Our Shop

Test Bank for Fundamentals Of Nursing 9th Edition by Potter

$25.00

Edition: 9th Edition

Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille

Resource Type: Test bank

Duration: Unlimited downloads

Delivery: Instant Download

Test Bank for Fundamentals Of Nursing 9th Edition by Potter

Chapter 01: Nursing Today
Fundamentals of Nursing, 9th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Which nurse most likely kept records on sanitation techniques and the effects on health?
a. Florence Nightingale
b. Mary Nutting
c. Clara Barton
d. Lillian Wald
ANS: A
Nightingale was the first practicing nurse epidemiologist. Her statistical analyses connected poor
sanitation with cholera and dysentery. Mary Nutting, Clara Barton, and Lillian Wald came after
Nightingale, each contributing to the nursing profession in her own way. Mary Nutting was
instrumental in moving nursing education into universities. Clara Barton founded the American
Red Cross. Lillian Wald helped open the Henry Street Settlement.
2. The nurse prescribes strategies and alternatives to attain expected outcome. Which standard of
nursing practice is the nurse following?
a. Assessment
b. Diagnosis
c. Planning
d. Implementation
ANS: C
In planning, the registered nurse develops a plan that prescribes strategies and alternatives to
attain expected outcomes. During assessment, the registered nurse collects comprehensive data
pertinent to the patient’s health and/or the situation. In diagnosis, the registered nurse analyzes
the assessment data to determine the diagnoses or issues. During implementation, the registered
nurse implements (carries out) the identified plan.
NURSINGTB.COM
FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING 9TH EDITION POTTER TEST BANKNURSINGTB.COM
Prime yourself for your Tests – Study Questions
3. An experienced medical-surgical nurse chooses to work in obstetrics. Which level of
proficiency is the nurse upon initial transition to the obstetrical floor?
a. Novice
b. Proficient
c. Competent
d. Advanced beginner
ANS: A
A beginning nursing student or any nurse entering a situation in which there is no previous level
of experience (e.g., an experienced operating room nurse chooses to now practice in home
health) is an example of a novice nurse. A proficient nurse perceives a patient’s clinical situation
as a whole, is able to assess an entire situation, and can readily transfer knowledge gained from
multiple previous experiences to a situation. A competent nurse understands the organization and
specific care required by the type of patients (e.g., surgical, oncology, or orthopedic patients).
This nurse is a competent practitioner who is able to anticipate nursing care and establish longrange goals. A nurse who has had some level of experience with the situation is an advanced
beginner. This experience may only be observational in nature, but the nurse is able to identify
meaningful aspects or principles of nursing care.
4. A nurse assesses a patient’s fluid status and decides that the patient needs to drink more fluids.
The nurse then encourages the patient to drink more fluids. Which concept is the nurse
demonstrating?
a. Licensure
b. Autonomy
c. Certification
d. Accountability
ANS: B
Autonomy is an essential element of professional nursing that involves the initiation of
independent nursing interventions without medical orders. To obtain licensure in the United
States, the RN candidate must pass the NCLEX-RN®. Beyond the NCLEX-RN®, the nurse may
choose to work toward certification in a specific area of nursing practice. Accountability means
that you are responsible, professionally and legally, for the type and quality of nursing care
provided.

FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING 9TH EDITION POTTER TEST BANKNURSINGTB.COM
Prime yourself for your Tests – Study Questions

5. A nurse prepares the budget and policies for an intensive care unit. Which role is the nurse
implementing?
a. Educator
b. Manager
c. Advocate
d. Caregiver
ANS: B
A manager coordinates the activities of members of the nursing staff in delivering nursing care
and has personnel, policy, and budgetary responsibility for a specific nursing unit or facility. As
an educator, you explain concepts and facts about health, describe the reason for routine care
activities, demonstrate procedures such as self-care activities, reinforce learning or patient
behavior, and evaluate the patient’s progress in learning. As a patient advocate, you protect your
patient’s human and legal rights and provide assistance in asserting these rights if the need arises.
As a caregiver, you help patients maintain and regain health, manage disease and symptoms, and
attain a maximal level function and independence through the healing process.
6. The nurse has been working in the clinical setting for several years as an advanced practice
nurse. However, the nurse has a strong desire to pursue research and theory development. To
fulfill this desire, which program should the nurse attend?
a. Doctor of Nursing Science degree (DNSc)
b. Doctor of Philosophy degree (PhD)
c. Doctor of Nursing Practice degree (DNP)
d. Doctor in the Science of Nursing degree (DSN)
ANS: B
Some doctoral programs prepare nurses for more rigorous research and theory development and
award the research-oriented Doctor of Philosophy (PhD) in nursing. Professional doctoral
programs in nursing (DSN or DNSc) prepare graduates to apply research findings to clinical
nursing. The DNP is a practice doctorate that prepares advanced practice nurses such as nurse
practitioners.
NURSINGTB.COM
FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING 9TH EDITION POTTER TEST BANKNURSINGTB.COM
Prime yourself for your Tests – Study Questions
7. A nurse attends a workshop on current nursing issues provided by the American Nurses
Association. Which type of education did the nurse receive?
a. Graduate education
b. Inservice education
c. Continuing education
d. Registered nurse education
ANS: C
Continuing education involves formal, organized educational programs offered by universities,
hospitals, state nurses associations, professional nursing organizations, and educational and
health care institutions. After obtaining a baccalaureate degree in nursing, you can pursue
graduate education leading to a master’s or doctoral degree in any number of graduate fields,
including nursing. Inservice education programs are instruction or training provided by a health
care facility or institution. Registered nurse education is the education preparation for an
individual intending to be an RN.
8. A nurse identifies gaps between local and best practices. Which Quality and Safety Education
for Nurses (QSEN) competency is the nurse demonstrating?
a. Safety
b. Patient-centered care
c. Quality improvement
d. Teamwork and collaboration
ANS: C
Quality improvement identifies gaps between local and best practices. Safety minimizes risk of
harm to patients and providers through both system effectiveness and individual performance.
Patient-centered care recognizes the patient or designee as the source of control and full partner
in providing compassionate and coordinated care based on respect for patient’s preferences,
values, and needs. Teamwork and collaboration allows effective functioning within nursing and
interprofessional teams, fostering open communication, mutual respect, and shared decision
making.
NURSINGTB.COM
FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING 9TH EDITION POTTER TEST BANKNURSINGTB.COM
Prime yourself for your Tests – Study Questions
9. A nurse has compassion fatigue. What is the nurse experiencing?
a. Lateral violence and intrapersonal conflict
b. Burnout and secondary traumatic stress
c. Short-term grief and single stressor
d. Physical and mental exhaustion
ANS: B
Compassion fatigue is a term used to describe a state of burnout and secondary traumatic stress.
Compassion fatigue may contribute to what is described as lateral violence (nurse-nurse
interactions, not intrapersonal). Frequent, intense, or prolonged exposure to grief and loss places
nurses at risk for developing compassion fatigue. Stressors, not a single stressor, contribute to
compassion fatigue. Physical and mental exhaustion describes burnout only.
10. A patient is scheduled for surgery. When getting ready to obtain the informed consent, the
patient tells the nurse, “I have no idea what is going to happen. I couldn’t ask any questions.”
The nurse does not allow the patient to sign the permit and notifies the health care provider of the
situation. Which role is the nurse displaying?
a. Manager
b. Patient educator
c. Patient advocate
d. Clinical nurse specialist
ANS: C
As a patient advocate, the nurse protects the patient’s human and legal rights, including the right
of the patient to understand procedures before signing permits. Although nurses can be
educators, it is the responsibility of the surgeon to provide education for the patient in
preparation for surgery, and it is the nurse’s responsibility to notify the health care provider if the
patient is not properly educated. Managers coordinate the activities of members of the nursing
staff in delivering nursing care, and clinical nurse specialists are experts in a specialized area of
nursing practice in a variety of settings.

