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Test Bank For Fundamentals of Nursing 2nd Edition Yoost

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Test Bank For Fundamentals of Nursing 2nd Edition Yoost

Chapter 01: Nursing, Theory, and Professional Practice
Yoost & Crawford: Fundamentals of Nursing: Active Learning for Collaborative
Practice, 2nd Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. A group of nursing students are discussing the impact of nonnursing theories in clinical
practice. The students would be correct if they chose which theory to prioritize patient care?
a. Erikson’s Psychosocial Theory
b. Paul’s Critical-Thinking Theory
c. Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs
d. Rosenstock’s Health Belief Model
ANS: C
Maslow’s hierarchy of needs specifies the psychological and physiologic factors that affect
each person’s physical and mental health. The nurse’s understanding of these factors helps
with formulating Nursing diagnoses that address the patient’s needs and values to prioritize
care. Erikson’s Psychosocial Theory of Development and Socialization is based on
individuals’ interacting and learning about their world. Nurses use concepts of developmental
theory to critically think in providing care for their patients at various stages of their lives.
Rosenstock (1974) developed the psychological Health Belief Model. The model addresses
possible reasons for why a patient may not comply with recommended health promotion
behaviors. This model is especially useful to nurses as they educate patients.
DIF: Remembering OBJ: 1.5 TOP: Planning
MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
NOT: Concepts: Care Coordination

2. A nursing student is preparing study notes from a recent lecture in nursing history. The
student would credit Florence Nightingale for which definition of nursing?
a. The imbalance between the patient and the environment decreases the capacity for
health.
b. The nurse needs to focus on interpersonal processes between nurse and patient.
c. The nurse assists the patient with essential functions toward independence.
d. Human beings are interacting in continuous motion as energy fields.
ANS: A
Florence Nightingale’s (1860) concept of the environment emphasized prevention and clean
air, water, and housing. This theory states that the imbalance between the patient and the
environment decreases the capacity for health and does not allow for conservation of energy.
Hildegard Peplau (1952) focused on the roles played by the nurse and the interpersonal
process between a nurse and a patient. Virginia Henderson described the nurse’s role as
substitutive (doing for the person), supplementary (helping the person), or complementary
(working with the person), with the goal of independence for the patient. Martha Rogers
(1970) developed the Science of Unitary Human Beings. She stated that human beings and
their environments are interacting in continuous motion as infinite energy fields.
DIF: Understanding OBJ: 1.4 TOP: Planning
MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Health Promotion and Maintenance
NOT: Concepts: Health Promotion

Fundamentals of Nursing 2nd Edition Yoost Test BankNU

3. The nurse identifies which nurse established the American Red Cross during the Civil War?
a. Dorothea Dix
b. Linda Richards
c. Lena Higbee
d. Clara Barton
ANS: D
Clara Barton practiced nursing in the Civil War and established the American Red Cross.
Dorothea Dix was the head of the U.S. Sanitary Commission, which was a forerunner of the
Army Nurse Corps. Linda Richards was America’s first trained nurse, graduating from
Boston’s Women’s Hospital in 1873, and Lena Higbee, superintendent of the U.S. Navy
Nurse Corps, was awarded the Navy Cross in 1918.
DIF: Remembering OBJ: 1.3 TOP: Assessment
MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Health Promotion and Maintenance
NOT: Concepts: Professionalism

4. The nursing instructor is researching the five proficiencies regarded as essential for students
and professionals. The nursing instructor identifies which organization would be found to
have added safety as a sixth competency?
a. Quality and Safety Education for Nurses (QSEN)
b. Institute of Medicine (IOM)
c. American Association of Colleges of Nursing (AACN)
d. National League for Nursing (NLN)
ANS: A
The Institute of Medicine report, Health Professions Education: A Bridge to Quality (2003),
outlines five core competencies. These include patient-centered care, interdisciplinary
teamwork, use of evidence-based medicine, quality improvement, and use of information
technology. QSEN added safety as a sixth competency. The Essentials of Baccalaureate
Education for Professional Nursing Practice are provided and updated by the American
Association of Colleges of Nursing (AACN) (2008). The document offers a framework for the
education of professional nurses with outcomes for students to meet. The National League for
Nursing (NLN) outlines and updates competencies for practical, associate, baccalaureate, and
graduate nursing education programs.
DIF: Remembering OBJ: 1.1 TOP: Planning
MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
NOT: Concepts: Care Coordination

5. The nurse manager is interviewing graduate nurses to fill existing staffing vacancies. When
hiring graduate nurses, the nurse manager realizes that they will probably not be considered
“competent” until they complete which task?
a. They graduate and pass NCLEX.
b. They have worked 2 to 3 years.
c. Their last year of nursing school.
d. They are actually hired.
ANS: B

Fundamentals of Nursing 2nd Edition Yoost Test BankNU

Benner’s model identifies five levels of proficiency: novice, advanced beginner, competent,
proficient, and expert. The student nurse progresses from novice to advanced beginner during
nursing school and attains the competent level after approximately 2 to 3 years of work
experience after graduation. To obtain the RN credential, a person must graduate from an
approved school of nursing and pass a state licensing examination called the National Council
Licensure Examination for Registered Nurses (NCLEX-RN) usually taken soon after
completion of an approved nursing program.
DIF: Remembering OBJ: 1.7 TOP: Planning
MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
NOT: Concepts: Care Coordination

6. The prospective student is considering options for beginning a career in nursing. Which
degree would best match the student’s desire to conduct research at the university level?
a. Associate Degree in Nursing (ADN)
b. Bachelor of Science in Nursing (BSN)
c. Doctor of Nursing Practice (DNP)
d. Doctor of Philosophy in Nursing (PhD)
ANS: D
Doctoral nursing education can result in a Doctor of Philosophy (PhD) degree. This degree
prepares nurses for leadership roles in research, teaching, and administration that are essential
to advancing nursing as a profession. Associate Degree in Nursing (ADN) programs usually
are conducted in a community college setting. The nursing curriculum focuses on adult acute
and chronic disease; maternal/child health; pediatrics; and psychiatric/mental health nursing.
ADN RNs may return to school to earn a bachelor’s degree or higher in an RN-to-BSN or
RN-to-MSN program. Bachelor’s degree programs include community health and
management courses beyond those provided in an associate degree program. A newer
practice-focused doctoral degree is the Doctor of Nursing practice (DNP), which concentrates
on the clinical aspects of nursing. DNP specialties include the four advanced practice roles of
NP, CNS, CNM, and CRNA.
DIF: Remembering OBJ: 1.9 TOP: Assessment
MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
NOT: Concepts: Care Coordination

7. During a staff meeting, the nurse manager announces that the hospital will be seeking Magnet
status. To explain the requirements for this award, the nurse manager will contact which
organization?
a. American Nurses Association (ANA)
b. American Nurses Credentialing Center (ANCC)
c. National League for Nursing (NLN)
d. Joint Commission
ANS: B
The American Nurses Credentialing Center (ANCC) awards Magnet Recognition to hospitals
that have shown excellence and innovation in nursing. The ANA is a professional
organization that provides standards of nursing practice. The National League for Nursing
(NLN) outlines and updates competencies for practical, associate, baccalaureate, and graduate
nursing education programs. The Joint Commission is the accrediting organization for health
care facilities in the United States.

