoxemia, hypoglycemia, hypotension, pain, or withdrawal from alcohol and drugs. Treatment is not initiated until assessment is completed. Medication may not be needed if the underlying cause can be resolved. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply/Application REF: p. 70 | Table 5-11 OBJ: Describe methods and tools for assessing pain and anxiety in the critically ill patient. TOP:Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 4.Both the electroencephalogram (EEG) monitor and the Bispectral Index Score (BIS) or Patient State Index (PSI) analyzer monitors are used to assess patient sedation levels in critically ill patients. The BIS and PSI monitors are simpler to use because they
a. can be used only on heavily sedated patients.
b. can be used only on pediatric patients.
c. provide raw EEG data and a numeric value.
d. require only five leads.
ANS: C The BIS and PSI have very simple steps for application, and results are displayed as raw EEG data and the numeric value. A single electrode is placed across the patient’s forehead and is attached to a monitor. These monitors can be used in both children and adults and in patients with varying levels of sedation. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand/Comprehension REF: p. 60 OBJ: Describe methods and tools for assessing pain and anxiety in the critically ill patient. TOP:Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 5.The nurse is caring for a patient who requires administration of a neuromuscular blocking agent to facilitate ventilation with nontraditional modes. The nurse understands that neuromuscular blocking agents provide:
a. antianxiety effects.
b. complete analgesia.
c. high levels of sedation.
d. no sedation or analgesia.
ANS: D Neuromuscular blocking (NMB) agents do not possess any sedative or analgesic properties. Patients who receive NMBs must also receive sedatives and pain medication. DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember/Knowledge REF: p. 72 OBJ: Discuss assessment and management challenges in subsets of critically ill patients. TOP:Nursing Process Step: Implementation MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 6.The patient is receiving neuromuscular blockade. Which nursing assessment indicates a target level of paralysis?
a. Glasgow Coma Scale score of 3
b. Train-of-four yields two twitches
c. Bispectral index of 60
d. CAM-ICU positive
ANS: B A train-of-four response of two twitches (out of four) using a peripheral nerve stimulator indicates adequate paralysis. The Glasgow Coma Scale does not assess paralysis; it is an indicator of consciousness. The bispectral index provides an assessment of sedation. The CAM-ICU is a tool to assess delirium. DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember/Knowledge REF: p. 73 OBJ: Discuss assessment and management challenges in subsets of critically ill patients. TOP:Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 7.The nurse is concerned that the patient will pull out the endotracheal tube. As part of the nursing management, the nurse obtains an order for
a. arm binders or splints.
b. a higher dosage of lorazepam.
c. propofol.
d. soft wrist restraints.
ANS: D The priority in caring for agitated patients is safety. The least restrictive methods of keeping the patient safe are appropriate. If possible, the tube or device causing irritation should be removed, but if that is not possible, the nurse must prevent the patient from pulling it out. Restraints are associated with an increased incidence of agitation and delirium. Therefore, restraints should not be used unless as a last resort for combative patients. The least amount of sedation is also recommended; therefore, neither increasing the dosage of lorazepam nor adding propofol is indicated and would be likely to prolong mechanical ventilation. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply/Application REF: p. 61 OBJ:Identify nonpharmacological and pharmacological strategies to promote comfort and reduce anxiety.TOP:Nursing Process Step: Planning MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment 8.The primary mode of action for neuromuscular blocking agents used in the management of some ventilated patients is
a. analgesia.
b. anticonvulsant therapy.
c. paralysis.
d. sedation.
ANS: C These agents cause respiratory muscle paralysis. They do not provide analgesia or sedation. They do not have anticonvulsant properties. DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember/Knowledge REF: p. 72 OBJ: Discuss assessment and management challenges in subsets of critically ill patients. TOP:Nursing Process Step: Implementation MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 9.The most important nursing intervention for patients who receive neuromuscular blocking agents is to
a. administer sedatives in conjunction with the neuromuscular blocking agents.
b. assess neurological status every 30 minutes.
c. avoid interaction with the patient, because he or she won’t be able to hear.
d. restrain the patient to avoid self-extubation.
ANS: A Neuromuscular blocking agents cause paralysis only; they do not cause sedation. Therefore, concomitant administration of sedatives is essential. Neurological status is monitored according to unit protocol. Nurses should communicate with all critically ill patients, regardless of their status. If the patient is paralyzed, restraining devices may not be needed. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply/Application REF: p. 72 OBJ: Discuss assessment and management challenges in subsets of critically ill patients. TOP:Nursing Process Step: Implementation MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 10.The best way to monitor agitation and effectiveness of treating it in the critically ill patient is to use a/the:
a. Confusion Assessment Method (CAM-ICU).
b. FACES assessment tool.
c. Glasgow Coma Scale.
d. Richmond Agitation Sedation Scale.