Quick Comparison

SettingsTest Bank for Fundamentals Of Nursing 9th Edition by Potter removeTest Bank for Public Health Science and Nursing Practice Caring For Populations by Savage removeTest Bank for Maternal Child Nursing 5th Edition by McKinney removeTest Bank for Fundamentals of Nursing Care 2nd Edition by Burton removeTest Bank for Wongs Essentials of Pediatric Nursing 10th Edition by Hockenberry removeTest Bank for Wongs Nursing Care of Infants and Children 11th Edition by Hockenberry remove
Image
SKU
Rating
Price

$25.00

$15.00

$15.00

$15.00

$15.00

$15.00

Stock
Availability
Add to cart

DescriptionEdition: 9th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadBy: Savage Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadBy: McKinney Edition: 5th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadBy: Burton Edition: 2nd Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadBy: Hockenberry Edition: 10th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadBy: Hockenberry Edition: 11th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant Download
Content

Test Bank for Fundamentals Of Nursing 9th Edition by Potter

Chapter 01: Nursing Today Fundamentals of Nursing, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which nurse most likely kept records on sanitation techniques and the effects on health? a. Florence Nightingale b. Mary Nutting c. Clara Barton d. Lillian Wald ANS: A Nightingale was the first practicing nurse epidemiologist. Her statistical analyses connected poor sanitation with cholera and dysentery. Mary Nutting, Clara Barton, and Lillian Wald came after Nightingale, each contributing to the nursing profession in her own way. Mary Nutting was instrumental in moving nursing education into universities. Clara Barton founded the American Red Cross. Lillian Wald helped open the Henry Street Settlement. 2. The nurse prescribes strategies and alternatives to attain expected outcome. Which standard of nursing practice is the nurse following? a. Assessment b. Diagnosis c. Planning d. Implementation ANS: C In planning, the registered nurse develops a plan that prescribes strategies and alternatives to attain expected outcomes. During assessment, the registered nurse collects comprehensive data pertinent to the patient’s health and/or the situation. In diagnosis, the registered nurse analyzes the assessment data to determine the diagnoses or issues. During implementation, the registered nurse implements (carries out) the identified plan. NURSINGTB.COM FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING 9TH EDITION POTTER TEST BANKNURSINGTB.COM Prime yourself for your Tests – Study Questions 3. An experienced medical-surgical nurse chooses to work in obstetrics. Which level of proficiency is the nurse upon initial transition to the obstetrical floor? a. Novice b. Proficient c. Competent d. Advanced beginner ANS: A A beginning nursing student or any nurse entering a situation in which there is no previous level of experience (e.g., an experienced operating room nurse chooses to now practice in home health) is an example of a novice nurse. A proficient nurse perceives a patient’s clinical situation as a whole, is able to assess an entire situation, and can readily transfer knowledge gained from multiple previous experiences to a situation. A competent nurse understands the organization and specific care required by the type of patients (e.g., surgical, oncology, or orthopedic patients). This nurse is a competent practitioner who is able to anticipate nursing care and establish longrange goals. A nurse who has had some level of experience with the situation is an advanced beginner. This experience may only be observational in nature, but the nurse is able to identify meaningful aspects or principles of nursing care. 4. A nurse assesses a patient’s fluid status and decides that the patient needs to drink more fluids. The nurse then encourages the patient to drink more fluids. Which concept is the nurse demonstrating? a. Licensure b. Autonomy c. Certification d. Accountability ANS: B Autonomy is an essential element of professional nursing that involves the initiation of independent nursing interventions without medical orders. To obtain licensure in the United States, the RN candidate must pass the NCLEX-RN®. Beyond the NCLEX-RN®, the nurse may choose to work toward certification in a specific area of nursing practice. Accountability means that you are responsible, professionally and legally, for the type and quality of nursing care provided. FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING 9TH EDITION POTTER TEST BANKNURSINGTB.COM Prime yourself for your Tests – Study Questions 5. A nurse prepares the budget and policies for an intensive care unit. Which role is the nurse implementing? a. Educator b. Manager c. Advocate d. Caregiver ANS: B A manager coordinates the activities of members of the nursing staff in delivering nursing care and has personnel, policy, and budgetary responsibility for a specific nursing unit or facility. As an educator, you explain concepts and facts about health, describe the reason for routine care activities, demonstrate procedures such as self-care activities, reinforce learning or patient behavior, and evaluate the patient’s progress in learning. As a patient advocate, you protect your patient’s human and legal rights and provide assistance in asserting these rights if the need arises. As a caregiver, you help patients maintain and regain health, manage disease and symptoms, and attain a maximal level function and independence through the healing process. 6. The nurse has been working in the clinical setting for several years as an advanced practice nurse. However, the nurse has a strong desire to pursue research and theory development. To fulfill this desire, which program should the nurse attend? a. Doctor of Nursing Science degree (DNSc) b. Doctor of Philosophy degree (PhD) c. Doctor of Nursing Practice degree (DNP) d. Doctor in the Science of Nursing degree (DSN) ANS: B Some doctoral programs prepare nurses for more rigorous research and theory development and award the research-oriented Doctor of Philosophy (PhD) in nursing. Professional doctoral programs in nursing (DSN or DNSc) prepare graduates to apply research findings to clinical nursing. The DNP is a practice doctorate that prepares advanced practice nurses such as nurse practitioners. NURSINGTB.COM FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING 9TH EDITION POTTER TEST BANKNURSINGTB.COM Prime yourself for your Tests – Study Questions 7. A nurse attends a workshop on current nursing issues provided by the American Nurses Association. Which type of education did the nurse receive? a. Graduate education b. Inservice education c. Continuing education d. Registered nurse education ANS: C Continuing education involves formal, organized educational programs offered by universities, hospitals, state nurses associations, professional nursing organizations, and educational and health care institutions. After obtaining a baccalaureate degree in nursing, you can pursue graduate education leading to a master’s or doctoral degree in any number of graduate fields, including nursing. Inservice education programs are instruction or training provided by a health care facility or institution. Registered nurse education is the education preparation for an individual intending to be an RN. 8. A nurse identifies gaps between local and best practices. Which Quality and Safety Education for Nurses (QSEN) competency is the nurse demonstrating? a. Safety b. Patient-centered care c. Quality improvement d. Teamwork and collaboration ANS: C Quality improvement identifies gaps between local and best practices. Safety minimizes risk of harm to patients and providers through both system effectiveness and individual performance. Patient-centered care recognizes the patient or designee as the source of control and full partner in providing compassionate and coordinated care based on respect for patient’s preferences, values, and needs. Teamwork and collaboration allows effective functioning within nursing and interprofessional teams, fostering open communication, mutual respect, and shared decision making. NURSINGTB.COM FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING 9TH EDITION POTTER TEST BANKNURSINGTB.COM Prime yourself for your Tests – Study Questions 9. A nurse has compassion fatigue. What is the nurse experiencing? a. Lateral violence and intrapersonal conflict b. Burnout and secondary traumatic stress c. Short-term grief and single stressor d. Physical and mental exhaustion ANS: B Compassion fatigue is a term used to describe a state of burnout and secondary traumatic stress. Compassion fatigue may contribute to what is described as lateral violence (nurse-nurse interactions, not intrapersonal). Frequent, intense, or prolonged exposure to grief and loss places nurses at risk for developing compassion fatigue. Stressors, not a single stressor, contribute to compassion fatigue. Physical and mental exhaustion describes burnout only. 10. A patient is scheduled for surgery. When getting ready to obtain the informed consent, the patient tells the nurse, “I have no idea what is going to happen. I couldn’t ask any questions.” The nurse does not allow the patient to sign the permit and notifies the health care provider of the situation. Which role is the nurse displaying? a. Manager b. Patient educator c. Patient advocate d. Clinical nurse specialist ANS: C As a patient advocate, the nurse protects the patient’s human and legal rights, including the right of the patient to understand procedures before signing permits. Although nurses can be educators, it is the responsibility of the surgeon to provide education for the patient in preparation for surgery, and it is the nurse’s responsibility to notify the health care provider if the patient is not properly educated. Managers coordinate the activities of members of the nursing staff in delivering nursing care, and clinical nurse specialists are experts in a specialized area of nursing practice in a variety of settings.