Fundamentals of Nursing 2nd Edition Yoost Test BankNU

DIF: Remembering OBJ: 1.1 TOP: Assessment
MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
NOT: Concepts: Care Coordination

8. The nurse is caring for a patient who refuses two units of packed red blood cells. When the
nurse notifies the health care provider of the patient’s decision, the nurse is acting in which
role?
a. Manager
b. Change agent
c. Advocate
d. Educator
ANS: C
As the patient’s advocate, the nurse interprets information and provides the necessary
education. The nurse then accepts and respects the patient’s decisions even if they are
different from the nurse’s own beliefs. The nurse supports the patient’s wishes and
communicates them to other health care providers. A nurse manages all of the activities and
treatments for patients. In the role of change agent, the nurse works with patients to address
their health concerns and with staff members to address change in an organization or within a
community. The nurse ensures that the patient receives sufficient information on which to
base consent for care and related treatment. Education becomes a major focus of discharge
planning so that patients will be prepared to handle their own needs at home.
DIF: Applying OBJ: 1.2 TOP: Implementation
MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
NOT: Concepts: Care Coordination

9. The nursing student develops a plan of care based on a recently published article describing
the effects of bed rest on a patient’s calcium blood levels. When creating the plan of care, the
nursing student has the obligation to consider which action?
a. Critically appraise the evidence and determine validity.
b. Ensure that the plan of care does not alter current practice.
c. Change the process even when there is no problem identified.
d. Maintain the plan of care regardless of initial outcome.
ANS: A
Evidence-based practice (EBP) is an integration of the best-available research evidence with
clinical judgment about a specific patient situation. The nurse assesses current and past
research, clinical guidelines, and other resources to identify relevant literature. The application
of EBP includes critically appraising the evidence to assess its validity, designing a change for
practice, assessing the need for change and identifying a problem, and integrating and
maintaining change while monitoring process and outcomes by reevaluating the application of
evidence and assessing areas for improvement.
DIF: Applying OBJ: 1.2 TOP: Implementation
MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
NOT: Concepts: Care Coordinatio

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Test Bank For Fundamentals of Nursing 2nd Edition Yoost

Chapter 01: Nursing, Theory, and Professional Practice Yoost & Crawford: Fundamentals of Nursing: Active Learning for Collaborative Practice, 2nd Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A group of nursing students are discussing the impact of nonnursing theories in clinical practice. The students would be correct if they chose which theory to prioritize patient care? a. Erikson’s Psychosocial Theory b. Paul’s Critical-Thinking Theory c. Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs d. Rosenstock’s Health Belief Model ANS: C Maslow’s hierarchy of needs specifies the psychological and physiologic factors that affect each person’s physical and mental health. The nurse’s understanding of these factors helps with formulating Nursing diagnoses that address the patient’s needs and values to prioritize care. Erikson’s Psychosocial Theory of Development and Socialization is based on individuals’ interacting and learning about their world. Nurses use concepts of developmental theory to critically think in providing care for their patients at various stages of their lives. Rosenstock (1974) developed the psychological Health Belief Model. The model addresses possible reasons for why a patient may not comply with recommended health promotion behaviors. This model is especially useful to nurses as they educate patients. DIF: Remembering OBJ: 1.5 TOP: Planning MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care NOT: Concepts: Care Coordination 2. A nursing student is preparing study notes from a recent lecture in nursing history. The student would credit Florence Nightingale for which definition of nursing? a. The imbalance between the patient and the environment decreases the capacity for health. b. The nurse needs to focus on interpersonal processes between nurse and patient. c. The nurse assists the patient with essential functions toward independence. d. Human beings are interacting in continuous motion as energy fields. ANS: A Florence Nightingale’s (1860) concept of the environment emphasized prevention and clean air, water, and housing. This theory states that the imbalance between the patient and the environment decreases the capacity for health and does not allow for conservation of energy. Hildegard Peplau (1952) focused on the roles played by the nurse and the interpersonal process between a nurse and a patient. Virginia Henderson described the nurse’s role as substitutive (doing for the person), supplementary (helping the person), or complementary (working with the person), with the goal of independence for the patient. Martha Rogers (1970) developed the Science of Unitary Human Beings. She stated that human beings and their environments are interacting in continuous motion as infinite energy fields. DIF: Understanding OBJ: 1.4 TOP: Planning MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Health Promotion and Maintenance NOT: Concepts: Health Promotion Fundamentals of Nursing 2nd Edition Yoost Test BankNU 3. The nurse identifies which nurse established the American Red Cross during the Civil War? a. Dorothea Dix b. Linda Richards c. Lena Higbee d. Clara Barton ANS: D Clara Barton practiced nursing in the Civil War and established the American Red Cross. Dorothea Dix was the head of the U.S. Sanitary Commission, which was a forerunner of the Army Nurse Corps. Linda Richards was America’s first trained nurse, graduating from Boston’s Women’s Hospital in 1873, and Lena Higbee, superintendent of the U.S. Navy Nurse Corps, was awarded the Navy Cross in 1918. DIF: Remembering OBJ: 1.3 TOP: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Health Promotion and Maintenance NOT: Concepts: Professionalism 4. The nursing instructor is researching the five proficiencies regarded as essential for students and professionals. The nursing instructor identifies which organization would be found to have added safety as a sixth competency? a. Quality and Safety Education for Nurses (QSEN) b. Institute of Medicine (IOM) c. American Association of Colleges of Nursing (AACN) d. National League for Nursing (NLN) ANS: A The Institute of Medicine report, Health Professions Education: A Bridge to Quality (2003), outlines five core competencies. These include patient-centered care, interdisciplinary teamwork, use of evidence-based medicine, quality improvement, and use of information technology. QSEN added safety as a sixth competency. The Essentials of Baccalaureate Education for Professional Nursing Practice are provided and updated by the American Association of Colleges of Nursing (AACN) (2008). The document offers a framework for the education of professional nurses with outcomes for students to meet. The National League for Nursing (NLN) outlines and updates competencies for practical, associate, baccalaureate, and graduate nursing education programs. DIF: Remembering OBJ: 1.1 TOP: Planning MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care NOT: Concepts: Care Coordination 5. The nurse manager is interviewing graduate nurses to fill existing staffing vacancies. When hiring graduate nurses, the nurse manager realizes that they will probably not be considered “competent” until they complete which task? a. They graduate and pass NCLEX. b. They have worked 2 to 3 years. c. Their last year of nursing school. d. They are actually hired. ANS: B Fundamentals of Nursing 2nd Edition Yoost Test BankNU Benner’s model identifies five levels of proficiency: novice, advanced beginner, competent, proficient, and expert. The student nurse progresses from novice to advanced beginner during nursing school and attains the competent level after approximately 2 to 3 years of work experience after graduation. To obtain the RN credential, a person must graduate from an approved school of nursing and pass a state licensing examination called the National Council Licensure Examination for Registered Nurses (NCLEX-RN) usually taken soon after completion of an approved nursing program. DIF: Remembering OBJ: 1.7 TOP: Planning MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care NOT: Concepts: Care Coordination 6. The prospective student is considering options for beginning a career in nursing. Which degree would best match the student’s desire to conduct research at the university level? a. Associate Degree in Nursing (ADN) b. Bachelor of Science in Nursing (BSN) c. Doctor of Nursing Practice (DNP) d. Doctor of Philosophy in Nursing (PhD) ANS: D Doctoral nursing education can result in a Doctor of Philosophy (PhD) degree. This degree prepares nurses for leadership roles in research, teaching, and administration that are essential to advancing nursing as a profession. Associate Degree in Nursing (ADN) programs usually are conducted in a community college setting. The nursing curriculum focuses on adult acute and chronic disease; maternal/child health; pediatrics; and psychiatric/mental health nursing. ADN RNs may return to school to earn a bachelor’s degree or higher in an RN-to-BSN or RN-to-MSN program. Bachelor’s degree programs include community health and management courses beyond those provided in an associate degree program. A newer practice-focused doctoral degree is the Doctor of Nursing practice (DNP), which concentrates on the clinical aspects of nursing. DNP specialties include the four advanced practice roles of NP, CNS, CNM, and CRNA. DIF: Remembering OBJ: 1.9 TOP: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care NOT: Concepts: Care Coordination 7. During a staff meeting, the nurse manager announces that the hospital will be seeking Magnet status. To explain the requirements for this award, the nurse manager will contact which organization? a. American Nurses Association (ANA) b. American Nurses Credentialing Center (ANCC) c. National League for Nursing (NLN) d. Joint Commission ANS: B The American Nurses Credentialing Center (ANCC) awards Magnet Recognition to hospitals that have shown excellence and innovation in nursing. The ANA is a professional organization that provides standards of nursing practice. The National League for Nursing (NLN) outlines and updates competencies for practical, associate, baccalaureate, and graduate nursing education programs. The Joint Commission is the accrediting organization for health care facilities in the United States. Fundamentals of Nursing 2nd Edition Yoost Test BankNU DIF: Remembering OBJ: 1.1 TOP: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care NOT: Concepts: Care Coordination 8. The nurse is caring for a patient who refuses two units of packed red blood cells. When the nurse notifies the health care provider of the patient’s decision, the nurse is acting in which role? a. Manager b. Change agent c. Advocate d. Educator ANS: C As the patient’s advocate, the nurse interprets information and provides the necessary education. The nurse then accepts and respects the patient’s decisions even if they are different from the nurse’s own beliefs. The nurse supports the patient’s wishes and communicates them to other health care providers. A nurse manages all of the activities and treatments for patients. In the role of change agent, the nurse works with patients to address their health concerns and with staff members to address change in an organization or within a community. The nurse ensures that the patient receives sufficient information on which to base consent for care and related treatment. Education becomes a major focus of discharge planning so that patients will be prepared to handle their own needs at home. DIF: Applying OBJ: 1.2 TOP: Implementation MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care NOT: Concepts: Care Coordination 9. The nursing student develops a plan of care based on a recently published article describing the effects of bed rest on a patient’s calcium blood levels. When creating the plan of care, the nursing student has the obligation to consider which action? a. Critically appraise the evidence and determine validity. b. Ensure that the plan of care does not alter current practice. c. Change the process even when there is no problem identified. d. Maintain the plan of care regardless of initial outcome. ANS: A Evidence-based practice (EBP) is an integration of the best-available research evidence with clinical judgment about a specific patient situation. The nurse assesses current and past research, clinical guidelines, and other resources to identify relevant literature. The application of EBP includes critically appraising the evidence to assess its validity, designing a change for practice, assessing the need for change and identifying a problem, and integrating and maintaining change while monitoring process and outcomes by reevaluating the application of evidence and assessing areas for improvement. DIF: Applying OBJ: 1.2 TOP: Implementation MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care NOT: Concepts: Care Coordinatio
Chapter 1. The Concept of Stress Adaptation