ANS: D Various sedation scales are available to assist the nurse in monitoring the level of sedation and assessing response to treatment. The Richmond Agitation Sedation Scale is a commonly used tool that has been validated. The CAM-ICU assesses for delirium. The FACES scale assesses pain. The Glasgow Coma Scale assesses neurological status. DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember/Knowledge REF: p. 59 | Table 5-5 OBJ: Describe methods and tools for assessing pain and anxiety in the critically ill patient. TOP:Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 11.The nurse is caring for a patient receiving intravenous ibuprofen for pain management. The nurse recognizes which laboratory assessment to be a possible side effect of the ibuprofen?
a. Creatinine: 3.1 mg/dL
b. Platelet count 350,000 billion/L
c. White blood count 13, 550 mm3
d. ALT 25 U/L
ANS: A Ibuprofen can result in renal insufficiency, which may be noted in an elevated serum creatinine level. Thrombocytopenia (low platelet count) is another possible side effect. This platelet count is elevated. An elevated white blood count indicates infection. Although ibuprofen is cleared primarily by the kidneys, it is also important to assess liver function, which would show elevated liver enzymes, not low values such as shown here. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze/Analysis REF: p. 71 OBJ:Identify nonpharmacological and pharmacological strategies to promote comfort and reduce anxiety.TOP:Nursing Process Step: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 12.The nurse is assessing pain levels in a critically ill patient using the Behavioral Pain Scale. The nurse recognizes __________ as indicating the greatest level of pain.
a. brow lowering
b. eyelid closing
c. grimacing
d. relaxed facial expression
ANS: C The Behavioral Pain Scale issues the most points, indicating the greatest amount of pain, to assessment of facial grimacing. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand/Comprehension REF: p. 58 | Table 5-3 OBJ: Describe methods and tools for assessing pain and anxiety in the critically ill patient. TOP:Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 13.The nurse wishes to assess the quality of a patient’s pain. Which of the following questions is appropriate to obtain this assessment if the patient is able to give a verbal response?
a. “Is the pain constant or intermittent?”
b. “Is the pain sharp, dull, or crushing?”
c. “What makes the pain better? Worse?”
d. “When did the pain start?”
ANS: B If the patient can describe the pain, the nurse can assess quality, such as sharp, dull, or crushing. The other responses relate to continuous or intermittent presence, what provides relief, and duration. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand/Comprehension REF: p. 56 OBJ: Describe methods and tools for assessing pain and anxiety in the critically ill patient. TOP:Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 14.The nurse is assessing the patient’s pain using the Critical Care Pain Observation Tool. Which of the following assessments would indicate the greatest likelihood of pain and need for nursing intervention?
a. Absence of vocal sounds
b. Fighting the ventilator
c. Moving legs in bed
d. Relaxed muscles in upper extremities
ANS: B Fighting the ventilator is rated with the greatest number of points for compliance with the ventilator, and could indicate pain or anxiety. Absence of vocal sounds (e.g., no crying) and relaxed muscles do not indicate pain and are not given a point value. The patient may be moving the legs as a method of range of motion, not necessarily in response to pain. The patient needs to be assessed for restlessness if the movement is excessive. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply/Application REF: p. 59 | Table 5-4 OBJ: Describe methods and tools for assessing pain and anxiety in the critically ill patient. TOP:Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 15.The nurse is caring for four patients on the progressive care unit. Which patient is at greatest risk for developing delirium?
a. 36-year-old recovering from a motor vehicle crash; being treated with an evidence-based alcohol withdrawal protocol.
b. 54-year-old postoperative aortic aneurysm resection with a 40 pack-year history of smoking
c. 86-year-old from nursing home with dementia, postoperative from colon resection, still being mechanically ventilated
d. 95-year-old with community-acquired pneumonia; family has brought in eyeglasses and hearing aid
ANS: C From this list, the 86-year-old postoperative nursing home resident is at greatest risk due to advanced age, cognitive impairment, and some degree of respiratory failure. The 96-year-old has been provided eyeglasses and a hearing aid, which will decrease the risk of delirium. Smoking is a possible risk for delirium. The 36-year-old is receiving medications as part of an alcohol withdrawal protocol, which should decrease the risk for delirium. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze/Analysis REF: p. 61 | Table 5-8 OBJ: Describe methods and tools for assessing pain and anxiety in the critically ill patient. TOP:Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 16.The nurse is caring for a patient with hyperactive delirium. The nurse focuses interventions toward keeping the patient:
a. comfortable.
b. nourished.
c. safe.
d. sedated.
ANS: C The greatest priority in managing delirium is to keep the patient safe. Sedation may contribute to the development of delirium. Comfort and nutrition are important, but they are not priorities. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand/Comprehension REF: p. 61 OBJ: Identify nonpharmacological and pharmacological strategies to promote comfort, reduce anxiety, and prevent delirium. TOP: Nursing Process Step: Implementation MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment 17.The nurse is caring for a critically ill trauma patient who is expected to be hospitalized for an extended period. Which of the following nursing interventions would improve the patient’s well-being and reduce anxiety the most?
a. Arrange for the patient’s dog to be brought into the unit (per protocol).
b. Provide aromatherapy with scents such as lavender that are known to help anxiety.
c. Secure the harpist to come and play soothing music for an hour every afternoon.
d. Wheel the patient out near the unit aquarium to observe the tropical fish.