Test Bank for Public Health Science and Nursing Practice Caring For Populations by Savage

Chapter 10: Mental Health MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1.According to Healthy People 2020, which of the following are characteristics of mental health? Select all that apply.
A. Engaging in productive activities
B. Having fulfilling relationships
C. Experiencing alterations in thinking
D. Adapting to change
E. Coping with challenges
ANS: A, B, D, E Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders. pp. 225-226 Heading: Introduction Integrated Processes: N/A Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Knowledge [Remembering] Concept: Promoting Health Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
1. Mental health is a state of successful performance of mental function, including engagement in productive activities.
2. Mental health is a state of successful performance of mental function, including being able to form fulfilling relationships with other people.
3. This is incorrect; it is an example of a mental disorder. Mental disorders are health conditions that are characterized by alterations in thinking, mood, or behavior that are associated with distress or impaired functioning.
4. Mental health is a state of successful performance of mental function, including the ability to adapt to change.
5. Mental health is a state of successful performance of mental function, including the ability to cope with challenges.
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health MULTIPLE CHOICE 2.In 2010, approximately how many people in the United States reported experiencing mental disorders in the previous year?
A. 15%
B. 50%
C. 30%
D. 25%
ANS: D Objective: 1. Define the burden of disease related to mental disorders using current epidemiological frameworks. pp. 226-227 Heading: Epidemiology of Mental Disorders Integrated Processes: N/A Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Comprehension [Understanding] Concept: Promoting Health Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A This is incorrect. In the United States in 2010 an estimated 25% of adults reported having mental disorders in the previous year.
B This is incorrect. In the United States in 2010 an estimated 25% of adults reported having mental disorders in the previous year.
C This is incorrect. In the United States in 2010 an estimated 25% of adults reported having mental disorders in the previous year.
D In the United States in 2010 an estimated 25% of adults reported having mental disorders in the previous year.
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health 3.A student nurse is studying stress and mental health. The student nurse learns that ____ is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events.
A. Intervention
B. Support
C. Resilience
D. Therapy
ANS: C Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders. pp. 229-231 Heading: Protective Factors: Building Resilience Integrated Processes: Teaching/Learning Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Trauma; Stress; Promoting Health; Nursing Roles Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A This is incorrect. Resilience is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events. Preventive and treatment interventions are useful tools to build on an individual’s natural resilience to promote positive outcomes.
B This is incorrect. Resilience is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events. Support from family, friends, and community is an important part of strengthening an individual’s resilience.
C Resilience is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events.
D This is incorrect. Resilience is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events. Therapy is an important part of an overall treatment plan, in conjunction with intervention, support, and an individual’s capacity for resilience.
PTS: 1 CON: Trauma | Stress | Promoting Health | Nursing Roles 4.____ addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder.
A. Indicated prevention
B. Selective prevention
C. Universal prevention
D. Both 1 and 2
ANS: A Objective: 4. Apply current evidence-based population level interventions to the prevention of mental disorders and the promotion of optimal mental health for communities and populations. pp. 232-233 Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Institute of Medicine Model of Prevention Integrated Processes: Nursing Process Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Comprehension [Understanding] Concept: Promoting Health Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A Indicated prevention addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder. The purpose of indicated techniques is to delay or reduce the severity of a mental disorder.
B Selective prevention includes interventions provided to specific subgroups that are known to be at high risk for mental disorders owing to biological, psychological, social, or environmental factors but that have not yet been diagnosed with mental disorders. High-risk subgroups include but are not limited to those with a family history of mental disorders, history of adverse childhood events, or victims of violence.
C Universal prevention refers to prevention interventions provided to the entire population, not just those who may be at risk. The interventions include but are not limited to public service announcements provided to the public at large through billboards, media messages (print and electronic), or general health education programs.
D Indicated prevention addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder. The purpose of indicated techniques is to delay or reduce the severity of a mental disorder. Selective prevention includes interventions provided to specific subgroups that are known to be at high risk for mental disorders owing to biological, psychological, social, or environmental factors but that have not yet been diagnosed with mental disorders. High-risk subgroups include but are not limited to those with a family history of mental disorders, history of adverse childhood events, or victims of violence.
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health 5.The public health nurse (PHN) recognizes that which of the following are used as screening tools for depression?
A. Patient Health Questionnaire 2
B. Center for Epidemiological Studies Depression Scale (CESD-10)
C. Brief Symptom Checklist-18 of the My Mood Monitor (M-3)
D. Both 1 and 2
ANS: D Objective: 5. Describe systems approaches to the promotion of mental health and the prevention and treatment of mental health disorders. p. 232 Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Measure of Mental Health: Health-Related Quality of Life Integrated Processes: Nursing Process Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Promoting Health; Mood; Assessment Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A Tools to screen for depression include the Patient Health Questionnaire 2 and the CESD-10.
B Tools to screen for depression include the Patient Health Questionnaire 2 and the CESD-10.
C This is incorrect. Tools to screen for depression include the Patient Health Questionnaire 2 and the CESD-10. Screening tools for anxiety disorders include the Brief Symptom Checklist-18 of the My Mood Monitor (M-3).
D Tools to screen for depression include the Patient Health Questionnaire 2 and the CESD-10.
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health | Mood | Assessment 6.During a course on mental disorders, a PHN learns that the term serious mental illness (SMI) refers to diagnosable mental disorders that may disrupt a person’s ability to function and may qualify that person for support services. The PHN also notes that the mental disorders that can lead to SMI include:
A. Mild depression
B. Panic disorder
C. Schizophrenia
D. Both 2 and 3
ANS: D Objective: 1. Define the burden of disease related to mental disorders using current epidemiological frameworks. pp. 225-226 Heading: Introduction Integrated Processes: Teaching/Learning Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Cognition; Mood; Stress; Promoting Health; Nursing Roles Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A This is incorrect. Major depression, however, is one of the mental disorders that can lead to SMI.
B Both panic disorder and schizophrenia, among other mental disorders, can lead to SMI.
C Both schizophrenia and panic disorder, among other mental disorders, can lead to SMI.
D The mental disorders that can lead to SMI include major depression, panic disorder, schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD), post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), and borderline personality disorder.
PTS: 1 CON: Cognition | Mood | Stress | Promoting Health | Nursing Roles 7.While studying the prevalence of mental health disorders worldwide, a PHN learns about the World Mental Health Survey, which is used to determine estimates of human capital costs and prevalence of mental disorders in a wide range of countries. The survey was developed by
A. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
B. The World Health Organization (WHO)
C. The Institute of Medicine (IOM)
D. The World Health Assembly
ANS: B Objective: 1. Define the burden of disease related to mental disorders using current epidemiological frameworks. p. 227 Heading: Epidemiology of Mental Disorders > Surveillance of Mental Health Disorders Integrated Processes: Teaching/Learning Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Promoting Health; Nursing Roles Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A This is incorrect. WHO developed the World Mental Health Survey to estimate human capital costs and mental disorders prevalence on a global scale. The CDC conducts many types of surveys on the prevalence of mental disorders but the organization did not develop the World Mental Health Survey.
B The WHO developed the World Mental Health Survey to estimate human capital costs and mental disorders prevalence on a global scale.
C This is incorrect. WHO developed the World Mental Health Survey to estimate human capital costs and mental disorders prevalence on a global scale. The IOM is involved in screening for mental health disorders and addresses the need for appropriate behavioral health treatment in its report, Improving the Quality of Health Care for Mental and Substance-Use Conditions: Quality Chasm Series.
D This is incorrect. WHO developed the World Mental Health Survey to estimate human capital costs and mental disorders prevalence on a global scale. The World Health Assembly issued a resolution on mental health that aims to reduce the global burden of mental disorders and improve overall mental health worldwide.
PTS: 1 CON: Promoting Health | Nursing Roles 8.Which ethnic group has the highest 12-month prevalence of a mental disorder?