Test Bank for Psychiatric Mental Health Nursing 8th Edition by Townsend

Multiple Choice
  1. A client has experienced the death of a close family member and at the same time becomes unemployed. This situation has resulted in a 6-month score of 110 on the Recent Life Changes Questionnaire. How should the nurse evaluate this client data?
  2. The client is experiencing severe distress and is at risk for physical and psychological illness.
  3. A score of 110 on the Miller and Rahe Recent Life Changes Questionnaire indicates no significant threat of stress-related illness.
  4. Susceptibility to stress-related physical or psychological illness cannot be estimated without knowledge of coping resources and available supports.
  5. The client may view these losses as challenges and perceive them as opportunities.
ANS: C The Recent Life Changes Questionnaire is an expanded version of the Schedule of Recent Experiences and the Rahe-Holmes Social Readjustment Rating Scale. A 6-month score of 300 or more, or a year-score total of 500 or more, indicates high stress in a client’s life. However, positive coping mechanisms and strong social support can limit susceptibility to stress-related illnesses. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Evaluation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
  1. A physically and emotionally healthy client has just been fired. During a routine office visit he states to a nurse: “Perhaps this was the best thing to happen. Maybe I’ll look into pursuing an art degree.” How should the nurse characterize the client’s appraisal of the job loss stressor?
  2. Irrelevant
  3. Harm/loss
  4. Threatening
  5. Challenging
ANS: D The client perceives the situation of job loss as a challenge and an opportunity for growth. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Assessment | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
  1. Which client statement should alert a nurse that a client may be responding maladaptively to stress?
  2. “I’ve found that avoiding contact with others helps me cope.”
  3. “I really enjoy journaling; it’s my private time.”
  4. “I signed up for a yoga class this week.”
  5. “I made an appointment to meet with a therapist.”
ANS: A Reliance on social isolation as a coping mechanism is a maladaptive method to relieve stress. It can prevent learning appropriate coping skills and can prevent access to needed support systems.  KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Evaluation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
  1. A nursing student finds that she comes down with a sinus infection toward the end of every semester. When this occurs, which stage of stress is the student most likely experiencing?
  2. Alarm reaction stage
  3. Stage of resistance
  4. Stage of exhaustion
  5. Fight-or-flight stage
ANS: C At the stage of exhaustion, the student’s exposure to stress has been prolonged and adaptive energy has been depleted. Diseases of adaptation occur more frequently in this stage. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Assessment | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
  1. A school nurse is assessing a female high school student who is overly concerned about her appearance. The client’s mother states, “That’s not something to be stressed about!” Which is the most appropriate nursing response?
  2. “Teenagers! They don’t know a thing about real stress.”
  3. “Stress occurs only when there is a loss.”
  4. “When you are in poor physical condition, you can’t experience psychological well-being.”
  5. “Stress can be psychological. A threat to self-esteem may result in high stress levels.”
ANS: D Stress can be physical or psychological in nature. A perceived threat to self-esteem can be as stressful as a physiological change. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Implementation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
  1. A bright student confides in the school nurse about conflicts related to attending college or working to add needed financial support to the family. Which coping strategy is most appropriate for the nurse to recommend to the student at this time?
  2. Meditation
  3. Problem-solving training
  4. Relaxation
  5. Journaling
ANS: B The student must assess his or her situation and determine the best course of action. Problem-solving training, by providing structure and objectivity, can assist in decision making. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Implementation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
  1. An unemployed college graduate is experiencing severe anxiety over not finding a teaching position and has difficulty with independent problem-solving. During a routine physical examination, the graduate confides in the clinic nurse. Which is the most appropriate nursing intervention?
  2. Encourage the student to use the alternative coping mechanism of relaxation exercises.
  3. Complete the problem-solving process for the client.
  4. Work through the problem-solving process with the client.
  5. Encourage the client to keep a journal.
ANS: C During times of high anxiety and stress, clients will need more assistance in problem-solving and decision making. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Implementation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
  1. A school nurse is assessing a distraught female high school student who is overly concerned because her parents can’t afford horseback riding lessons. How should the nurse interpret the student’s reaction to her perceived problem?
  2. The problem is endangering her well-being.
  3. The problem is personally relevant to her.
  4. The problem is based on immaturity.
  5. The problem is exceeding her capacity to cope.
ANS: B Psychological stressors to self-esteem and self-image are related to how the individual perceives the situation or event. Self-image is of particular importance to adolescents, who feel entitled to have all the advantages that other adolescents experience. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Evaluation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
  1. Meditation has been shown to be an effective stress management technique. When meditation is effective, what should a nurse expect to assess?
  2. An achieved state of relaxation
  3. An achieved insight into one’s feelings
  4. A demonstration of appropriate role behaviors
  5. An enhanced ability to problem-solve
ANS: A Meditation produces relaxation by creating a special state of consciousness through focused concentration. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Evaluation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
  1. A distraught, single, first-time mother cries and asks a nurse, “How can I go to work if I can’t afford childcare?” What is the nurse’s initial action in assisting the client with the problem-solving process?
  2. Determine the risks and benefits for each alternative.
  3. Formulate goals for resolution of the problem.
  4. Evaluate the outcome of the implemented alternative.
  5. Assess the facts of the situation.
ANS: D Before any other steps can be taken, accurate information about the situation must be gathered and assessed. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Implementation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity

Test Bank For Essentials of Psychiatric Mental Health Nursing 8th Morgan