ANS: A Nonpharmacological approaches are helpful in reducing stress and anxiety, and each of these activities has the potential for improving the patient’s well-being. The patient is likely to benefit most from the presence of his or her own dog rather than the other activities, however; if unit protocol does not allow the patient’s own dog, the nurse should investigate the use of therapy animals or the other options. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply/Application REF: p. 64 OBJ: Identify nonpharmacological and pharmacological strategies to promote comfort, reduce anxiety, and prevent delirium. TOP: Nursing Process Step: Intervention MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Psychological Integrity 18.The nurse recognizes that which patient is likely to benefit most from patient-controlled analgesia (PCA)?
a. Patient with a C4 fracture and quadriplegia
b. Patient with a femur fracture and closed head injury
c. Postoperative patient who had elective bariatric surgery
d. Postoperative cardiac surgery patient with mild dementia
ANS: C The patient undergoing bariatric surgery (an elective procedure) is the best candidate for PCA as this patient should be awake, cognitively intact, and will have the acute pain related to the surgical procedure. The quadriplegic would be unable to operate the PCA pump. The cardiac surgery patient with mild dementia may not understand how to operate the pump. Likewise, the patient with the closed head injury may not be cognitively intact. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze/Analysis REF: p. 71 | Box 5-6 OBJ: Identify nonpharmacological and pharmacological strategies to promote comfort, reduce anxiety, and prevent delirium. TOP: Nursing Process Step: Intervention MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 19.The nurse is caring for a patient receiving a benzodiazepine intermittently. The nurse understands that the best way to administer such drugs is to:
a. administer around the clock, rather than as needed, to ensure constant sedation.
b. administer the medications through the feeding tube to prevent complications.
c. give the highest allowable dose for the greatest effect.
d. titrate to a predefined endpoint using a standard sedation scale.
ANS: D The best approach for administering benzodiazepines (and all sedatives) is to administer and titrate to a desired endpoint using a standard sedation scale. Administering around the clock as well as giving the highest allowable dose without basing it on an assessment target may result in excessive sedation. For greatest effect, most benzodiazepines are given intravenously. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply/Application REF: p. 72 OBJ: Identify nonpharmacological and pharmacological strategies to promote comfort, reduce anxiety, and prevent delirium. TOP: Nursing Process Step: Intervention MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 20.The nurse is concerned about the risk of alcohol withdrawal syndrome in a postoperative patient. Which statement by the nurse indicates understanding of management of this patient?
a. “Alcohol withdrawal is common; we see it all of the time in the trauma unit.”
b. “There is no way to assess for alcohol withdrawal.”
c. “This patient will require less pain medication.”
d. “We have initiated the alcohol withdrawal protocol.”
ANS: D The most important treatment of alcohol withdrawal syndrome is prevention. Many units have protocols that are initiated early to prevent the syndrome. Alcohol withdrawal syndrome is common; however, this statement does not indicate knowledge of management. The patient experiencing alcohol withdrawal may exhibit a variety of symptoms, such as disorientation, agitation, and tachycardia. Patients with substance abuse require increased dosages of pain medications. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand/Comprehension REF: p. 74 OBJ: Identify nonpharmacological and pharmacological strategies to promote comfort, reduce anxiety, and prevent delirium. TOP: Nursing Process Step: Intervention MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1.Nonpharmacological approaches to pain and/or anxiety that may best meet the needs of critically ill patients include: (Select all that apply.)
a. anaerobic exercise.
b. art therapy.
c. guided imagery.
d. music therapy.
e. animal therapy.
ANS: C, D, E Guided imagery is a powerful technique for controlling pain and anxiety, especially that associated with painful procedures. Similar to guided imagery, a music therapy program offers patients a diversionary technique for pain and anxiety relief. Likewise animal therapy has many benefits for the critically ill patient. Anaerobic exercise is not a nonpharmacological approach for managing pain and anxiety. Most critically ill patients are not able to participate in art therapy. DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember/Knowledge REF: pp. 62-64 OBJ:Identify nonpharmacological and pharmacological strategies to promote comfort and reduce anxiety.TOP:Nursing Process Step: Implementation MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 2.Which of the following statements regarding pain and anxiety are true? (Select all that apply.)
a. Anxiety is a state marked by apprehension, agitation, autonomic arousal, and/or fearful withdrawal.
b. Critically ill patients often experience anxiety, but they rarely experience pain.
c. Pain and anxiety are often interrelated and may be difficult to differentiate because their physiological and behavioral manifestations are similar.
d. Pain is defined by each patient; it is whatever the person experiencing the pain says it is.
e. While anxiety is unpleasant, it does not contribute to mortality or morbidity of the critically ill patient.
ANS: A, C, D Pain is defined by each patient, anxiety is associated with marked apprehension, and pain and anxiety are often interrelated. Critically ill patients commonly have both pain and anxiety. Anxiety does increase both morbidity and mortality in critically ill patients, especially those with cardiovascular disease. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand/Comprehension REF: p. 53 OBJ: Define pain and anxiety. TOP: Nursing Process Step: Planning MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 3.Which of the following factors predispose the critically ill patient to pain and anxiety? (Select all that apply.)
a. Inability to communicate
b. Invasive procedures
c. Monitoring devices
d. Nursing care
e. Preexisting conditions
ANS: A, B, C, D, E All of these factors predispose the patient to pain or anxiety. DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember/Knowledge REF: pp. 53-54 OBJ: Identify factors that place the critically ill patient at risk for developing pain and anxiety. TOP:Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 4.Choose the items that are common to both pain and anxiety. (Select all that apply.)