A. Hispanics
B. African Americans
C. Asian Americans
D. Non-Hispanic whites
ANS: D Objective: 1. Define the burden of disease related to mental disorders using current epidemiological frameworks. pp. 227-228 Heading: Epidemiology of Mental Disorders > Prevalence of Mental Health Disorders Integrated Processes: N/A Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Knowledge [Remembering] Concept: Promoting Health Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A This is incorrect. Non-Hispanic whites have the highest 12-month prevalence rate for mental disorders at 21% compared with 16% for Hispanics.
B This is incorrect. Non-Hispanic whites have the highest 12-month prevalence rate for mental disorders at 21% compared with 15% for African Americans.
C This is incorrect. Non-Hispanic whites have the highest 12-month prevalence rate for mental disorders at 21% compared with 9% for Asian Americans.
D Non-Hispanic whites have the highest 12-month prevalence rate for mental disorders at 21%.
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health 9.A PHN learns in a behavioral health class that the relationship between physiology and mental health plays an important role in mental disorders. Which of the following physiological factors may contribute to the development of mental disorders?
A. Conditions that affect brain chemistry, such as medication side effects or toxins
B. Physical trauma
C. 1 and 2
D. Unstable family life
ANS: C Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders. pp. 228-229 Heading: Behavioral, Biological, Environmental, and Socioeconomic Risk Factors > Individual Level Risk Factors for Mental Disorders Integrated Processes: Teaching/Learning Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Application] Concept: Cognition; Trauma; Promoting Health Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A Both conditions that affect brain chemistry and physical trauma are the physiological factors that may contribute to the development of mental disorders.
B Both physical trauma and conditions that affect brain chemistry are physiological factors that may contribute to the development of mental disorders.
C Conditions that affect brain chemistry and physical trauma are two of the physiological factors that may contribute to the development of mental disorders.
D This is incorrect. Conditions that affect brain chemistry and physical trauma are two of the physiological factors that may contribute to the development of mental disorders. An unstable family life is not a physiological factor, although it may also contribute to the development of mental disorders.
PTS:1CON:Cognition | Trauma | Promoting Health 10.Which of the following community environment factors play a role in the development of mental disorders?
A. Living in high crime areas
B. Poverty
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Family instability
ANS: C Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders. p. 229 Heading: Behavioral, Biological, Environmental, and Socioeconomic Risk Factors > Community-Level Risk Factors for Mental Disorders Integrated Processes: N/A Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Comprehension [Understanding] Concept: Promoting Health Difficulty: Easy
Feedback
A Living in high crime areas is a factor, along with poverty.
B Both poverty and living in high crime areas play a role in the development of mental disorders.
C Both poverty and living in high crime areas play a role in the development of mental disorders.
D This is incorrect. Although family instability often contributes to the development of mental disorders, it is not considered a community environment factor.
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health 11.____ is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable.
A. Indicated prevention
B. Stigma
C. Risk factors
D. Transinstitutionalization
ANS: B Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders. pp. 231-232 Heading: Culture, Stigma, and Mental Health Disorders Integrated Processes: N/A Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Comprehension [Understanding] Concept: Promoting Health Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A This is incorrect. Stigma is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable. Indicated prevention addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder.
B Stigma is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable.
C This is incorrect. Stigma is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable. Risk factors increase an individual’s chance of developing a mental disorder.
D This is incorrect. Stigma is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable. Transinstitutionalization refers to the growing number of mentally ill persons who are homeless, in jail, in shelters, or in other facilities instead of being home or in a hospital.
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health 12.A nurse interested in working with persons with mental disorders who live in poverty understands that the most effective treatment involves multiple sectors of society, such as government agencies, grass roots groups, nonprofits, and businesses, working in tandem. This interrelationship is called:
A. Indicated prevention
B. Intersectoral strategies
C. Health-Related Quality of Life
D. Institute of Medicine Model of Prevention
ANS: B Objective: 4. Apply current evidence-based population level interventions to the prevention of mental disorders and the promotion of optimal mental health for communities and populations. p. 233 Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Promotion of Mental Health and Policy Integrated Processes: Nursing Process Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Promoting Health; Collaboration Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A This is incorrect. Intersectoral strategies engage more than one sector of society with a shared interest such as government agencies, grass roots citizens groups, nonprofits, and businesses. Indicated prevention addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder.
B Intersectoral strategies engage more than one sector of society with a shared interest such as government agencies, grass roots citizens groups, nonprofits, and businesses.
C This is incorrect. Intersectoral strategies engage more than one sector of society with a shared interest such as government agencies, grass roots citizens groups, nonprofits, and businesses. Health-Related Quality of Life is the self-perceived impact of physical and emotional health on overall quality of life.
D This is incorrect. Intersectoral strategies engage more than one sector of society with a shared interest such as government agencies, grass roots citizens groups, nonprofits, and businesses. The Institute of Medicine Model of Prevention is a framework for mental disorders that clearly separates prevention into three categories with specific interventions at each level.
PTS: 1 CON: Promoting Health | Collaboration 13.A recent graduate nurse working in an urban labor and delivery unit had a patient who experienced a difficult labor. The mother, suffering from postpartum depression (PPD), committed suicide a year after giving birth. Although the nurse knew the basics about PPD, the nurse immediately studied the condition in depth and learned that PPD:
A. Can be triggered by a massive hormone drop following delivery
B. Can intensify to cause delusions
C. Occurs soon after delivery
D. All of the above
ANS: D Objective: 4. Apply current evidence-based population level interventions to the prevention of mental disorders and the promotion of optimal mental health for communities and populations. pp. 233-235 Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Secondary Prevention: Screening for Mental Disorders Integrated Processes: Nursing Process Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Pregnancy; Mood; Violence; Promoting Health; Nursing Roles Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A PPD can be triggered by a massive post-delivery hormone drop, intensify enough to cause delusions, and occur soon after delivery.
B PPD can be triggered by a massive post-delivery hormone drop, intensify enough to cause delusions, and occur soon after delivery.
C PPD can be triggered by a massive post-delivery hormone drop, intensify enough to cause delusions, and occur soon after delivery.
D PPD can be triggered by a massive post-delivery hormone drop, intensify enough to cause delusions, and occur soon after delivery.
PTS: 1 CON: Pregnancy | Mood | Violence | Promoting Health | Nursing Roles 14.A nurse working in labor and delivery requested permission from the nurse manager to conduct a quality improvement project to screen patients that might be susceptible to PPD. After completing the project, which of the following screening guidelines did the unit incorporate?
A. All patients will be screened for PPD when they are admitted to the labor and delivery unit.
B. Patients at high risk are referred to the attending obstetrician.
C. Before being discharged, all new mothers will complete a questionnaire specific to PPD symptoms.
D. All of the above
ANS: D Objective: Apply current evidence-based population level interventions to the prevention of mental disorders and the promotion of optimal mental health for communities and populations. pp. 233-235 Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Secondary Prevention: Screening for Mental Disorders Integrated Processes: Nursing Process Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Pregnancy; Mood; Promoting Health; Assessment; Quality Improvement Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A This is incorrect. Screening, high-risk referrals to the attending obstetrician and completion of a PPD symptom questionnaire were all incorporated.
B This is incorrect. Screening, high-risk referrals to the attending obstetrician and completion of a PPD symptom questionnaire were all incorporated.
C This is incorrect. Screening, high-risk referrals to the attending obstetrician and completion of a PPD symptom questionnaire were all incorporated.
D Screening, high-risk referrals to the attending obstetrician and completion of a PPD symptom questionnaire were all incorporated.
PTS:1 CON: Pregnancy | Mood | Promoting Health | Assessment | Quality Improvement 15.A PHN treats a patient who may be depressed. To verify suspicions, the PHN checks ____, the definitive clinical guide for diagnosing mental disorders and providing consistency and accuracy in the screening for mental disorders.
A. The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5)
B. The Center for Epidemiological Studies Depression Scale (CESD-10)
C. Patient Health Questionnaire 2
D. Brief System Checklist-18 of the My Mood Monitor
ANS: A
Chapter 01: Foundations of Maternity, Women’s Health, and Child Health Nursing