Chapter 1: Mental Health and Mental Illness Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____ 1. A nurse is assessing a client who experiences occasional feelings of sadness because of the recent death of a beloved pet. The client’s appetite, sleep patterns, and daily routine have not changed. How would the nurse interpret the client’s behaviors? 1. The client’s behaviors demonstrate mental illness in the form of depression. 2. The client’s behaviors are inappropriate, which indicates the presence of mental illness. 3. The client’s behaviors are not congruent with cultural norms. 4. The client’s behaviors demonstrate no functional impairment, indicating no mental illness. ____ 2. At which point would the nurse determine that a client is at risk for developing a mental illness? 1. When thoughts, feelings, and behaviors are not reflective of the DSM-5 criteria. 2. When maladaptive responses to stress are coupled with interference in daily functioning. 3. When a client communicates significant distress. 4. When a client uses defense mechanisms as ego protection. ____ 3. A client has been given a diagnosis of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Which statement made by the client does the nurse recognize as the bargaining stage of grief? 1. “I hate my partner for giving me this disease I will die from!” 2. “If I don’t do intravenous (IV) drugs anymore, God won’t let me die.” 3. “I am going to support groups and learn more about the disease.” 4. “Can you please re-draw the test results, I think they may be wrong?” ____ 4. A nurse notes that a client is extremely withdrawn, delusional, and emotionally exhausted. The nurse assesses the client’s anxiety as which level? 1. Mild anxiety 2. Moderate anxiety 3. Severe anxiety 4. Panic anxiety ____ 5. A psychiatric nurse intern states, “This client’s use of defense mechanisms should be eliminated.” Which is a correct evaluation of this nurse’s statement? 1. Defense mechanisms can be appropriate responses to stress and need not be eliminated. 2. Defense mechanisms are a maladaptive attempt of the ego to manage anxiety and should always be eliminated. 3. Defense mechanisms, used by individuals with weak ego integrity, should be discouraged and not completely eliminated. 4. Defense mechanisms cause disintegration of the ego and should be fostered and encouraged. ESSENTIALS OF PSYCHIATRIC MENTAL HEALTH NURSING 8TH MORGAN TEST BANK Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company ____ 6. During an intake assessment, a nurse asks both physiological and psychosocial questions. The client angrily responds, “I’m here for my heart, not my head problems.” Which is the nurse’s best response? 1. “It is just a routine part of our assessment. All clients are asked these same questions.” 2. “Why are you concerned about these types of questions?” 3. “Psychological factors, like excessive stress, have been found to affect medical conditions.” 4. “We can skip these questions, if you like. It isn’t imperative that we complete this section.” ____ 7. A client who is being treated for chronic kidney disease complains to the health-care provider that he does not like the food available to him while hospitalized. The health-care provider insists that the client strictly adhere to the diet plan. What action can be expected is the client uses the defense mechanism of displacement? 1. The client assertively confronts the health-care provider. 2. The client insists on being discharged and goes for a long, brisk walk. 3. The client snaps at the nurse and criticizes the nursing care provided. 4. The client hides his anger by explaining the logical reasoning for the diet to his spouse. ____ 8. A fourth-grade boy teases and makes jokes about a cute girl in his class. A nurse would recognize this behavior as indicative of which defense mechanism? 1. Displacement 2. Projection 3. Reaction formation 4. Sublimation ____ 9. Which nursing statement regarding the concept of psychosis is most accurate? 1. Individuals experiencing psychoses are aware that their behaviors are maladaptive. 2. Individuals experiencing psychoses experience little distress. 3. Individuals experiencing psychoses are aware of experiencing psychological problems. 4. Individuals experiencing psychoses are based in reality. ____ 10. When under stress, a client routinely uses alcohol to excess. When the client’s husband finds her drunk, the husband yells at the client about her chronic alcohol abuse. Which action alerts the nurse to the client’s use of the defense mechanism of denial? 1. The client hides liquor bottles in a closet. 2. The client yells at her son for slouching in his chair. 3. The client burns dinner on purpose. 4. The client says to the spouse, “I don’t drink too much!” ____ 11. Devastated by a divorce from an abusive husband, a wife completes grief counseling. Which statement by the wife would indicate to a nurse that the client is in the acceptance stage of grief? 1. “If only we could have tried again, things might have worked out.” 2. “I am so mad that the children and I had to put up with him as long as we did.” 3. “Yes, it was a difficult relationship, but I think I have learned from the ESSENTIALS OF PSYCHIATRIC MENTAL HEALTH NURSING 8TH MORGAN TEST BANK WWW.NURSINGTB.COMN U R S I N G T B . C O M Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company experience.” 4. “I have a difficult time getting out of bed most days.” ____ 12. According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, which client action would demonstrate the highest achievement in terms of mental health? 1. Maintaining a long-term, faithful, intimate relationship 2. Achieving a sense of self-confidence 3. Possessing a feeling of self-fulfillment and realizing full potential 4. Developing a sense of purpose and the ability to direct activities ____ 13. According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, which situation on an inpatient psychiatric unit would require priority intervention by a nurse? 1. A client rudely complaining about limited visiting hours 2. A client exhibiting aggressive behavior toward another client 3. A client stating that no one cares 4. A client verbalizing feelings of failure Multiple Response Identify one or more choices that best complete the statement or answer the question. ____ 14. Which describes a defense mechanism an individual may use to relieve anxiety in a stressful situation? (Select all that apply.) 1. Homework 2. Smoking 3. Itching 4. Nail biting 5. Sleeping ____ 15. The nurse is reviewing the DSM-5 definition of a mental health disorder and notes the definition includes a disturbance in which areas? (Select all that apply.) 1. Cognition 2. Physical 3. Emotional regulation 4. Behavior 5. Developmental Completion Complete each statement. 16. _______________________ is a diffuse apprehension that is vague in nature and is associated with feelings of uncertainty and helplessness. 17. _______________________ is a subjective state of emotional, physical, and social responses to the loss of a valued entity. Other ESSENTIALS OF PSYCHIATRIC MENTAL HEALTH NURSING 8TH MORGAN TEST BANK Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company 18. Place in order the Kübler Ross stages of grief from 1-5. (Enter the number of each step in the proper sequence, using comma and space format, such as: 1, 2, 3, 4.) 1. Bargaining 2. Denial 3. Acceptance 4. Depression 5. Anger