a. Cyclical exacerbation of one another
b. Require good nursing assessment for proper treatment
c. Response only to real phenomena
d. Subjective in nature
e. Perception may be influenced by prior experience
ANS: A, B, D, E Both pain and anxiety are subjective in nature. One can exacerbate the other in a vicious cycle that often requires good nursing assessment to manage the precipitating problem and break the cycle. Anxiety is a response to a real or perceived fear. Pain is a response to real or “phantom” phenomenon but always involves transmission of nerve impulses. Both relate to the patient’s perceptions of pain and fear. Previous experiences of both pain and/or anxiety can influence the patient’s perception of both. Anxiety is a response to real or perceived fear, and pain is a response to a real or “phantom” phenomenon. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand/Comprehension REF: pp. 53-54 OBJ: Identify factors that place the critically ill patient at risk for developing pain and anxiety. TOP:Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 5.Anxiety differs from pain in that: (Select all that apply.)
a. it is confined to neurological processes in the brain.
b. it is linked to reward and punishment centers in the limbic system.
c. it is subjective.
d. there is no actual tissue injury.
e. it can be increased by noise and light.
ANS: A, B, D, E Unlike pain, anxiety is linked to the reward and punishment centers in the limbic system of the brain. It is totally neurological and does not involve tissue injury. Like pain, it is a subjective phenomenon. Noise, light, and other stimuli can increase the intensity of anxiety. Both anxiety and pain are subjective in nature. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand/Comprehension REF: pp. 53-55 OBJ:Discuss the physiology of pain and anxiety. TOP: Nursing Process Step: Assessment 6.Factors in the critical care unit that may predispose the client to increased pain and anxiety include: (Select all that apply.)
a. an endotracheal tube.
b. frequent vital signs.
c. monitor alarms.
d. room temperature.
e. hostile environment.
ANS: A, B, C, D, E Anxiety is likely to result from loss of control, the inability to communicate, continuous noise and lighting, excessive stimulation (including repeated vital sign measurements), lack of mobility, and uncomfortable room temperatures. Increased anxiety levels often lead to increased pain perception. Environments that are perceived as hostile also contribute. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand/Comprehension REF: pp. 53-54 OBJ: Identify factors that place the critically ill patient at risk for developing pain and anxiety. TOP:Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 7.In the healthy individual, pain and anxiety: (Select all that apply.)
a. activate the sympathetic nervous system (SNS).
b. decrease stress levels.
c. help remove one from harm.
d. increase performance levels.
e. limit sympathetic nervous system activity.
ANS: A, C, D In the healthy person, pain and anxiety are adaptive mechanisms used to increase performance levels or to remove one from potential harm. The “fight or flight” response occurs in response to pain and/or anxiety and involves the activation of the sympathetic nervous system. Pain and anxiety, however, can induce significant stress. The SNS is activated, not limited, by pain and/or anxiety. DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember/Knowledge REF: p. 55 OBJ: Describe the positive and negative effects of pain and anxiety in critically ill patients. TOP:Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 8.The nurse is caring for a patient who is intubated and on a ventilator following extensive abdominal surgery. Although the patient is responsive, the nurse is not able to read the patient’s lips as the patient attempts to mouth the words. Which of the following assessment tools would be the most appropriate for the nurse to use when assessing the patient’s pain level? (Select all that apply.)
a. The FACES scale
b. Pain Intensity Scale
c. The PQRST method
d. The Visual Analogue Scale
e. The CAM tool
ANS: A, D

Test Bank For Essentials of Psychiatric Mental Health Nursing 8th Morgan

Chapter 1: Mental Health and Mental Illness Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____ 1. A nurse is assessing a client who experiences occasional feelings of sadness because of the recent death of a beloved pet. The client’s appetite, sleep patterns, and daily routine have not changed. How would the nurse interpret the client’s behaviors? 1. The client’s behaviors demonstrate mental illness in the form of depression. 2. The client’s behaviors are inappropriate, which indicates the presence of mental illness. 3. The client’s behaviors are not congruent with cultural norms. 4. The client’s behaviors demonstrate no functional impairment, indicating no mental illness. ____ 2. At which point would the nurse determine that a client is at risk for developing a mental illness? 1. When thoughts, feelings, and behaviors are not reflective of the DSM-5 criteria. 2. When maladaptive responses to stress are coupled with interference in daily functioning. 3. When a client communicates significant distress. 4. When a client uses defense mechanisms as ego protection. ____ 3. A client has been given a diagnosis of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Which statement made by the client does the nurse recognize as the bargaining stage of grief? 1. “I hate my partner for giving me this disease I will die from!” 2. “If I don’t do intravenous (IV) drugs anymore, God won’t let me die.” 3. “I am going to support groups and learn more about the disease.” 4. “Can you please re-draw the test results, I think they may be wrong?” ____ 4. A nurse notes that a client is extremely withdrawn, delusional, and emotionally exhausted. The nurse assesses the client’s anxiety as which level? 1. Mild anxiety 2. Moderate anxiety 3. Severe anxiety 4. Panic anxiety ____ 5. A psychiatric nurse intern states, “This client’s use of defense mechanisms should be eliminated.” Which is a correct evaluation of this nurse’s statement? 1. Defense mechanisms can be appropriate responses to stress and need not be eliminated. 2. Defense mechanisms are a maladaptive attempt of the ego to manage anxiety and should always be eliminated. 3. Defense mechanisms, used by individuals with weak ego integrity, should be discouraged and not completely eliminated. 4. Defense mechanisms cause disintegration of the ego and should be fostered and encouraged. ESSENTIALS OF PSYCHIATRIC MENTAL HEALTH NURSING 8TH MORGAN TEST BANK Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company ____ 6. During an intake assessment, a nurse asks both physiological and psychosocial questions. The client angrily responds, “I’m here for my heart, not my head problems.” Which is the nurse’s best response? 