Test Bank For Fundamentals of Nursing 2nd Edition Yoost
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Test Bank For Fundamentals of Nursing 2nd Edition Yoost
Chapter 01: Nursing, Theory, and Professional Practice
Yoost & Crawford: Fundamentals of Nursing: Active Learning for Collaborative
Practice, 2nd Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. A group of nursing students are discussing the impact of nonnursing theories in clinical
practice. The students would be correct if they chose which theory to prioritize patient care?
a. Erikson’s Psychosocial Theory
b. Paul’s Critical-Thinking Theory
c. Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs
d. Rosenstock’s Health Belief Model
ANS: C
Maslow’s hierarchy of needs specifies the psychological and physiologic factors that affect
each person’s physical and mental health. The nurse’s understanding of these factors helps
with formulating Nursing diagnoses that address the patient’s needs and values to prioritize
care. Erikson’s Psychosocial Theory of Development and Socialization is based on
individuals’ interacting and learning about their world. Nurses use concepts of developmental
theory to critically think in providing care for their patients at various stages of their lives.
Rosenstock (1974) developed the psychological Health Belief Model. The model addresses
possible reasons for why a patient may not comply with recommended health promotion
behaviors. This model is especially useful to nurses as they educate patients.
DIF: Remembering OBJ: 1.5 TOP: Planning
MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
NOT: Concepts: Care Coordination
2. A nursing student is preparing study notes from a recent lecture in nursing history. The
student would credit Florence Nightingale for which definition of nursing?
a. The imbalance between the patient and the environment decreases the capacity for
health.
b. The nurse needs to focus on interpersonal processes between nurse and patient.
c. The nurse assists the patient with essential functions toward independence.
d. Human beings are interacting in continuous motion as energy fields.
ANS: A
Florence Nightingale’s (1860) concept of the environment emphasized prevention and clean
air, water, and housing. This theory states that the imbalance between the patient and the
environment decreases the capacity for health and does not allow for conservation of energy.
Hildegard Peplau (1952) focused on the roles played by the nurse and the interpersonal
process between a nurse and a patient. Virginia Henderson described the nurse’s role as
substitutive (doing for the person), supplementary (helping the person), or complementary
(working with the person), with the goal of independence for the patient. Martha Rogers
(1970) developed the Science of Unitary Human Beings. She stated that human beings and
their environments are interacting in continuous motion as infinite energy fields.
DIF: Understanding OBJ: 1.4 TOP: Planning
MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Health Promotion and Maintenance
NOT: Concepts: Health Promotion
Fundamentals of Nursing 2nd Edition Yoost Test BankNU
3. The nurse identifies which nurse established the American Red Cross during the Civil War?
a. Dorothea Dix
b. Linda Richards
c. Lena Higbee
d. Clara Barton
ANS: D
Clara Barton practiced nursing in the Civil War and established the American Red Cross.
Dorothea Dix was the head of the U.S. Sanitary Commission, which was a forerunner of the
Army Nurse Corps. Linda Richards was America’s first trained nurse, graduating from
Boston’s Women’s Hospital in 1873, and Lena Higbee, superintendent of the U.S. Navy
Nurse Corps, was awarded the Navy Cross in 1918.
DIF: Remembering OBJ: 1.3 TOP: Assessment
MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Health Promotion and Maintenance
NOT: Concepts: Professionalism
4. The nursing instructor is researching the five proficiencies regarded as essential for students
and professionals. The nursing instructor identifies which organization would be found to
have added safety as a sixth competency?
a. Quality and Safety Education for Nurses (QSEN)
b. Institute of Medicine (IOM)
c. American Association of Colleges of Nursing (AACN)
d. National League for Nursing (NLN)
ANS: A
The Institute of Medicine report, Health Professions Education: A Bridge to Quality (2003),
outlines five core competencies. These include patient-centered care, interdisciplinary
teamwork, use of evidence-based medicine, quality improvement, and use of information
technology. QSEN added safety as a sixth competency. The Essentials of Baccalaureate
Education for Professional Nursing Practice are provided and updated by the American
Association of Colleges of Nursing (AACN) (2008). The document offers a framework for the
education of professional nurses with outcomes for students to meet. The National League for
Nursing (NLN) outlines and updates competencies for practical, associate, baccalaureate, and
graduate nursing education programs.