Test Bank For Critical Care Nursing 8th Edition By Urden

Sample Questions 

Chapter 04: Genetic Issues Urden: Critical Care Nursing, 8th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE
  1. What is a genetic variant that exists in greater than 1% of the population termed?
a. Genetic mutation
b. Genetic polymorphism
c. Genetic deletion
d. Tandem repeat
ANS:  B When a genetic variant occurs frequently and is present in 1% or more of the population, it is described as a genetic polymorphism. The term genetic mutation refers to a change in the DNA genetic sequence that can be inherited that occurs in less than 1% of the population. Genetic material in the chromosome can also be deleted and new information from another chromosome can be inserted or can be a tandem repeat (multiple repeats of the same sequence). PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Remembering      REF:   p. 43 OBJ:   Nursing Process Step: General        TOP:   Genetics in Critical Care MSC:  NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance
  1. Which type of genetic disorder occurs when there is an interaction between genetic and environmental factors such as that which occurs with type 2 diabetes?
a. Chromosome
b. Mitochondrial
c. Multifactorial disorders
d. Allele dysfunction
ANS:  C In multifactorial disorders there is an interaction between vulnerable genes and the environment. Cardiovascular atherosclerotic diseases and type 2 diabetes are examples of multifactorial disorders that result from an interaction of genetic and environmental factors. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Understanding     REF:   p. 46 OBJ:   Nursing Process Step: General        TOP:   Genetics in Critical Care MSC:  NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance
  1. Prader-Willi syndrome (PWS) is a rare genetic disorder in which genes on chromosome 15 (q11.2-13) are deleted. What type of disorder is PWS?
a. Chromosome disorder
b. Mitochondrial disorder
c. Complex gene disorder
d. Multifactorial disorder
ANS:  A Prader-Willi syndrome (PWS) is a chromosome disorder as a result of several missing genes on chromosome 15. In chromosome disorders, the entire chromosome or very large segments of the chromosome are damaged, missing, duplicated, or otherwise altered. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Applying              REF:   p. 45 OBJ:   Nursing Process Step: General        TOP:   Genetics in Critical Care MSC:  NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance
  1. A family pedigree is used to determine whether a disease has a genetic component. What does a proband indicate in a family pedigree?
a. The disease being mother related or father related
b. The first person in the family who was diagnosed with the disorder
c. Who in the family is the xy band
d. The disease genotype including locus
ANS:  B For nurses, it is important to ask questions that elucidate which family members are affected versus those who are unaffected and then to identify the individuals who may carry the gene in question but who do not have symptoms (carriers). The proband is the name given to the first person diagnosed in the family pedigree. Homozygous versus heterozygous determines if the disorder is carried by a gene from one or both parents. The xy band determines if the disorder is carried through the sex genes. A disease locus is the genetic address of the disorder. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Remembering      REF:   p. 46 OBJ:   Nursing Process Step: General        TOP:   Genetics in Critical Care MSC:  NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance
  1. Philadelphia translocation is a specific chromosomal abnormality that occurs from a reciprocal translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22, where parts of these two chromosomes switch places. This abnormality is associated with which disease?
a. Hemophilia A
b. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
c. Obesity
d. Marfan syndrome
ANS:  B Philadelphia chromosome or Philadelphia translocation is a specific chromosomal abnormality associated with chronic myelogenous leukemia. It occurs from a reciprocal translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22, where parts of these two chromosomes switch places. Hemophilia A is a sex-linked inheritance. Obesity is being studied with the FTO gene on chromosome 16. Marfan syndrome is classified as a single-gene disorder. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Remembering      REF:   p. 42 OBJ:   Nursing Process Step: General        TOP:   Genetics in Critical Care MSC:  NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance
  1. What was the goal of the Human Genome Project?
a. Identifying haplotype tags
b. Exposing untaggable SNPs and recombination hot spots
c. Producing a catalog of human genome variation
d. Mapping all the human genes
ANS:  D The Human Genome Project was a huge international collaborative project that began in 1990 with the goal of making a map of all the human genes (the genome). The final genome sequence was published in 2003. The HapMap project was to identify haplotype tags. The Genome-Wide Association Studies was used to expose untaggable SNPs and recombination hot spots. The 1000 Genomes project was used to map all the human genes. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Remembering      REF:   p. 49 OBJ:   Nursing Process Step: General        TOP:   Genetics in Critical Care MSC:  NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance
  1. The patient is placed under general anesthesia for a carotid endarterectomy. During the surgery, the patient develops muscle contracture with skeletal muscle rigidity, acidosis, and elevated temperature. What is a possible cause for malignant hyperthermia?
a. Polymorphism in RYR1 at chromosome 19q13.1
b. Variant in the VKOR1 gene
c. Variant in the cytochrome P450 enzyme CYP2C9 gene
d. Halothane overdose
ANS:  A Individuals with polymorphisms in the ryanodine receptor gene (RYR1) at chromosome 19q13.1 are at risk of a rare pharmacogenetic condition known as malignant hyperthermia. In affected individuals, exposure to inhalation anesthetics and depolarizing muscle relaxants during general anesthesia induces life-threatening muscle contracture with skeletal muscle rigidity, acidosis, and elevated temperature. Warfarin is being researched as a variant in the VKOR1 gene and in the cytochrome P450 enzyme CYP2C9 gene. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Evaluating            REF:   p. 53|Box 4-3 OBJ:   Nursing Process Step: Diagnosis     TOP:   Genetics in Critical Care MSC:  NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance
  1. What is the study of heredity particularly as it relates to the transfer heritable physical characteristics called?
a. Chromatids
b. Karyotype
c. Genetics
d. Histones
ANS:  C Genetics refers to the study of heredity, particularly as it relates to the ability of individual genes to transfer heritable physical characteristics. Each somatic chromosome, also called an autosome, is made of two strands, called chromatids, which are joined near the center. A karyotype is the arrangement of human chromosomes from largest to smallest. A specialized class of proteins called histones organizes the double-stranded DNA into what looks like a tightly coiled telephone cord. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Remembering      REF:   p. 54 OBJ:   Nursing Process Step: General        TOP:   Genetics in Critical Care MSC:  NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance
  1. Each chromosome consists of an unbroken strand of DNA inside the nucleus of the cell. What is the arrangement of human chromosomes termed?
a. Chromatids
b. Karyotype
c. Genomics
d. Histones
ANS:  B A karyotype is the arrangement of human chromosomes from largest to smallest. Each somatic chromosome, also called an autosome, is made of two strands, called chromatids, which are joined near the center. Genomics refers to the study of all of the genetic material within cells and encompasses the environmental interaction and impact on biologic and physical characteristics. A specialized class of proteins called histones organizes the double-stranded DNA into what looks like a tightly coiled telephone cord. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Remembering      REF:   p. 39 OBJ:   Nursing Process Step: General        TOP:   Genetics in Critical Care MSC:  NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance
  1. What is the study of all the genetic material within the cell and its impact on biologic and physical characteristics called?
a. Chromatids
b. Karyotype
c. Genomics
d. Histones
ANS:  C Genomics refers to the study of all of the genetic material within cells and encompasses the environmental interaction and impact on biologic and physical characteristics. Each somatic chromosome, also called an autosome, is made of two strands, called chromatids, which are joined near the center. A karyotype is the arrangement of human chromosomes from largest to smallest. A specialized class of proteins called histones organizes the double-stranded DNA into what looks like a tightly coiled telephone cord. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Remembering      REF:   p. 39 OBJ:   Nursing Process Step: General        TOP:   Genetics in Critical Care MSC:  NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance
  1. A specialized class of proteins that organizes the double-stranded DNA into what looks like a tightly coiled telephone cord is known which of the following?
a. Chromatids
b. Karyotype
c. Genomics
d. Histones
ANS:  D A specialized class of proteins called histones organizes the double-stranded DNA into what looks like a tightly coiled telephone cord. Genomics refers to the study of all of the genetic material within cells and encompasses the environmental interaction and impact on biologic and physical characteristics. Each somatic chromosome, also called an autosome, is made of two strands, called chromatids, which are joined near the center. A karyotype is the arrangement of human chromosomes from largest to smallest. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Remembering      REF:   p. 39 OBJ:   Nursing Process Step: General        TOP:   Genetics in Critical Care MSC:  NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance
  1. To achieve a consistent distance across the width of the DNA strand, the nucleotide base guanine (G) can only be paired with what other genetic material?
a. Adenine (A)
b. Thymine (T)
c. Cytosine (C)
d. Sex chromosome X
ANS:  C Four nucleotide bases—adenine (A), thymine (T), guanine (G), and cytosine (C)—comprise the “letters” in the genetic DNA “alphabet.” The bases in the double helix are paired T with A and G with C. The nucleotide bases are designed so that only G can pair with C and only T can pair with A to achieve a consistent distance across the width of the DNA strand. The TA and GC combinations are known as base pairs. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Evaluating            REF:   p. 40 OBJ:   Nursing Process Step: Diagnosis     TOP:   Genetics in Critical Care MSC:  NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance
  1. Why are monozygotic twins separated at birth used to study the effects of genetics versus environment?
a. They share an identical genome.
b. They have different sex chromosomes.
c. They have mirror chromosomes.
d. They have identical health issues.
ANS:  A Studies of identical twins offer a unique opportunity to investigate the association of genetics, environment, and health. Identical twins are monozygotic and share an identical genome. Monozygotic twins are the same sex. Studies occur much less frequently today because tremendous efforts are made to keep siblings together when they are adopted. Genetics can be stable in a study group, but the environment and health issues are dynamic even in a controlled study group. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Remembering      REF:   p. 48 OBJ:   Nursing Process Step: General        TOP:   Genetics in Critical Care MSC:  NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance
  1. The process that is used to make polypeptide chains that constitute proteins can be written as:
a. RNA ® DNA ® protein.
b. DNA ® RNA ® protein.
c. Protein ® RNA ® DNA.
d. Protein ® DNA ® RNA.
ANS:  B The nucleotides A, T, C, and G can be thought of as “letters” of a genetic alphabet that are combined into three-letter “words” that are transcribed (written) by the intermediary of ribonucleic acid (RNA). The RNA translates the three-letter words into the amino acids used to make the polypeptide chains that constitute proteins. This process may be written as DNA ® RNA ® protein. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Remembering      REF:   p. 41 OBJ:   Nursing Process Step: Diagnosis     TOP:   Genetics in Critical Care MSC:  NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance
  1. What are the studies called that are done on large, extended families who have several family members affected with a rare disease?
a. Genetic association
b. Genetic epidemiology
c. Kinships
d. Phenotypes
ANS:  C In genetic epidemiologic research of a rare disease, it can be a challenge to find enough people to study. One method is to work with large, extended families, known as kinships, which have several family members affected with the disease. Genetic association studies are usually conducted in large, unrelated groups based on demonstration of a phenotype (disease trait or symptoms) and associated genotype. Genetic epidemiology represents the fusion of epidemiologic studies and genetic and genomic research methods. Phenotypes are different at different stages of a disease and are influenced by medications, environmental factors, and gene–gene interaction. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Remembering      REF:   p. 48 OBJ:   Nursing Process Step: Diagnosis     TOP:   Genetics in Critical Care MSC:  NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance
  1. What is an example of direct-to-consumer genomic testing?
a. Genetic testing through amniocentesis
b. Paternity testing from buccal swabs of the child and father
c. Biopsy of a lump for cancer
d. Drug testing using hair follicles
ANS:  B An example of direct-to-consumer testing is paternity testing from buccal swabs of the child and father. Genetic testing can be done through biopsies and amniocentesis, but they are performed in a facility by a medical professional. Drug testing and genomic testing are two different tests and are unrelated. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Evaluating            REF:   p. 53 OBJ:   Nursing Process Step: Diagnosis     TOP:   Genetics in Critical Care MSC:  NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance
  1. What was the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act (GINA) of 2008 designed to prevent from happening?
a. Abuse of genetic information in employment and health insurance decisions
b. Genetic counselors from reporting results to the health insurance companies
c. Mandatory genetics testing of all individuals with certain diseases
d. Information sharing between biobanks that are studying the same genetic disorders
ANS:  A The Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act (GINA) of 2008 is an essential piece of legislation designed to prevent abuse of genetic information in employment and health insurance decisions in the United States. One of the paramount concerns in the genomic era is to protect the privacy of individuals’ unique genetic information. Many countries have established biobanks as repositories of genetic material, and many tissue samples are stored in medical center tissue banks. Some people who may be at risk for a disorder disease will not be tested because they fear that a positive result may affect their employability. GINA also mandates that genetic information about an individual and his or her family has the same protections as health information. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Remembering      REF:   p. 53 OBJ:   Nursing Process Step: Diagnosis     TOP:   Genetics in Critical Care MSC:  NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance MULTIPLE RESPONSE
  1. Which patients would be candidates for genetic testing for long QT syndrome (LQTS)? (Select all that apply.)
a. Patients with prolonged QT interval during a cardiac and genetic work-up
b. Family history of positive genotype and negative phenotype
c. Patients diagnosed with torsades de pointes
d. Family history of sudden cardiac death
e. Family history of bleeding disorders
f. Family history of obesity
ANS:  A, B, C, D