McKinney: Evolve Resources for Maternal-Child Nursing, 5th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE
  1. Which factor significantly contributed to the shift from home births to hospital births in the early 20th century?
a. Puerperal sepsis was identified as a risk factor in labor and delivery.
b. Forceps were developed to facilitate difficult births.
c. The importance of early parental-infant contact was identified.
d. Technologic developments became available to physicians.
ANS:  D Technologic developments were available to physicians, not lay midwives. So in-hospital births increased in order to take advantage of these advancements. Puerperal sepsis has been a known problem for generations. In the late 19th century, Semmelweis discovered how it could be prevented with improved hygienic practices. The development of forceps is an example of a technology advance made in the early 20th century but is not the only reason birthplaces moved. Unlike home births, early hospital births hindered bonding between parents and their infants. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remembering REF:   p. 1                OBJ:   Integrated Process: Teaching-Learning MSC:  Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
  1. Family-centered maternity care developed in response to
a. demands by physicians for family involvement in childbirth.
b. the Sheppard-Towner Act of 1921.
c. parental requests that infants be allowed to remain with them rather than in a nursery.
d. changes in pharmacologic management of labor.
ANS:  C As research began to identify the benefits of early extended parent-infant contact, parents began to insist that the infant remain with them. This gradually developed into the practice of rooming-in and finally to family-centered maternity care. Family-centered care was a request by parents, not physicians. The Sheppard-Towner Act of 1921 provided funds for state-managed programs for mothers and children. The changes in pharmacologic management of labor were not a factor in family-centered maternity care. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remembering REF:   p. 2                OBJ:   Integrated Process: Teaching-Learning MSC:  Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity
  1. Which setting for childbirth allows the least amount of parent-infant contact?
a. Labor/delivery/recovery/postpartum room
b. Birth center
c. Traditional hospital birth
d. Home birth
ANS:  C In the traditional hospital setting, the mother may see the infant for only short feeding periods, and the infant is cared for in a separate nursery. The labor/delivery/recovery/postpartum room setting allows increased parent-infant contact. Birth centers are set up to allow an increase in parent-infant contact. Home births allow an increase in parent-infant contact. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remembering REF:   p. 2                OBJ:   Nursing Process: Planning MSC:  Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
  1. As a result of changes in health care delivery and funding, a current trend seen in the pediatric setting is
a. increased hospitalization of children.
b. decreased number of children living in poverty.
c. an increase in ambulatory care.
d. decreased use of managed care.
ANS:  C One effect of managed care has been that pediatric health care delivery has shifted dramatically from the acute care setting to the ambulatory setting in order to provide more cost-efficient care. The number of hospital beds being used has decreased as more care is given in outpatient settings and in the home. The number of children living in poverty has increased over the past decade. One of the biggest changes in health care has been the growth of managed care. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remembering REF:   p. 5                OBJ:   Nursing Process: Planning MSC:  Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
  1. The Women, Infants, and Children (WIC) program provides
a. well-child examinations for infants and children living at the poverty level.
b. immunizations for high-risk infants and children.
c. screening for infants with developmental disorders.
d. supplemental food supplies to low-income pregnant or breastfeeding women.
ANS:  D WIC is a federal program that provides supplemental food supplies to low-income women who are pregnant or breastfeeding and to their children until age 5 years. Medicaid’s Early and Periodic Screening, Diagnosis, and Treatment Program provides for well-child examinations and for treatment of any medical problems diagnosed during such checkups. Children in the WIC program are often referred for immunizations, but that is not the primary focus of the program. Public Law 99-457 is part of the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act that provides financial incentives to states to establish comprehensive early intervention services for infants and toddlers with, or at risk for, developmental disabilities. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   p. 8 OBJ:   Integrated Process: Teaching-Learning MSC:  Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
  1. In most states, adolescents who are not emancipated minors must have the permission of their parents before
a. treatment for drug abuse.
b. treatment for sexually transmitted diseases (STDs).
c. accessing birth control.
d. surgery.
ANS:  D Minors are not considered capable of giving informed consent, so a surgical procedure would require consent of the parent or guardian. Exceptions exist for obtaining treatment for drug abuse or STDs or for getting birth control in most states. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remembering REF:   p. 17              OBJ:   Nursing Process: Planning MSC:  Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
  1. The maternity nurse should have a clear understanding of the correct use of a clinical pathway. One characteristic of clinical pathways is that they
a. are developed and implemented by nurses.
b. are used primarily in the pediatric setting.
c. set specific time lines for sequencing interventions.
d. are part of the nursing process.
ANS:  C Clinical pathways are standardized, interdisciplinary plans of care devised for patients with a particular health problem. They are used to identify patient outcomes, specify time lines to achieve those outcomes, direct appropriate interventions and sequencing of interventions, include interventions from a variety of disciplines, promote collaboration, and involve a comprehensive approach to care. They are developed by multiple health care professionals and reflect interdisciplinary care. They can be used in multiple settings and for patients throughout the life span. They are not part of the nursing process but can be used in conjunction with the nursing process to provide care to patients. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remembering REF:   p. 7                OBJ:   Nursing Process: Planning MSC:  Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
  1. The fastest growing group of homeless people is
a. men and women preparing for retirement.
b. migrant workers.
c. single women and their children.
d. intravenous (IV) substance abusers.
ANS:  C Pregnancy and birth, especially for a teenager, are important contributing factors for becoming homeless. People preparing for retirement, migrant workers, and IV substance abusers are not among the fastest growing groups of homeless people. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remembering REF:   p. 14              OBJ:   Nursing Process: Assessment MSC:  Client Needs: Physiologic Integrity
  1. A nurse wishes to work to reduce infant mortality in the United States. Which activity would this nurse most likely participate in?
a. Creating pamphlets in several different languages using an interpreter.
b. Assisting women to enroll in Medicaid by their third trimester.
c. Volunteering to provide prenatal care at community centers.
d. Working as an intake counselor at a women’s shelter.
ANS:  C Prenatal care is vital to reducing infant mortality and medical costs. This nurse would most likely participate in community service providing prenatal care outreach activities in community centers, particularly in low-income areas. Pamphlets in other languages, enrolling in Medicaid, and working at a women’s shelter all might impact infant mortality, but the greatest effect would be from assisting women to get consistent prenatal care. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Application/Applying REF:   p. 14              OBJ:   Nursing Process: Implementation MSC:  Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
  1. The intrapartum woman sees no need for a routine admission fetal monitoring strip. If she continues to refuse, what is the first action the nurse should take?
a. Consult the family of the woman.
b. Notify the provider of the situation.
c. Document the woman’s refusal in the nurse’s notes.
d. Make a referral to the hospital ethics committee.
ANS:  B Patients must be allowed to make choices voluntarily without undue influence or coercion from others. The physician, especially if unaware of the patient’s decision, should be notified immediately. Both professionals can work to ensure the mother understands the rationale for the action and the possible consequences of refusal. The woman herself is the decision-maker, unless incapacitated. Documentation should occur but is not the first action. This situation does not rise to the level of an ethical issue so there is no reason to call the ethics committee. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Application/Applying REF:   p. 18              OBJ:   Nursing Process: Implementation MSC:  Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
  1. Which statement is true regarding the “quality assurance” or “incident” report?
a. The report assures the legal department that no problem exists.
b. Reports are a permanent part of the patient’s chart.
c. The nurse’s notes should contain, “Incident report filed, and copy placed in chart.”
d. This report is a form of documentation of an event that may result in legal action.
ANS:  D An incident report is used when something occurs that might result in legal action, such as a patient fall or medication error. It warns the legal department that there may be a problem in a particular patient’s care. Incident reports are not part of the patient’s chart; thus the nurses’ notes should not contain any reference to them. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remembering REF:   p. 18              OBJ:   Integrated Process: Communication and Documentation MSC:  Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
  1. Elective abortion is considered an ethical issue because
a. abortion law is unclear about a woman’s constitutional rights.
b. the Supreme Court ruled that life begins at conception.
c. a conflict exists between the rights of the woman and the rights of the fetus.
d. it requires third-party consent.
ANS:  C