DIF: Remembering OBJ: 1.1 TOP: Planning
MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
NOT: Concepts: Care Coordination
5. The nurse manager is interviewing graduate nurses to fill existing staffing vacancies. When
hiring graduate nurses, the nurse manager realizes that they will probably not be considered
“competent” until they complete which task?
a. They graduate and pass NCLEX.
b. They have worked 2 to 3 years.
c. Their last year of nursing school.
d. They are actually hired.
ANS: B
Fundamentals of Nursing 2nd Edition Yoost Test BankNU
Benner’s model identifies five levels of proficiency: novice, advanced beginner, competent,
proficient, and expert. The student nurse progresses from novice to advanced beginner during
nursing school and attains the competent level after approximately 2 to 3 years of work
experience after graduation. To obtain the RN credential, a person must graduate from an
approved school of nursing and pass a state licensing examination called the National Council
Licensure Examination for Registered Nurses (NCLEX-RN) usually taken soon after
completion of an approved nursing program.
DIF: Remembering OBJ: 1.7 TOP: Planning
MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
NOT: Concepts: Care Coordination
6. The prospective student is considering options for beginning a career in nursing. Which
degree would best match the student’s desire to conduct research at the university level?
a. Associate Degree in Nursing (ADN)
b. Bachelor of Science in Nursing (BSN)
c. Doctor of Nursing Practice (DNP)
d. Doctor of Philosophy in Nursing (PhD)
ANS: D
Doctoral nursing education can result in a Doctor of Philosophy (PhD) degree. This degree
prepares nurses for leadership roles in research, teaching, and administration that are essential
to advancing nursing as a profession. Associate Degree in Nursing (ADN) programs usually
are conducted in a community college setting. The nursing curriculum focuses on adult acute
and chronic disease; maternal/child health; pediatrics; and psychiatric/mental health nursing.
ADN RNs may return to school to earn a bachelor’s degree or higher in an RN-to-BSN or
RN-to-MSN program. Bachelor’s degree programs include community health and
management courses beyond those provided in an associate degree program. A newer
practice-focused doctoral degree is the Doctor of Nursing practice (DNP), which concentrates
on the clinical aspects of nursing. DNP specialties include the four advanced practice roles of
NP, CNS, CNM, and CRNA.
DIF: Remembering OBJ: 1.9 TOP: Assessment
MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
NOT: Concepts: Care Coordination
7. During a staff meeting, the nurse manager announces that the hospital will be seeking Magnet
status. To explain the requirements for this award, the nurse manager will contact which
organization?
a. American Nurses Association (ANA)
b. American Nurses Credentialing Center (ANCC)
c. National League for Nursing (NLN)
d. Joint Commission
ANS: B
The American Nurses Credentialing Center (ANCC) awards Magnet Recognition to hospitals
that have shown excellence and innovation in nursing. The ANA is a professional
organization that provides standards of nursing practice. The National League for Nursing
(NLN) outlines and updates competencies for practical, associate, baccalaureate, and graduate
nursing education programs. The Joint Commission is the accrediting organization for health
care facilities in the United States.
Fundamentals of Nursing 2nd Edition Yoost Test BankNU
DIF: Remembering OBJ: 1.1 TOP: Assessment
MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
NOT: Concepts: Care Coordination
8. The nurse is caring for a patient who refuses two units of packed red blood cells. When the
nurse notifies the health care provider of the patient’s decision, the nurse is acting in which
role?
a. Manager
b. Change agent
c. Advocate
d. Educator
ANS: C
As the patient’s advocate, the nurse interprets information and provides the necessary
education. The nurse then accepts and respects the patient’s decisions even if they are
different from the nurse’s own beliefs. The nurse supports the patient’s wishes and
communicates them to other health care providers. A nurse manages all of the activities and
treatments for patients. In the role of change agent, the nurse works with patients to address
their health concerns and with staff members to address change in an organization or within a
community. The nurse ensures that the patient receives sufficient information on which to
base consent for care and related treatment. Education becomes a major focus of discharge
planning so that patients will be prepared to handle their own needs at home.