1. “It is just a routine part of our assessment. All clients are asked these same questions.” 2. “Why are you concerned about these types of questions?” 3. “Psychological factors, like excessive stress, have been found to affect medical conditions.” 4. “We can skip these questions, if you like. It isn’t imperative that we complete this section.” ____ 7. A client who is being treated for chronic kidney disease complains to the health-care provider that he does not like the food available to him while hospitalized. The health-care provider insists that the client strictly adhere to the diet plan. What action can be expected is the client uses the defense mechanism of displacement? 1. The client assertively confronts the health-care provider. 2. The client insists on being discharged and goes for a long, brisk walk. 3. The client snaps at the nurse and criticizes the nursing care provided. 4. The client hides his anger by explaining the logical reasoning for the diet to his spouse. ____ 8. A fourth-grade boy teases and makes jokes about a cute girl in his class. A nurse would recognize this behavior as indicative of which defense mechanism? 1. Displacement 2. Projection 3. Reaction formation 4. Sublimation ____ 9. Which nursing statement regarding the concept of psychosis is most accurate? 1. Individuals experiencing psychoses are aware that their behaviors are maladaptive. 2. Individuals experiencing psychoses experience little distress. 3. Individuals experiencing psychoses are aware of experiencing psychological problems. 4. Individuals experiencing psychoses are based in reality. ____ 10. When under stress, a client routinely uses alcohol to excess. When the client’s husband finds her drunk, the husband yells at the client about her chronic alcohol abuse. Which action alerts the nurse to the client’s use of the defense mechanism of denial? 1. The client hides liquor bottles in a closet. 2. The client yells at her son for slouching in his chair. 3. The client burns dinner on purpose. 4. The client says to the spouse, “I don’t drink too much!” ____ 11. Devastated by a divorce from an abusive husband, a wife completes grief counseling. Which statement by the wife would indicate to a nurse that the client is in the acceptance stage of grief? 1. “If only we could have tried again, things might have worked out.” 2. “I am so mad that the children and I had to put up with him as long as we did.” 3. “Yes, it was a difficult relationship, but I think I have learned from the ESSENTIALS OF PSYCHIATRIC MENTAL HEALTH NURSING 8TH MORGAN TEST BANK WWW.NURSINGTB.COMN U R S I N G T B . C O M Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company experience.” 4. “I have a difficult time getting out of bed most days.” ____ 12. According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, which client action would demonstrate the highest achievement in terms of mental health? 1. Maintaining a long-term, faithful, intimate relationship 2. Achieving a sense of self-confidence 3. Possessing a feeling of self-fulfillment and realizing full potential 4. Developing a sense of purpose and the ability to direct activities ____ 13. According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, which situation on an inpatient psychiatric unit would require priority intervention by a nurse? 1. A client rudely complaining about limited visiting hours 2. A client exhibiting aggressive behavior toward another client 3. A client stating that no one cares 4. A client verbalizing feelings of failure Multiple Response Identify one or more choices that best complete the statement or answer the question. ____ 14. Which describes a defense mechanism an individual may use to relieve anxiety in a stressful situation? (Select all that apply.) 1. Homework 2. Smoking 3. Itching 4. Nail biting 5. Sleeping ____ 15. The nurse is reviewing the DSM-5 definition of a mental health disorder and notes the definition includes a disturbance in which areas? (Select all that apply.) 1. Cognition 2. Physical 3. Emotional regulation 4. Behavior 5. Developmental Completion Complete each statement. 16. _______________________ is a diffuse apprehension that is vague in nature and is associated with feelings of uncertainty and helplessness. 17. _______________________ is a subjective state of emotional, physical, and social responses to the loss of a valued entity. Other ESSENTIALS OF PSYCHIATRIC MENTAL HEALTH NURSING 8TH MORGAN TEST BANK Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company 18. Place in order the Kübler Ross stages of grief from 1-5. (Enter the number of each step in the proper sequence, using comma and space format, such as: 1, 2, 3, 4.) 1. Bargaining 2. Denial 3. Acceptance 4. Depression 5. Anger

Solution Manual for Nursing Diagnosis Handbook 11th Edition by Ackley

Ackley: Nursing Diagnosis Handbook, 11th Edition Table of Contents     41 cases  Lecture Notes

Problem-Based Learning/Critical Thinking

Case Study - Restless Leg Syndrome

Case Scenario Abdul Malek is a 21 year old college student. He attends the local state university and is a junior studying graphic design.  Three (3) weeks into his fall semester, Abdul’s professors notice that he is falling asleep in class and often looks restless. Abdul taps his foot and squirms around in his seat. Abdul, who is usually an excellent student, has failed his first test in his Graphic Design II course. His professor asks him to see his advisor because the fear is that Abdul has become chemically impaired. His advisor sends Abdul to the student health services and his case is reviewed by the nurse.  Nursing Assessment  Abdul is a well-developed 22 year old male with a BMI of 20. His vital signs are: blood pressure 104/78; temperature 98.4 degrees F.; heart rate – 64 BPM; respiratory rate – 16 per minute. A nutritional history confirms a well-balanced diet with the exclusion of pork products. Abdul had been working out every day at the University gym but reports that he is currently “too tired” to do so.  Abdul denies drug or alcohol use and this is confirmed by serum analysis. Abdul complains about sleeping poorly and feeling as if, “I am moving all night.” He states that he often wakes up his dorm mate and feels badly about that.  The nurse reclines Abdul on the examination table and checks his deep tendon reflexes (DTRs) which are all 2 . The nurse asks Abdul to relax and dims the lights while she consults with the primary care practitioner. While the nurse is out of the examination room Abdul dozes and when the nurse returns the nurse observes Abdul’s right leg jerking several times before she arouses him.