Test Bank for Fundamentals of Nursing Care 2nd Edition by Burton

Chapter 1 Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____    1.   A nurse is educating a nursing student about nursing history. The nurse explains that throughout ancient history, nursing care was provided by family members and
1. Nurses.
2. Physicians.
3. Male priests.
4. Female priests.
____    2.   A nurse is teaching a student about the history of nursing. The nurse informs the student that in 1836, the first school of nursing was established in Kaiserworth, Germany, by
1. Jean Watson.
2. Clara Barton.
3. Theodor Fliedner.
4. Florence Nightingale.
____    3.   A nurse teaches a student nurse that in 1897, the Nurses Associated Alumnae of the United States was formed in an effort to
1. Set standards and rules in nursing education.
2. Keep nurses aware of the newest medical information.
3. Oversee training to protect patients from incompetent nurses.
4. Keep nurses updated on the newest information about nursing education.
____    4.   The purpose of the National League for Nursing is to
1. Set standards and rules in nursing education.
2. Keep nurses aware of the newest medical information.
3. Oversee training to protect patients from incompetent nurses.
4. Keep nurses updated on the newest information about nursing education.
____    5.   All states required practical nurses to be licensed in the year
1. 1940.
2. 1945.
3. 1950.
4. 1955.
____    6.   The title licensed practical nurse (LPN) is used in all states except California and
1. Texas.
2. Maine.
3. Alaska.
4. Arizona.
____    7.   The National Council Licensure Examination for Practical Nursing (NCLEX-PN) is
1. Taken in order to practice as a nurse.
2. Given as an entrance examination for nursing school.
3. Individualized based on where an examinee resides.
4. Taken in order to practice as a certified nursing assistant (CNA).
____    8.   A nurse recruiter is seeking a graduate nurse who has been educated more extensively on management and leadership. The graduate nurse who most likely fits this description is the
1. Diploma nurse.
2. Associate degree nurse (ADN).
3. Licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN).
4. Baccalaureate degree nurse (BSN).
____    9.   Which statement about the Nurse Practice Act is accurate?
1. The Nurse Practice Act clarifies who can supervise a physician.
2. The Nurse Practice Act is the law that governs the actions of nurses.
3. The Nurse Practice Act is determined by the National League of Nursing.
4. The Nurse Practice Act specifies the tasks of the unlicensed assistive personnel.
____   10.   A nurse educates a nursing student about the Nurse Practice Act. The nursing student demonstrates understanding when he or she states:
1. “The Nurse Practice Act is the same in every state.”
2. “The Nurse Practice Act does not specify who can supervise a nurse.”
3. “The Nurse Practice Act is determined by the American Nurses Association.”
4. “The Nurse Practice Act establishes the scope of practice for each level of nurse.”
____   11.   While caring for a patient, a nurse performs a nursing action that is not within his or her scope of practice. The nurse has violated the
1. Ethics Committee.
2. Nurse Practice Act.
3. State Department of Health.
4. National League for Nursing Education.
____   12.   The Nurse Practice Act is enforced by the
1. State Board of Nursing.
2. County Health Department.
3. State Department of Health.
4. National League for Nursing.
____   13.   A nurse is caring for a resident in a long-term setting. The nurse best demonstrates a caring approach when
1. Performing all activities of daily living for the resident.
2. Asking the resident’s spouse to bring a family picture for the resident’s room.
3. Answering the resident’s questions quickly without allowing time for clarification.
4. Encouraging the resident’s spouse to decide which activities the resident should do.
____   14.   A nurse is caring for multiple patients on a medical unit. The nurse can best practice the art of nursing with an emphasis on caring by
1. Providing identical care to each patient.
2. Individualizing care provided to each patient.
3. Viewing the patients in terms of a cellular disorder.
4. Viewing the patients as seriously ill and needing a cure.
____   15.   A nurse is educating a student nurse about the responsibilities of a student nurse. The nurse recognizes that additional teaching is needed when the student nurse states:
1. “I will check laboratory results for my patients often.”
2. “I am responsible for noting abnormal assessment findings.”
3. “I will frequently check the patient’s chart for diagnostic test results.”
4. “It is not within my scope of practice to notify someone of abnormal findings.”
____   16.   A nursing instructor teaches a student nurse about the importance of joining a professional organization. The nursing instructor recognizes that further instruction is necessary when the student nurse states,
1. “Professional organizations allow me to have a collective voice.”
2. “Professional organizations limit my ability to influence laws and policies.”
3. “Professional behavior is demonstrated by joining a professional organization.”
4. “By joining a professional organization, I will have opportunities for leadership.”
 