DIF: Applying OBJ: 1.2 TOP: Implementation
MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
NOT: Concepts: Care Coordination
9. The nursing student develops a plan of care based on a recently published article describing
the effects of bed rest on a patient’s calcium blood levels. When creating the plan of care, the
nursing student has the obligation to consider which action?
a. Critically appraise the evidence and determine validity.
b. Ensure that the plan of care does not alter current practice.
c. Change the process even when there is no problem identified.
d. Maintain the plan of care regardless of initial outcome.
ANS: A
Evidence-based practice (EBP) is an integration of the best-available research evidence with
clinical judgment about a specific patient situation. The nurse assesses current and past
research, clinical guidelines, and other resources to identify relevant literature. The application
of EBP includes critically appraising the evidence to assess its validity, designing a change for
practice, assessing the need for change and identifying a problem, and integrating and
maintaining change while monitoring process and outcomes by reevaluating the application of
evidence and assessing areas for improvement.
DIF: Applying OBJ: 1.2 TOP: Implementation
MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
NOT: Concepts: Care Coordinatio
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Content | Test Bank For Fundamentals of Nursing 2nd Edition YoostChapter 01: Nursing, Theory, and Professional Practice Yoost & Crawford: Fundamentals of Nursing: Active Learning for Collaborative Practice, 2nd Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A group of nursing students are discussing the impact of nonnursing theories in clinical practice. The students would be correct if they chose which theory to prioritize patient care? a. Erikson’s Psychosocial Theory b. Paul’s Critical-Thinking Theory c. Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs d. Rosenstock’s Health Belief Model ANS: C Maslow’s hierarchy of needs specifies the psychological and physiologic factors that affect each person’s physical and mental health. The nurse’s understanding of these factors helps with formulating Nursing diagnoses that address the patient’s needs and values to prioritize care. Erikson’s Psychosocial Theory of Development and Socialization is based on individuals’ interacting and learning about their world. Nurses use concepts of developmental theory to critically think in providing care for their patients at various stages of their lives. Rosenstock (1974) developed the psychological Health Belief Model. The model addresses possible reasons for why a patient may not comply with recommended health promotion behaviors. This model is especially useful to nurses as they educate patients. DIF: Remembering OBJ: 1.5 TOP: Planning MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care NOT: Concepts: Care Coordination 2. A nursing student is preparing study notes from a recent lecture in nursing history. The student would credit Florence Nightingale for which definition of nursing? a. The imbalance between the patient and the environment decreases the capacity for health. b. The nurse needs to focus on interpersonal processes between nurse and patient. c. The nurse assists the patient with essential functions toward independence. d. Human beings are interacting in continuous motion as energy fields. ANS: A Florence Nightingale’s (1860) concept of the environment emphasized prevention and clean air, water, and housing. This theory states that the imbalance between the patient and the environment decreases the capacity for health and does not allow for conservation of energy. Hildegard Peplau (1952) focused on the roles played by the nurse and the interpersonal process between a nurse and a patient. Virginia Henderson described the nurse’s role as substitutive (doing for the person), supplementary (helping the person), or complementary (working with the person), with the goal of independence for the patient. Martha Rogers (1970) developed the Science of Unitary Human Beings. She stated that human beings and their environments are interacting in continuous motion as infinite energy fields. DIF: Understanding OBJ: 1.4 TOP: Planning MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Health Promotion and Maintenance NOT: Concepts: Health Promotion Fundamentals of Nursing 2nd Edition Yoost Test BankNU 3. The nurse identifies which nurse established the American Red Cross during the Civil War? a. Dorothea Dix b. Linda Richards c. Lena Higbee d. Clara Barton ANS: D Clara Barton practiced nursing in the Civil War and established the American Red Cross. Dorothea Dix was the head of the U.S. Sanitary Commission, which was a forerunner of the Army Nurse Corps. Linda Richards was America’s first trained nurse, graduating from Boston’s Women’s Hospital in 1873, and Lena Higbee, superintendent of the U.S. Navy Nurse Corps, was awarded the Navy Cross in 1918. DIF: Remembering OBJ: 1.3 TOP: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Health Promotion and Maintenance NOT: Concepts: Professionalism 4. The nursing