  1. ASSESS
  2. Identify significant symptoms by underlining them in the assessment.
  3. List those symptoms that indicate the client has a health problem (those you have underlined).
  • falling asleep in class
  • often looks restless
  • taps his foot
  • squirms around in his seat
  • failed his first test
  •  “too tired
  • complains about sleeping poorly
  • I am moving all night
  • often wakes up
  • dozes
  • right leg jerking several times
  1. Group the symptoms that are similar.
  • falling asleep in class
  • often looks restless
  • taps his foot
  • squirms around in his seat
  • failed his first test
  • complains about sleeping poorly
  • dozes
  •  “too tired
  • I am moving all night
  • often wakes up
  • right leg jerking several times
Chapter 1. The Concept of Stress Adaptation

Test Bank for Psychiatric Mental Health Nursing 8th Edition by Townsend

Multiple Choice
  1. A client has experienced the death of a close family member and at the same time becomes unemployed. This situation has resulted in a 6-month score of 110 on the Recent Life Changes Questionnaire. How should the nurse evaluate this client data?
  2. The client is experiencing severe distress and is at risk for physical and psychological illness.
  3. A score of 110 on the Miller and Rahe Recent Life Changes Questionnaire indicates no significant threat of stress-related illness.
  4. Susceptibility to stress-related physical or psychological illness cannot be estimated without knowledge of coping resources and available supports.
  5. The client may view these losses as challenges and perceive them as opportunities.
ANS: C The Recent Life Changes Questionnaire is an expanded version of the Schedule of Recent Experiences and the Rahe-Holmes Social Readjustment Rating Scale. A 6-month score of 300 or more, or a year-score total of 500 or more, indicates high stress in a client’s life. However, positive coping mechanisms and strong social support can limit susceptibility to stress-related illnesses. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Evaluation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
  1. A physically and emotionally healthy client has just been fired. During a routine office visit he states to a nurse: “Perhaps this was the best thing to happen. Maybe I’ll look into pursuing an art degree.” How should the nurse characterize the client’s appraisal of the job loss stressor?
  2. Irrelevant
  3. Harm/loss
  4. Threatening
  5. Challenging
ANS: D The client perceives the situation of job loss as a challenge and an opportunity for growth. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Assessment | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
  1. Which client statement should alert a nurse that a client may be responding maladaptively to stress?
  2. “I’ve found that avoiding contact with others helps me cope.”
  3. “I really enjoy journaling; it’s my private time.”
  4. “I signed up for a yoga class this week.”
  5. “I made an appointment to meet with a therapist.”
ANS: A Reliance on social isolation as a coping mechanism is a maladaptive method to relieve stress. It can prevent learning appropriate coping skills and can prevent access to needed support systems.  KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Evaluation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
  1. A nursing student finds that she comes down with a sinus infection toward the end of every semester. When this occurs, which stage of stress is the student most likely experiencing?
  2. Alarm reaction stage
  3. Stage of resistance
  4. Stage of exhaustion
  5. Fight-or-flight stage
ANS: C At the stage of exhaustion, the student’s exposure to stress has been prolonged and adaptive energy has been depleted. Diseases of adaptation occur more frequently in this stage. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Assessment | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
  1. A school nurse is assessing a female high school student who is overly concerned about her appearance. The client’s mother states, “That’s not something to be stressed about!” Which is the most appropriate nursing response?
  2. “Teenagers! They don’t know a thing about real stress.”
  3. “Stress occurs only when there is a loss.”
  4. “When you are in poor physical condition, you can’t experience psychological well-being.”
  5. “Stress can be psychological. A threat to self-esteem may result in high stress levels.”
ANS: D Stress can be physical or psychological in nature. A perceived threat to self-esteem can be as stressful as a physiological change. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Implementation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
  1. A bright student confides in the school nurse about conflicts related to attending college or working to add needed financial support to the family. Which coping strategy is most appropriate for the nurse to recommend to the student at this time?