Old’s Maternal-Newborn Nursing and Women’s Health, 11e (Davidson/London/Ladewig)

 

Chapter 1 Contemporary Maternal-Newborn Nursing

 
  • The nurse is speaking to students about changes in maternal-newborn care. One change is that self-care has gained wide acceptance with clients and the healthcare community due to research findings that suggest that it has which effect?
 
  1. Shortens newborn length of stay
  2. Decreases use of home health agencies
  3. Decreases healthcare costs
  4. Decreases the number of emergency department visits
  Answer:C   Explanation:
  1. Length of stay is often determined by third-party payer (insurance company) policies as well as the physiologic stability of the mother and newborn. Home healthcare agencies often are involved in client care to decrease hospital stay time.
  2. Home healthcare agencies often are involved in client care to decrease hospital stay time.
  3. Research indicates that self-care significantly decreases healthcare costs.
  4. Acute emergencies are addressed by emergency departments, and are not delayed by those practicing self-care.
  Page Ref: 3   Cognitive Level:Understanding Client Need/Sub:Health Promotion and Maintenance: Self-Care Standards: QSEN Competencies: Ⅰ.A.2. Describe strategies to empower patients or families in all aspects of the healthcare process. | AACN Essentials Competencies: Ⅸ.7. Provide appropriate patient teaching that reflects developmental stage, age, culture, spirituality, patient preferences, and health literacy considerations to foster patient engagement in their care. | NLN Competencies: Context and Environment: Health care economic policy; reimbursement structures; accreditation standards; staffing models and productivity; supply chain models | Nursing/Integrated Concepts: Nursing Process: Planning. Learning Outcome:1 Discuss the impact of the self-care movement on contemporary childbirth. MNL LO:Recognize contemporary issues related to care of the childbearing family.    
  • Care delivered by nurse-midwives can be safe and effective and can represent a positive response to the healthcare provider shortage. Nurse-midwives tend to use less technology, which often results in which of the following?
 
  1. There is less trauma to the mother.
  2. More childbirth education classes are available.
  3. They are instrumental in providing change in the birth environment at work.
  4. They advocate for more home healthcare agencies.
  Answer:A   Explanation:
  1. Nurse-midwife models of care can be one way to ensure that mothers receive excellent prenatal and intrapartum care.
  2. It is appropriate for nurse-midwives, in conjunction with doctors and hospitals, to provide childbirth classes for expectant families.
  3. By working with other staff members and doctors, the nurse-midwife is able to implement changes as needed within the birthing unit.
  4. Clients are increasingly going home sooner, so there needs to be more follow-up in the home.
  Page Ref: 3   Cognitive Level:Understanding Client Need/Sub:Health Promotion and Maintenance: Health Promotion/Disease Prevention Standards: QSEN Competencies: Ⅲ.A.6. Describe how the strength and relevance of available evidence influences the choice of interventions in provision of patient-centered care. | AACN Essentials Competencies: Ⅸ. 5. Deliver compassionate, patient-centered, evidence-based care that respects patient and family preferences. | NLN Competencies: Context and Environment: Read and interpret data; apply health promotion/disease prevention strategies; apply health policy; conduct population-based transcultural health assessments and interventions. | Nursing/Integrated Concepts: Nursing Process: Planning. Learning Outcome:2 Compare the nursing roles available to the maternal-newborn nurse. MNL LO:Recognize contemporary issues related to care of the childbearing family.    
  • The nurse is telling a new client how advanced technology has permitted the physician to do which of the following?
 
  1. Treat the fetus and monitor fetal development.
  2. Deliver at home with a nurse-midwife and doula.
  3. Have the father act as the coach and cut the umbilical cord.
  4. Breastfeed a new baby on the delivery table.
  Answer:A   Explanation:
  1. The fetus is increasingly viewed as a patient separate from the mother, although treatment of the fetus necessarily involves the mother.
  2. A nurse-midwife and a doula are not examples of technological care.
  3. Fathers being present during labor and coaching their partners represents nontechnological care during childbirth.
  4. Breastfeeding is not an example of technology impacting care.
  Page Ref: 2—3   Cognitive Level:Understanding Client Need/Sub:Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care Standards:QSEN Competencies: Ⅰ.B.10. Engage patients or designated surrogates in active partnerships that promote health, safety and well-being, and self-care management. | AACN Essentials Competencies: Ⅸ.5. Deliver compassionate, patient-centered, evidence-based care that respects patient and family preferences. | NLN Competencies: Teamwork: Scope of practice, roles, and responsibilities of health care team members, including overlaps. | Nursing/Integrated Concepts: Nursing Process: Implementation. Learning Outcome:6 Evaluate the potential impact of some of the special situations in contemporary maternity care. MNL LO:Recognize contemporary issues related to care of the childbearing family.
  • A nurse is examining different nursing roles. Which example best illustrates an advanced practice nursing role?
 