Hockenberry: Wong’s Essentials of Pediatric Nursing, 10th Edition

Chapter 02: Family, Social, Cultural, and Religious Influences on Child Health Promotion MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A nurse is selecting a family theory to assess a patient’s family dynamics. Which family theory best describes a series of tasks for the family throughout its life span?
a. Interactional theory
b. Developmental systems theory
c. Structural-functional theory
d. Duvall’s developmental theory
ANS: D Duvall’s developmental theory describes eight developmental tasks of the family throughout its life span. Interactional theory and structural-functional theory are not family theories. Developmental systems theory is an outgrowth of Duvall’s theory. The family is described as a small group, a semiclosed system of personalities that interact with the larger cultural system. Changes do not occur in one part of the family without changes in others. DIF:Cognitive Level: UnderstandREF:p. 17 TOP:Integrated Process: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC:Area of Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 2.Which family theory explains how families react to stressful events and suggests factors that promote adaptation to these events?
a. Interactional theory
b. Developmental systems theory
c. Family stress theory
d. Duvall’s developmental theory
ANS: C Family stress theory explains the reaction of families to stressful events. In addition, the theory helps suggest factors that promote adaptation to the stress. Stressors, both positive and negative, are cumulative and affect the family. Adaptation requires a change in family structure or interaction. Interactional theory is not a family theory. Interactions are the basis of general systems theory. Developmental systems theory is an outgrowth of Duvall’s theory. The family is described as a small group, a semiclosed system of personalities that interact with the larger cultural system. Changes do not occur in one part of the family without changes in others. Duvall’s developmental theory describes eight developmental tasks of the family throughout its life span. DIF:Cognitive Level: UnderstandREF:p. 16 TOP:Integrated Process: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC:Area of Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 3.Which is the term for a family in which the paternal grandmother, the parents, and two minor children live together?
a. Blended
b. Nuclear
c. Binuclear
d. Extended
ANS: D An extended family contains at least one parent, one or more children, and one or more members (related or unrelated) other than a parent or sibling. A blended family contains at least one stepparent, step-sibling, or half-sibling. The nuclear family consists of two parents and their children. No other relatives or nonrelatives are present in the household. In binuclear families, parents continue the parenting role while terminating the spousal unit. For example, when joint custody is assigned by the court, each parent has equal rights and responsibilities for the minor child or children. DIF:Cognitive Level: RememberREF:p. 18 TOP:Integrated Process: Nursing Process: Planning MSC:Area of Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 4.A nurse is assessing a family’s structure. Which describes a family in which a mother, her children, and a stepfather live together?
a. Blended
b. Nuclear
c. Binuclear
d. Extended
ANS: A A blended family contains at least one stepparent, step-sibling, or half-sibling. The nuclear family consists of two parents and their children. No other relatives or nonrelatives are present in the household. In binuclear families, parents continue the parenting role while terminating the spousal unit. For example, when joint custody is assigned by the court, each parent has equal rights and responsibilities for the minor child or children. An extended family contains at least one parent, one or more children, and one or more members (related or unrelated) other than a parent or sibling. DIF:Cognitive Level: UnderstandREF:p. 18 TOP:Integrated Process: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC:Area of Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 5.Parents of a firstborn child are asking whether it is normal for their child to be extremely competitive. The nurse should respond to the parents that studies about the ordinal position of children suggest that firstborn children tend to:
a. be praised less often.
b. be more achievement oriented.
c. be more popular with the peer group.
d. identify with peer group more than parents.
ANS: B Firstborn children, like only children, tend to be more achievement oriented. Being praised less often, being more popular with the peer group, and identifying with peer groups more than parents are characteristics of later-born children. DIF:Cognitive Level: ApplyREF:p. 29 TOP:Integrated Process: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC:Area of Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 6.The nurse is teaching a group of new parents about the experience of role transition. Which statement by a parent would indicate a correct understanding of the teaching?
a. “My marital relationship can have a positive or negative effect on the role transition.”
b. “If an infant has special care needs, the parents’ sense of confidence in their new role is strengthened.”
c. “Young parents can adjust to the new role easier than older parents.”
d. “A parent’s previous experience with children makes the role transition more difficult.”
ANS: A If parents are supportive of each other, they can serve as positive influences on establishing satisfying parental roles. When marital tensions alter caregiving routines and interfere with the enjoyment of the infant, then the marital relationship has a negative effect. Infants with special care needs can be a significant source of added stress. Older parents are usually more able to cope with the greater financial responsibilities, changes in sleeping habits, and reduced time for each other and other children. Parents who have previous experience with parenting appear more relaxed, have less conflict in disciplinary relationships, and are more aware of normal growth and development. DIF:Cognitive Level: UnderstandREF:p. 17 TOP:Integrated Process: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC:Area of Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 7.When assessing a family, the nurse determines that the parents exert little or no control over their children. What is this style of parenting called?
a. Permissive
b. Dictatorial
c. Democratic
d. Authoritarian
ANS: A Permissive parents avoid imposing their own standards of conduct and allow their children to regulate their own activity as much as possible. The parents exert little or no control over their children’s actions. Dictatorial or authoritarian parents attempt to control their children’s behavior and attitudes through unquestioned mandates. They establish rules and regulations or standards of conduct that they expect to be followed rigidly and unquestioningly. Democratic parents combine permissive and dictatorial styles. They direct their children’s behavior and attitudes by emphasizing the reasons for rules and negatively reinforcing deviations. They respect the child’s individual nature. DIF:Cognitive Level: RememberREF:p. 20 TOP:Integrated Process: Nursing Process: Diagnosis MSC:Area of Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 8.When discussing discipline with the mother of a 4-year-old child, the nurse should include which instruction?
a. Children as young as 4 years old rarely need to be punished.
b. Parental control should be consistent.
c. Withdrawal of love and approval is effective at this age.
d. One should expect rules to be followed rigidly and unquestioningly.
ANS: B For effective discipline, parents must be consistent and must follow through with agreed-on actions. Realistic goals should be set for this age group. Parents should structure the environment to prevent unnecessary difficulties. Requests for behavior change should be phrased in a positive manner to provide direction for the child. Withdrawal of love and approval is never appropriate or effective. Discipline strategies should be appropriate to the child’s age, temperament, and severity of the misbehavior. Following rules rigidly and unquestioningly is beyond the developmental capabilities of a 4-year-old. DIF:Cognitive Level: ApplyREF:p. 20 TOP:Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning MSC:Area of Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 9.Which is most characteristic of the physical punishment of children, such as spanking?
a. Psychological impact is usually minimal.
b. Children rarely become accustomed to spanking.
c. Children’s development of reasoning increases.
d. Misbehavior is likely to occur when parents are not present.
ANS: D Through the use of physical punishment, children learn what they should not do. When parents are not around, it is more likely that children will misbehave because they have not learned to behave well for their own sake, but rather out of fear of punishment. Spanking can cause severe physical and psychological injury and interfere with effective parent-child interaction. Children do become accustomed to spanking, requiring more severe corporal punishment each time. The use of corporal punishment may interfere with the child’s development of moral reasoning. DIF:Cognitive Level: UnderstandREF:p. 20 TOP:Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning MSC:Area of Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 10.A 3-year-old girl was adopted immediately after birth. The parents have just asked the nurse how they should tell the child that she is adopted. Which guidelines concerning adoption should the nurse use in planning a response?
a. Telling the child is an important aspect of their parental responsibilities.
b. The best time to tell the child is between ages 7 and 10 years.
c. It is not necessary to tell the child who was adopted so young.
d. It is best to wait until the child asks about it.
ANS: A It is important for the parents not to withhold information about the adoption from the child. It is an essential component of the child’s identity. There is no recommended best time to tell children. It is believed that children should be told young enough so they do not remember a time when they did not know. It should be done before the children enter school to keep third parties from telling the children before the parents have had the opportunity. DIF:Cognitive Level: UnderstandREF:p. 22 TOP:Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning MSC:Area of Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 11.A parent of a school-age child is going through a divorce. The parent tells the school nurse the child has not been doing well in school and sometimes has trouble sleeping. The nurse should recognize this as which implication?
a. Indication of maladjustment
b. Common reaction to divorce
c. Lack of adequate parenting
d. Unusual response that indicates need for referral
ANS: B Parental divorce affects school-age children in many ways. In addition to difficulties in school, they often have profound sadness, depression, fear, insecurity, frequent crying, loss of appetite, and sleep disorders. This is not an indication of maladjustment, suggestive of lack of adequate parenting, or an unusual response that indicates need for referral in school-age children after parental divorce. DIF:Cognitive Level: ApplyREF:p. 24 TOP:Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning MSC: Area of Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity 12.A mother brings 6-month-old Eric to the clinic for a well-baby checkup. She comments, “I want to go back to work, but I don’t want Eric to suffer because I’ll have less time with him.” The nurse’s most appropriate answer would be which statement?
a. “I’m sure he’ll be fine if you get a good babysitter.”
b. “You will need to stay home until Eric starts school.”
c. “You should go back to work so Eric will get used to being with others.”
d. “Let’s talk about the child care options that will be best for Eric.”
ANS: D Let’s talk about the child care options that will be best for Eric is an open-ended statement that will assist the mother in exploring her concerns about what is best for both her and Eric. I’m sure he’ll be fine if you get a good babysitterYou will need to stay home until Eric starts school, and You should go back to work so Eric will get used to being with others are directive statements. They do not address the effect of her working on Eric. DIF:Cognitive Level: ApplyREF:p. 27 TOP:Integrated Process: Communication and Documentation MSC: Area of Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity 13.Which term best describes a group of people who share a set of values, beliefs, practices, social relationships, law, politics, economics, and norms of behavior?
a. Race
b. Culture
c. Ethnicity
d. Social group
ANS: B Culture is a pattern of assumptions, beliefs, and practices that unconsciously frames or guides the outlook and decisions of a group of people. A culture is composed of individuals who share a set of values, beliefs, and practices that serve as a frame of reference for individual perceptions and judgments. Race is defined as a division of humankind possessing traits that are transmissible by descent and are sufficient to characterize it as a distinct human type. Ethnicity is an affiliation of a set of persons who share a unique cultural, social, and linguistic heritage. A social group consists of systems of roles carried out in groups. Examples of primary social groups include the family and peer groups. DIF:Cognitive Level: RememberREF:p. 29 TOP:Integrated Process: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Area of Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity 14.Which term best describes the emotional attitude that one’s own ethnic group is superior to others?
a. Culture
b. Ethnicity
c. Superiority
d. Ethnocentrism
ANS: D Ethnocentrism is the belief that one’s way of living and behaving is the best way. This includes the emotional attitude that the values, beliefs, and perceptions of one’s ethnic group are superior to those of others. Culture is a pattern of assumptions, beliefs, and practices that unconsciously frames or guides the outlook and decisions of a group of people. A culture is composed of individuals who share a set of values, beliefs, and practices that serves as a frame of reference for individual perception and judgments. Ethnicity is an affiliation of a set of persons who share a unique cultural, social, and linguistic heritage. Superiority is the state or quality of being superior; it does not include ethnicity. DIF:Cognitive Level: UnderstandREF:p. 30 TOP:Integrated Process: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Area of Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1.Dunst, Trivette, and Deal identified the qualities of strong families that help them function effectively. Which qualities are included? (Select all that apply.)
a. Ability to stay connected without spending time together
b. Clear set of family values, rules, and beliefs
c. Adoption of one coping strategy that always promotes positive functioning in dealing with life events
d. Sense of commitment toward growth of individual family members as opposed to that of the family unit
e. Ability to engage in problem-solving activities
f. Sense of balance between the use of internal and external family resources
ANS: B, E, F A clear set of family rules, values, and beliefs that establishes expectations about acceptable and desired behavior is one of the qualities of strong families that help them function effectively. Strong families also are able to engage in problem-solving activities and to find a balance between internal and external forces. Strong families have a sense of congruence among family members regarding the value and importance of assigning time and energy to meet needs. Strong families also use varied coping strategies. The sense of commitment is toward the growth and well-being of individual family members, as well as the family unit. DIF:Cognitive Level: UnderstandREF:p. 19 TOP:Integrated Process: Nursing Process: Diagnosis MSC:Area of Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 2.A nurse is conducting a teaching session on the use of time-out as a discipline measure to parents of toddlers. Which are correct strategies the nurse should include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.)
a. Time-out as a discipline measure cannot be used when in a public place.
b. A rule for the length of time-out is 1 minute per year.
c. When the child misbehaves, one warning should be given.
d. The area for time-out can be in the family room where the child can see the television.
e. When the child is quiet for the specified time, he or she can leave the room.
ANS: B, C, E A rule for the length of time-out is 1 minute per year of age; use a kitchen timer with an audible bell to record the time rather than a watch. When the child misbehaves, one warning should be given. When the child is quiet for the duration of the time, he or she can then leave the room. Time-out can be used in public places and the parents should be consistent on the use of time-out. Implement time-out in a public place by selecting a suitable area or explain to children that time-out will be spent immediately on returning home. The time-out should not be spent in an area from which the child can view the television. Select an area for time-out that is safe, convenient, and unstimulating but where the child can be monitored, such as the bathroom, hallway, or laundry room. DIF:Cognitive Level: ApplyREF:p. 21 TOP:Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning MSC:Area of Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 3.Divorced parents of a preschool child are asking whether their child will display any feelings or behaviors related to the effect of the divorce. The nurse is correct when explaining that the parents should be prepared for which types of behaviors? (Select all that apply.)
a. Displaying fears of abandonment
b. Verbalizing that he or she “is the reason for the divorce”
c. Displaying fear regarding the future
d. Ability to disengage from the divorce proceedings
e. Engaging in fantasy to understand the divorce
ANS: A, B, E A child 3 to 5 years of age (preschool) may display fears of abandonment, verbalize feelings that he or she is the reason for the divorce, and engage in fantasy to understand the divorce. He or she would not be displaying fear regarding the future until school age, and the ability to disengage from the divorce proceedings would be characteristic of an adolescent. DIF:Cognitive Level: ApplyREF:p. 24 TOP:Integrated Process: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Area of Client Needs: Teaching and Learning COMPLETION