  2. Meditation
  3. Problem-solving training
  4. Relaxation
  5. Journaling
ANS: B The student must assess his or her situation and determine the best course of action. Problem-solving training, by providing structure and objectivity, can assist in decision making. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Implementation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
  1. An unemployed college graduate is experiencing severe anxiety over not finding a teaching position and has difficulty with independent problem-solving. During a routine physical examination, the graduate confides in the clinic nurse. Which is the most appropriate nursing intervention?
  2. Encourage the student to use the alternative coping mechanism of relaxation exercises.
  3. Complete the problem-solving process for the client.
  4. Work through the problem-solving process with the client.
  5. Encourage the client to keep a journal.
ANS: C During times of high anxiety and stress, clients will need more assistance in problem-solving and decision making. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Implementation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
  1. A school nurse is assessing a distraught female high school student who is overly concerned because her parents can’t afford horseback riding lessons. How should the nurse interpret the student’s reaction to her perceived problem?
  2. The problem is endangering her well-being.
  3. The problem is personally relevant to her.
  4. The problem is based on immaturity.
  5. The problem is exceeding her capacity to cope.
ANS: B Psychological stressors to self-esteem and self-image are related to how the individual perceives the situation or event. Self-image is of particular importance to adolescents, who feel entitled to have all the advantages that other adolescents experience. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Evaluation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
  1. Meditation has been shown to be an effective stress management technique. When meditation is effective, what should a nurse expect to assess?
  2. An achieved state of relaxation
  3. An achieved insight into one’s feelings
  4. A demonstration of appropriate role behaviors
  5. An enhanced ability to problem-solve
ANS: A Meditation produces relaxation by creating a special state of consciousness through focused concentration. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Evaluation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
  1. A distraught, single, first-time mother cries and asks a nurse, “How can I go to work if I can’t afford childcare?” What is the nurse’s initial action in assisting the client with the problem-solving process?
  2. Determine the risks and benefits for each alternative.
  3. Formulate goals for resolution of the problem.
  4. Evaluate the outcome of the implemented alternative.
  5. Assess the facts of the situation.
ANS: D Before any other steps can be taken, accurate information about the situation must be gathered and assessed. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Implementation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
Chapter 01: Foundations of Maternity, Women’s Health, and Child Health Nursing

McKinney: Evolve Resources for Maternal-Child Nursing, 5th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE
  1. Which factor significantly contributed to the shift from home births to hospital births in the early 20th century?
a. Puerperal sepsis was identified as a risk factor in labor and delivery.
b. Forceps were developed to facilitate difficult births.
c. The importance of early parental-infant contact was identified.
d. Technologic developments became available to physicians.
ANS:  D Technologic developments were available to physicians, not lay midwives. So in-hospital births increased in order to take advantage of these advancements. Puerperal sepsis has been a known problem for generations. In the late 19th century, Semmelweis discovered how it could be prevented with improved hygienic practices. The development of forceps is an example of a technology advance made in the early 20th century but is not the only reason birthplaces moved. Unlike home births, early hospital births hindered bonding between parents and their infants. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remembering REF:   p. 1                OBJ:   Integrated Process: Teaching-Learning MSC:  Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
  1. Family-centered maternity care developed in response to
a. demands by physicians for family involvement in childbirth.
b. the Sheppard-Towner Act of 1921.
c. parental requests that infants be allowed to remain with them rather than in a nursery.
d. changes in pharmacologic management of labor.
ANS:  C As research began to identify the benefits of early extended parent-infant contact, parents began to insist that the infant remain with them. This gradually developed into the practice of rooming-in and finally to family-centered maternity care. Family-centered care was a request by parents, not physicians. The Sheppard-Towner Act of 1921 provided funds for state-managed programs for mothers and children. The changes in pharmacologic management of labor were not a factor in family-centered maternity care. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remembering REF:   p. 2                OBJ:   Integrated Process: Teaching-Learning MSC:  Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity
  1. Which setting for childbirth allows the least amount of parent-infant contact?
a. Labor/delivery/recovery/postpartum room
b. Birth center
c. Traditional hospital birth
d. Home birth
ANS:  C In the traditional hospital setting, the mother may see the infant for only short feeding periods, and the infant is cared for in a separate nursery. The labor/delivery/recovery/postpartum room setting allows increased parent-infant contact. Birth centers are set up to allow an increase in parent-infant contact. Home births allow an increase in parent-infant contact. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remembering REF:   p. 2                OBJ:   Nursing Process: Planning MSC:  Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
  1. As a result of changes in health care delivery and funding, a current trend seen in the pediatric setting is
a. increased hospitalization of children.
b. decreased number of children living in poverty.
c. an increase in ambulatory care.
d. decreased use of managed care.
ANS:  C One effect of managed care has been that pediatric health care delivery has shifted dramatically from the acute care setting to the ambulatory setting in order to provide more cost-efficient care. The number of hospital beds being used has decreased as more care is given in outpatient settings and in the home. The number of children living in poverty has increased over the past decade. One of the biggest changes in health care has been the growth of managed care. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remembering REF:   p. 5                OBJ:   Nursing Process: Planning MSC:  Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
  1. The Women, Infants, and Children (WIC) program provides
a. well-child examinations for infants and children living at the poverty level.
b. immunizations for high-risk infants and children.
c. screening for infants with developmental disorders.
d. supplemental food supplies to low-income pregnant or breastfeeding women.