instructor is researching the five proficiencies regarded as essential for students and professionals. The nursing instructor identifies which organization would be found to have added safety as a sixth competency? a. Quality and Safety Education for Nurses (QSEN) b. Institute of Medicine (IOM) c. American Association of Colleges of Nursing (AACN) d. National League for Nursing (NLN) ANS: A The Institute of Medicine report, Health Professions Education: A Bridge to Quality (2003), outlines five core competencies. These include patient-centered care, interdisciplinary teamwork, use of evidence-based medicine, quality improvement, and use of information technology. QSEN added safety as a sixth competency. The Essentials of Baccalaureate Education for Professional Nursing Practice are provided and updated by the American Association of Colleges of Nursing (AACN) (2008). The document offers a framework for the education of professional nurses with outcomes for students to meet. The National League for Nursing (NLN) outlines and updates competencies for practical, associate, baccalaureate, and graduate nursing education programs. DIF: Remembering OBJ: 1.1 TOP: Planning MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care NOT: Concepts: Care Coordination 5. The nurse manager is interviewing graduate nurses to fill existing staffing vacancies. When hiring graduate nurses, the nurse manager realizes that they will probably not be considered “competent” until they complete which task? a. They graduate and pass NCLEX. b. They have worked 2 to 3 years. c. Their last year of nursing school. d. They are actually hired. ANS: B Fundamentals of Nursing 2nd Edition Yoost Test BankNU Benner’s model identifies five levels of proficiency: novice, advanced beginner, competent, proficient, and expert. The student nurse progresses from novice to advanced beginner during nursing school and attains the competent level after approximately 2 to 3 years of work experience after graduation. To obtain the RN credential, a person must graduate from an approved school of nursing and pass a state licensing examination called the National Council Licensure Examination for Registered Nurses (NCLEX-RN) usually taken soon after completion of an approved nursing program. DIF: Remembering OBJ: 1.7 TOP: Planning MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care NOT: Concepts: Care Coordination 6. The prospective student is considering options for beginning a career in nursing. Which degree would best match the student’s desire to conduct research at the university level? a. Associate Degree in Nursing (ADN) b. Bachelor of Science in Nursing (BSN) c. Doctor of Nursing Practice (DNP) d. Doctor of Philosophy in Nursing (PhD) ANS: D Doctoral nursing education can result in a Doctor of Philosophy (PhD) degree. This degree prepares nurses for leadership roles in research, teaching, and administration that are essential to advancing nursing as a profession. Associate Degree in Nursing (ADN) programs usually are conducted in a community college setting. The nursing curriculum focuses on adult acute and chronic disease; maternal/child health; pediatrics; and psychiatric/mental health nursing. ADN RNs may return to school to earn a bachelor’s degree or higher in an RN-to-BSN or RN-to-MSN program. Bachelor’s degree programs include community health and management courses beyond those provided in an associate degree program. A newer practice-focused doctoral degree is the Doctor of Nursing practice (DNP), which concentrates on the clinical aspects of nursing. DNP specialties include the four advanced practice roles of NP, CNS, CNM, and CRNA. DIF: Remembering OBJ: 1.9 TOP: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care NOT: Concepts: Care Coordination 7. During a staff meeting, the nurse manager announces that the hospital will be seeking Magnet status. To explain the requirements for this award, the nurse manager will contact which organization? a. American Nurses Association (ANA) b. American Nurses Credentialing Center (ANCC) c. National League for Nursing (NLN) d. Joint Commission ANS: B The American Nurses Credentialing Center (ANCC) awards Magnet Recognition to hospitals that have shown excellence and innovation in nursing. The ANA is a professional organization that provides standards of nursing practice. The National League for Nursing (NLN) outlines and updates competencies for practical, associate, baccalaureate, and graduate nursing education programs. The Joint Commission is the accrediting organization for health care facilities in the United States. Fundamentals of Nursing 2nd Edition Yoost Test BankNU DIF: Remembering OBJ: 1.1 TOP: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care NOT: Concepts: Care Coordination 8. The nurse is caring for a patient who refuses two units of packed red blood cells. When the nurse notifies the health care provider of the patient’s decision, the nurse is acting in which role? a. Manager b. Change agent c. Advocate d. Educator ANS: C As the patient’s advocate, the nurse interprets information and provides the necessary education. The nurse then accepts and respects the patient’s decisions even