  1. A registered nurse who is the manager of a large obstetrical unit
  2. A registered nurse who is the circulating nurse during surgical deliveries (cesarean sections)
  3. A clinical nurse specialist working as a staff nurse on a mother-baby unit
  4. A clinical nurse specialist with whom other nurses consult for her expertise in caring for high-risk infants
Answer:D Explanation:
  1. A registered nurse who is the manager of a large obstetrical unit is a professional nurse who has graduated from an accredited program in nursing and completed the licensure examination.
  2. A registered nurse who is a circulating nurse at surgical deliveries (cesarean sections) is a professional nurse who has graduated from an accredited program in nursing and completed the licensure examination.
  3. A clinical nurse specialist working as a staff nurse on a mother-baby unit might have the qualifications for an advanced practice nursing staff member but is not working in that capacity.
  4. A clinical nurse specialist with whom other nurses consult for expertise in caring for high-risk infants is working in an advanced practice nursing role. This nurse has specialized knowledge and competence in a specific clinical area, and is master’s prepared.
Page Ref: 5 Cognitive Level:Understanding Client Need/Sub:Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care Standards:QSEN Competencies: Ⅱ.A.2. Describe scopes of practice and roles of healthcare team members. | AACN Essentials Competencies: Ⅵ. 6. Compare/contrast the roles and perspectives of the nursing profession with other care professionals on the healthcare team (i.e. scope of discipline, education, and licensure requirements). | NLN Competencies: Teamwork: Scope of practice, roles, and responsibilities of health care team members, including overlaps. | Nursing/Integrated Concepts: Nursing Process: Assessment. Learning Outcome:2 Compare the nursing roles available to the maternal-newborn nurse. MNL LO:Recognize contemporary issues related to care of the childbearing family.  

Test Bank for Claytons Basic Pharmacology for Nurses 18th Edition by Willihnganz

Chapter 01: Drug Definitions, Standards, and Information Sources Willihnganz: Clayton’s Basic Pharmacology for Nurses, 18th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.What is the name under which a drug is listed by the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA)?
a. Brand
b. Nonproprietary
c. Official
d. Trademark
ANS:  C The official name is the name under which a drug is listed by the FDA. The brand name, or trademark, is the name given to a drug by its manufacturer. The nonproprietary, or generic, name is provided by the United States Adopted Names Council DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   p. 2                OBJ:   1 NAT:  NCLEX Client Needs Category: Safe, Effective Care Environment TOP:   Nursing Process Step: Assessment  CON:  Patient Education  
  1. Which source contains information specific to nutritional supplements?
a. USP Dictionary of USAN & International Drug Names
b. Natural Medicines Comprehensive Database
c. United States Pharmacopoeia/National Formulary (USP NF)
d. Drug Interaction Facts
ANS:  C United States Pharmacopoeia/National Formulary contains information specific to nutritional supplements. USP Dictionary of USAN & International Drug Names is a compilation of drug names, pronunciation guide, and possible future FDA approved drugs; it does not include nutritional supplements. Natural Medicines Comprehensive Database contains evidence-based information on herbal medicines and herbal combination products; it does not include information specific to nutritional supplements. Drug Interaction Facts contains comprehensive information on drug interaction facts; it does not include nutritional supplements. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   p. 2 | p. 3        OBJ:   3 NAT:  NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity TOP:   Nursing Process Step: Assessment  CON:  Nutrition | Patient Education 3.What is the most comprehensive reference available to research a drug interaction?
a. Drug Facts and Comparisons
b. Drug Interaction Facts
c. Handbook on Injectable Drugs
d. Martindale—The Complete Drug Reference
ANS:  B First published in 1983, Drug Interaction Facts is the most comprehensive book available on drug interactions. In addition to monographs listing various aspects of drug interactions, this information is reviewed and updated by an internationally renowned group of physicians and pharmacists with clinical and scientific expertise. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   p. 4                OBJ:   3 NAT:  NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity TOP:   Nursing Process Step: Assessment  CON:  Safety | Patient Education | Clinical Judgment 4.The physician has written an order for a drug with which the nurse is unfamiliar. Which section of the Physicians’ Desk Reference (PDR) is most helpful to get information about this drug?
a. Manufacturer’s section
b. Brand and Generic name section
c. Product category section
d. Product information section
ANS:  B A physician’s order would include the brand and/or generic name of the drug. The alphabetic index in the PDR would make this section the most user-friendly. Based on a physician’s order, manufacturer’s information and classification information would not be known. The Manufacturer’s section is a roster of manufacturers. The product category section lists products subdivided by therapeutic classes, such as analgesics, laxatives, oxytocics, and antibiotics. The product information section contains reprints of the package inserts for the major products of manufacturers. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   p. 4                OBJ:   3 NAT:  NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity TOP:   Nursing Process Step: Planning       CON:  Safety | Patient Education | Clinical Judgment 5.Which online drug reference makes available to healthcare providers and the public a standard, comprehensive, up-to-date look up and downloadable resource about medicines?
a. American Drug Index
b. American Hospital Formulary
c. DailyMed
d. Physicians’ Desk Reference (PDR)
ANS:  C DailyMed makes available to healthcare providers and the public a standard, comprehensive, up-to-date look up and downloadable resource about medicines. The American Drug Index is not appropriate for patient use. The American Hospital Formulary is not appropriate for patient use. The PDR is not appropriate for patient use. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   p. 3 | p. 5        OBJ:   4 NAT:  NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity TOP:   Nursing Process Step: Implementation CON:  Safety | Patient Education | Clinical Judgment 6.Which legislation authorizes the FDA to determine the safety of a drug before its marketing?
a. Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (1938)
b. Durham Humphrey Amendment (1952)
c. Controlled Substances Act (1970)
d. Kefauver Harris Drug Amendment (1962)
ANS:  A The Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938 authorized the FDA to determine the safety of all drugs before marketing. Later amendments and acts helped tighten FDA control and ensure drug safety. The Durham Humphrey Amendment defines the kinds of drugs that cannot be used safely without medical supervision and restricts their sale to prescription by a licensed practitioner. The Controlled Substances Act addresses only controlled substances and their categorization. The Kefauver Harris Drug Amendment ensures drug efficacy and greater drug safety. Drug manufacturers are required to prove to the FDA the effectiveness of their products before marketing them. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   p. 5                OBJ:   6 NAT:  NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity TOP:   Nursing Process Step: Assessment CON:  Safety | Patient Education | Evidence | Health Care Law 7.Meperidine (Demerol) is a narcotic with a high potential for physical and psychological dependency. Under which classification does this drug fall?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
ANS:  B Meperidine (Demerol) is a Schedule II drug; it has a high potential for abuse and may lead to severe psychological and physical dependence. Schedule I drugs have high potential for abuse and no recognized medical use. Schedule III drugs have some potential for abuse. Use may lead to low to moderate physical dependence or high psychological dependence. Schedule IV drugs have low potential for abuse. Use may lead to limited physical or psychological dependence. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   p. 5                OBJ:   2 NAT:  NCLEX Client Needs Category: Safe, Effective Care Environment TOP:   Nursing Process Step: Assessment  CON:  Patient Education | Addiction | Pain 8:What would the FDA do to expedite drug development and approval for an outbreak of smallpox, for which there is no known treatment?
a. List smallpox as a health orphan disease.
b. Omit the preclinical research phase.
c. Extend the clinical research phase.
d. Fast track the investigational drug.
    ANS:  D
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