Test Bank for Wongs Nursing Care of Infants and Children 11th Edition by Hockenberry

ISBN-10: 032354939X, ISBN-13: 9780323549394

Table of Contents Section I: Children, Their Families, and the Nurse 1. Perspectives of Pediatric Nursing 2. Social, Cultural, Religious, and Family Influences on Child Health Promotion 3. Hereditary Influences on Health Promotion of the Child and Family Section II: Childhood and Family Assessment 4. Communication, Physical, and Developmental Assessment of the Child and Family 5. Pain in Children: Significance, Assessment, and Management Strategies 6. Childhood Communicable and Infectious Diseases Section III: Family-Centered Care of the Newborn 7. Health Promotion of the Newborn and Family 8. Health Problems of the Newborn 9. The High-Risk Newborn and Family Section IV: Family-Centered Care of the Infant 10. Health Promotion of the Infant and Family 11. Health Problems of the Infant Section V: Family-Centered Care of the Toddler and Preschooler 12. Health Promotion of the Toddler and Family 13. Health Promotion of the Preschooler and Family 14. Health Problems of Early Childhood Section VI: Family-Centered Care of the School-Age Child 15. Health Promotion of the School-Age Child and Family 16. Health Problems of the School-Age Child Section VII: Family-Centered Care of the Adolescent 17. Health Promotion of the Adolescent and Family 18. Health Problems of the Adolescent Section VIII: Family-Centered Care of the Child with Special Needs 19. Impact of Chronic Illness, Disability, or End of Life Care for the Child and Family 20. The Child with Cognitive, Sensory, or Communication Impairment Section IX: The Child Who is Hospitalized 21. Family-Centered Care of the Child During Illness and Hospitalization 22. Pediatric Nursing Interventions and Skills Section X: Childhood Nutrition and Elimination Problems 23. The Child with Fluid and Electrolyte Imbalance 24. The Child with Renal Dysfunction 25. The Child with Gastrointestinal Dysfunction Section XI: Childhood Oxygenation Problems 26. The Child with Respiratory Dysfunction Section XII: Childhood Blood Production and Circulation Problems 27. The Child with Cardiovascular Dysfunction 28. The Child with Hematologic or Immunologic Dysfunction Section XIII: Childhood Regulatory Problems 29. The Child with Cancer 30. The Child with Cerebral Dysfunction 31. The Child with Endocrine Dysfunction Section XIV: Childhood Physical Mobility Problems 32. The Child with Integumentary Dysfunction 33. The Child with Musculoskeletal or Articular Dysfunction 34. The Child with Neuromuscular or Muscular Dysfunction
Weight
DimensionsN/AN/AN/AN/AN/AN/A
Additional information
Select the fields to be shown. Others will be hidden. Drag and drop to rearrange the order.
  • Image
  • SKU
  • Rating
  • Price
  • Stock
  • Availability
  • Add to cart
  • Description
  • Content
  • Weight
  • Dimensions
  • Additional information
  • Attributes
  • Custom attributes
  • Custom fields
Click outside to hide the comparison bar
Compare