if they are different from the nurse’s own beliefs. The nurse supports the patient’s wishes and communicates them to other health care providers. A nurse manages all of the activities and treatments for patients. In the role of change agent, the nurse works with patients to address their health concerns and with staff members to address change in an organization or within a community. The nurse ensures that the patient receives sufficient information on which to base consent for care and related treatment. Education becomes a major focus of discharge planning so that patients will be prepared to handle their own needs at home. DIF: Applying OBJ: 1.2 TOP: Implementation MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care NOT: Concepts: Care Coordination 9. The nursing student develops a plan of care based on a recently published article describing the effects of bed rest on a patient’s calcium blood levels. When creating the plan of care, the nursing student has the obligation to consider which action? a. Critically appraise the evidence and determine validity. b. Ensure that the plan of care does not alter current practice. c. Change the process even when there is no problem identified. d. Maintain the plan of care regardless of initial outcome. ANS: A Evidence-based practice (EBP) is an integration of the best-available research evidence with clinical judgment about a specific patient situation. The nurse assesses current and past research, clinical guidelines, and other resources to identify relevant literature. The application of EBP includes critically appraising the evidence to assess its validity, designing a change for practice, assessing the need for change and identifying a problem, and integrating and maintaining change while monitoring process and outcomes by reevaluating the application of evidence and assessing areas for improvement. DIF: Applying OBJ: 1.2 TOP: Implementation MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care NOT: Concepts: Care Coordinatio | Chapter 1. The Concept of Stress Adaptation
Test Bank for Psychiatric Mental Health Nursing 8th Edition by TownsendMultiple Choice
| Test Bank For Essentials of Psychiatric Mental Health Nursing 8th MorganChapter 1: Mental Health and Mental Illness Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____ 1. A nurse is assessing a client who experiences occasional feelings of sadness because of the recent death of a beloved pet. The client’s appetite, sleep patterns, and daily routine have not changed. How would the nurse interpret the client’s behaviors? 1. The client’s behaviors demonstrate mental illness in the form of depression. 2. The client’s behaviors are inappropriate, which indicates the presence of mental illness. 3. The client’s behaviors are not congruent with cultural norms. 4. The client’s behaviors demonstrate no functional impairment, indicating no mental illness. ____ 2. At which point would the nurse determine that a client is at risk for developing a mental illness? 1. When thoughts, feelings, and behaviors are not reflective of the DSM-5 criteria. 2. When maladaptive responses to stress are coupled with interference in daily functioning. 3. When a client communicates significant distress. 4. When a client uses defense mechanisms as ego protection. ____ 3. A client has been given a diagnosis of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Which statement made by the client does the nurse recognize as the bargaining stage of grief? 1. “I hate my partner for giving me this disease I will die from!” 2. “If I don’t do intravenous (IV) drugs anymore, God won’t let me die.” 3. “I am going to support groups and learn more about the disease.” 4. “Can you please re-draw the test results, I think they may be wrong?” ____ 4. A nurse notes that a client is extremely withdrawn, delusional, and emotionally exhausted. The nurse assesses the client’s anxiety as which level? 1. Mild anxiety 2. Moderate anxiety 3. Severe anxiety 4. Panic anxiety ____ 5. A psychiatric nurse intern states, “This client’s use of defense mechanisms should be eliminated.” Which is a correct evaluation of this nurse’s statement? 1. Defense mechanisms can be appropriate responses to stress and need not be eliminated. 2. Defense mechanisms are a maladaptive attempt of the ego to manage anxiety and should always be eliminated. 3. Defense mechanisms, used by individuals with weak ego integrity, should be discouraged and not completely eliminated. 4. Defense mechanisms cause disintegration of the ego and should be fostered and encouraged. ESSENTIALS OF PSYCHIATRIC MENTAL HEALTH NURSING 8TH MORGAN TEST BANK Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company ____ 6. During an intake assessment, a nurse asks both physiological and psychosocial questions. The client angrily responds, “I’m here for my heart, not my head problems.” Which is the nurse’s best response? 1. “It is just a routine part of our assessment. All clients are asked these same questions.” 2. “Why are you concerned about these types of questions?” 3. “Psychological factors, like excessive stress, have been found to affect medical conditions.” 