ANS:  D WIC is a federal program that provides supplemental food supplies to low-income women who are pregnant or breastfeeding and to their children until age 5 years. Medicaid’s Early and Periodic Screening, Diagnosis, and Treatment Program provides for well-child examinations and for treatment of any medical problems diagnosed during such checkups. Children in the WIC program are often referred for immunizations, but that is not the primary focus of the program. Public Law 99-457 is part of the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act that provides financial incentives to states to establish comprehensive early intervention services for infants and toddlers with, or at risk for, developmental disabilities. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   p. 8 OBJ:   Integrated Process: Teaching-Learning MSC:  Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
  1. In most states, adolescents who are not emancipated minors must have the permission of their parents before
a. treatment for drug abuse.
b. treatment for sexually transmitted diseases (STDs).
c. accessing birth control.
d. surgery.
ANS:  D Minors are not considered capable of giving informed consent, so a surgical procedure would require consent of the parent or guardian. Exceptions exist for obtaining treatment for drug abuse or STDs or for getting birth control in most states. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remembering REF:   p. 17              OBJ:   Nursing Process: Planning MSC:  Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
  1. The maternity nurse should have a clear understanding of the correct use of a clinical pathway. One characteristic of clinical pathways is that they
a. are developed and implemented by nurses.
b. are used primarily in the pediatric setting.
c. set specific time lines for sequencing interventions.
d. are part of the nursing process.
ANS:  C Clinical pathways are standardized, interdisciplinary plans of care devised for patients with a particular health problem. They are used to identify patient outcomes, specify time lines to achieve those outcomes, direct appropriate interventions and sequencing of interventions, include interventions from a variety of disciplines, promote collaboration, and involve a comprehensive approach to care. They are developed by multiple health care professionals and reflect interdisciplinary care. They can be used in multiple settings and for patients throughout the life span. They are not part of the nursing process but can be used in conjunction with the nursing process to provide care to patients. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remembering REF:   p. 7                OBJ:   Nursing Process: Planning MSC:  Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
  1. The fastest growing group of homeless people is
a. men and women preparing for retirement.
b. migrant workers.
c. single women and their children.
d. intravenous (IV) substance abusers.
ANS:  C Pregnancy and birth, especially for a teenager, are important contributing factors for becoming homeless. People preparing for retirement, migrant workers, and IV substance abusers are not among the fastest growing groups of homeless people. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remembering REF:   p. 14              OBJ:   Nursing Process: Assessment MSC:  Client Needs: Physiologic Integrity
  1. A nurse wishes to work to reduce infant mortality in the United States. Which activity would this nurse most likely participate in?
a. Creating pamphlets in several different languages using an interpreter.
b. Assisting women to enroll in Medicaid by their third trimester.
c. Volunteering to provide prenatal care at community centers.
d. Working as an intake counselor at a women’s shelter.
ANS:  C Prenatal care is vital to reducing infant mortality and medical costs. This nurse would most likely participate in community service providing prenatal care outreach activities in community centers, particularly in low-income areas. Pamphlets in other languages, enrolling in Medicaid, and working at a women’s shelter all might impact infant mortality, but the greatest effect would be from assisting women to get consistent prenatal care. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Application/Applying REF:   p. 14              OBJ:   Nursing Process: Implementation MSC:  Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
  1. The intrapartum woman sees no need for a routine admission fetal monitoring strip. If she continues to refuse, what is the first action the nurse should take?
a. Consult the family of the woman.
b. Notify the provider of the situation.
c. Document the woman’s refusal in the nurse’s notes.
d. Make a referral to the hospital ethics committee.
ANS:  B Patients must be allowed to make choices voluntarily without undue influence or coercion from others. The physician, especially if unaware of the patient’s decision, should be notified immediately. Both professionals can work to ensure the mother understands the rationale for the action and the possible consequences of refusal. The woman herself is the decision-maker, unless incapacitated. Documentation should occur but is not the first action. This situation does not rise to the level of an ethical issue so there is no reason to call the ethics committee. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Application/Applying REF:   p. 18              OBJ:   Nursing Process: Implementation MSC:  Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
  1. Which statement is true regarding the “quality assurance” or “incident” report?
a. The report assures the legal department that no problem exists.
b. Reports are a permanent part of the patient’s chart.
c. The nurse’s notes should contain, “Incident report filed, and copy placed in chart.”
d. This report is a form of documentation of an event that may result in legal action.
ANS:  D An incident report is used when something occurs that might result in legal action, such as a patient fall or medication error. It warns the legal department that there may be a problem in a particular patient’s care. Incident reports are not part of the patient’s chart; thus the nurses’ notes should not contain any reference to them. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remembering REF:   p. 18              OBJ:   Integrated Process: Communication and Documentation MSC:  Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
  1. Elective abortion is considered an ethical issue because
a. abortion law is unclear about a woman’s constitutional rights.
b. the Supreme Court ruled that life begins at conception.
c. a conflict exists between the rights of the woman and the rights of the fetus.
d. it requires third-party consent.
ANS:  C
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