4. “We can skip these questions, if you like. It isn’t imperative that we complete this section.” ____ 7. A client who is being treated for chronic kidney disease complains to the health-care provider that he does not like the food available to him while hospitalized. The health-care provider insists that the client strictly adhere to the diet plan. What action can be expected is the client uses the defense mechanism of displacement? 1. The client assertively confronts the health-care provider. 2. The client insists on being discharged and goes for a long, brisk walk. 3. The client snaps at the nurse and criticizes the nursing care provided. 4. The client hides his anger by explaining the logical reasoning for the diet to his spouse. ____ 8. A fourth-grade boy teases and makes jokes about a cute girl in his class. A nurse would recognize this behavior as indicative of which defense mechanism? 1. Displacement 2. Projection 3. Reaction formation 4. Sublimation ____ 9. Which nursing statement regarding the concept of psychosis is most accurate? 1. Individuals experiencing psychoses are aware that their behaviors are maladaptive. 2. Individuals experiencing psychoses experience little distress. 3. Individuals experiencing psychoses are aware of experiencing psychological problems. 4. Individuals experiencing psychoses are based in reality. ____ 10. When under stress, a client routinely uses alcohol to excess. When the client’s husband finds her drunk, the husband yells at the client about her chronic alcohol abuse. Which action alerts the nurse to the client’s use of the defense mechanism of denial? 1. The client hides liquor bottles in a closet. 2. The client yells at her son for slouching in his chair. 3. The client burns dinner on purpose. 4. The client says to the spouse, “I don’t drink too much!” ____ 11. Devastated by a divorce from an abusive husband, a wife completes grief counseling. Which statement by the wife would indicate to a nurse that the client is in the acceptance stage of grief? 1. “If only we could have tried again, things might have worked out.” 2. “I am so mad that the children and I had to put up with him as long as we did.” 3. “Yes, it was a difficult relationship, but I think I have learned from the ESSENTIALS OF PSYCHIATRIC MENTAL HEALTH NURSING 8TH MORGAN TEST BANK WWW.NURSINGTB.COMN U R S I N G T B . C O M Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company experience.” 4. “I have a difficult time getting out of bed most days.” ____ 12. According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, which client action would demonstrate the highest achievement in terms of mental health? 1. Maintaining a long-term, faithful, intimate relationship 2. Achieving a sense of self-confidence 3. Possessing a feeling of self-fulfillment and realizing full potential 4. Developing a sense of purpose and the ability to direct activities ____ 13. According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, which situation on an inpatient psychiatric unit would require priority intervention by a nurse? 1. A client rudely complaining about limited visiting hours 2. A client exhibiting aggressive behavior toward another client 3. A client stating that no one cares 4. A client verbalizing feelings of failure Multiple Response Identify one or more choices that best complete the statement or answer the question. ____ 14. Which describes a defense mechanism an individual may use to relieve anxiety in a stressful situation? (Select all that apply.) 1. Homework 2. Smoking 3. Itching 4. Nail biting 5. Sleeping ____ 15. The nurse is reviewing the DSM-5 definition of a mental health disorder and notes the definition includes a disturbance in which areas? (Select all that apply.) 1. Cognition 2. Physical 3. Emotional regulation 4. Behavior 5. Developmental Completion Complete each statement. 16. _______________________ is a diffuse apprehension that is vague in nature and is associated with feelings of uncertainty and helplessness. 17. _______________________ is a subjective state of emotional, physical, and social responses to the loss of a valued entity. Other ESSENTIALS OF PSYCHIATRIC MENTAL HEALTH NURSING 8TH MORGAN TEST BANK Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company 18. Place in order the Kübler Ross stages of grief from 1-5. (Enter the number of each step in the proper sequence, using comma and space format, such as: 1, 2, 3, 4.) 1. Bargaining 2. Denial 3. Acceptance 4. Depression 5. Anger | Test Bank For Critical Care Nursing 8th Edition By UrdenSample QuestionsChapter 04: Genetic Issues Urden: Critical Care Nursing, 8th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE
| Old’s Maternal-Newborn Nursing and Women’s Health, 11e (Davidson/London/Ladewig)Chapter 1 Contemporary Maternal-Newborn Nursing
| Test Bank for Claytons Basic Pharmacology for Nurses 18th Edition by WillihnganzChapter 01: Drug Definitions, Standards, and Information Sources Willihnganz: Clayton’s Basic Pharmacology for Nurses, 18th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.What is the name under which a drug is listed by the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA)?
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