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Test Bank for Gerontologic Nursing 5th Edition by Meiner

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By: Meiner

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Test Bank for Gerontologic Nursing 5th Edition by Meiner

MULTIPLE CHOICE

  1. In 2010, the revised Standards and Scope of Gerontological Nursing Practice was published. The nurse would use these standards to:
a.promote the practice of gerontologic nursing within the acute care setting.
b.define the concepts and dimensions of gerontologic nursing practice.
c.elevate the practice of gerontologic nursing.
d.incorporate suggested interventions from others who practice gerontologic nursing.

ANS: D

The current publishing of the Standards and Scope of Gerontological Nursing Practice in 2010 incorporates the input of gerontologic nurses from across the United States. It was not intended to promote gerontologic nursing practice within acute care settings, define concepts or dimensions of gerontologic nursing practice, or elevate the practice of gerontologic nursing.

  1. When attempting to minimize the effect of ageism on the practice of nursing older adults, a nurse needs to first:
a.recognize that nurses must act as advocates for aging patients.
b.accept that this population represents a substantial portion of those requiring nursing care.
c.self-reflect and formulate one’s personal view of aging and the older patient.
d.recognize ageism as a form of bigotry shared by many Americans.

ANS: C

Ageism is an ever-increasing prejudicial view of the effects of the aging process and of the older population as a whole. With nurses being members of a society holding such views, it is critical that the individual nurse self-reflect on personal feelings and determine whether such feelings will affect the nursing care that he or she provides to the aging patient. Acting as an advocate is an important nursing role in all settings. Simply accepting a fact does not help end ageism, nor does recognize ageism as a form of bigotry.

  1. When discussing factors that have helped to increase the number of healthy, independent older Americans, the nurse includes the importance of:
a.increased availability of in-home care services.
b.government support of retired citizens.
c.effective antibiotic therapies.
d.the development of life-extending therapies.

ANS: C

The health and ultimate autonomy of older Americans has been positively impacted by the development of antibiotics, better sanitation, and vaccines. These public health measures have been more instrumental in increasing the numbers of healthy, independent older Americans than have in-home care services, government programs, or life-extending therapies.

  1. Based on current data, when presenting an older adult’s discharge teaching plan, the nurse includes the patient’s:
a.nonrelated caretaker.
b.paid caregiver.
c.family member.
d.intuitional representative.

ANS: C

Less than 4% of older adults live in a formal health care environment. The majority of the geriatric population lives at home or with family members.

  1. The nurse planning care for an older adult who has recently been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis views the priority criterion for continued independence to be the patients:
a.age.
b.financial status.
c.gender.
d.functional status.

ANS: D

Maintaining the functional status of older adults may avert the onset of physical frailty and cognitive impairment, two conditions that increase the likelihood of institutionalization.

  1. A nurse working with the older adult population is most likely to assess a need for a financial social service’s referral for a(n):
a.white male.
b.black female.
c.Hispanic male.
d.Asian American female.

ANS: B

The poverty rate among older black women is substantially higher than that seen among males or females of other ethnic groups. White males had the least poverty.

  1. Which of the following statements made by a nurse preparing to complete a health assessment and history on an older patient reflects an understanding of the general health status of this population?
a.“I’ll need to document well regarding the medications the patient is currently prescribed.”
b.“I would like to understand how supportive the patient’s family members are.”
c.“Most older patients are being treated for a variety of chronic health care issues.”
d.“It will be interesting to see whether this patient sees herself as being healthy.”

ANS: D

It is a misconception that old age is synonymous with disease and illness. The nurse should always determine the patient’s sense of wellness and independence when conducting a health and history assessment. An assessment of medication use and family support is important for any patient. Many older adults do have chronic health conditions, but their perception is more important than a single number.

  1. The nurse is caring for an older adult who has been admitted to an acute care hospital for treatment of a fractured femur. The family expresses concern about the patient’s pending transfer to a subacute care facility. What response by the nurse is best?
a.“Acute care facilities lack the long-term physical therapy support your dad requires.”
b.“Your dad will be much happier in a more serene, private environment.”
c.“The subacute facility will focus on helping your dad maintain his independence.”
d.“Insurance, including Medicare, will cover only a limited amount of time here.”

ANS: C

The transfer of the patient to a subacute facility is based on the need to maintain the patient’s level of function and independence, a task the acute care facility is not prepared to address once the patient is physiologically stable. The patient may or may not be happier in the new setting; the nurse should not make this judgment. It is true that insurance only pays for a limited amount of time in an acute care facility, but this is not the best reason for the patient to transfer.

  1. To best assure both the quality of care and the safety of the older adult patient who requires in-home unlicensed assistive personal (UAP) assistance, the geriatric nurse:
a.evaluates the competency of the UAP staff.
b.assumes the roles of the case manager and patient advocate.
c.arranges for the needed UAP provided services.
d.assesses the patient for functional limitations.

ANS: A

As more care traditionally provided by professional nurses is being transferred to UAP, the nurse must assume more responsibility for educating, training, and evaluating the competency of UAP staff to provide safe, effective care for the older adult patient.

  1. The nurse working with older adults understands what information about certification in gerontologic nursing?
a.It is mandatory for those in long-term care settings.
b.It is voluntary and shows clinical expertise in an area.
c.It allows nurses to be paid by third-party payers.
d.It allows nurses to advance their careers in a job.

ANS: B

Certification is voluntary and shows that a nurse has additional knowledge and expertise in a certain area of practice. It is not mandatory in specific care settings. It does not allow for third-party reimbursement. It may be part of a career ladder program, but that is not true of all work settings.

  1. A nurse works in a gerontologic clinic. What action by the nurse takes the highest priority?
a.Serving as a patient advocate
b.Educating patients about diseases
c.Helping patients remain independent
d.Referring patients to home health care

ANS: C

One of the challenges and priorities of the gerontologic nurse is helping patients maintain their independence.

  1. A nurse is caring for an older patient in the emergency department. What information about the patient will be most helpful in creating a plan of care?
a.Baseline physical and cognitive functioning
b.Living conditions and family support
c.Medications and current medical problems
d.Results of the Mini-Mental State examination

ANS: A

The nurse is encouraged to view older patients as individuals and consider their baseline physical and cognitive functional status as a standard by which to compare the patient’s current status. The other information is also important, but the basis of individualized care begins with the patient’s strengths and weaknesses.

  1. The faculty member explains to students that many older Americans continue to work past the “retirement age.” What best explains this trend?
a.Feeling healthier longer
b.Changing financial outlook
c.Becoming bored in retirement
d.A desire to give back

ANS: B

As financial situations may have declined as a result of many economic factors, more older adults work past their “retirement age.” The other options may be reasons for some to continue working, but financial necessity is the reason the majority continue to do so.

  1. What information does the faculty member teach students about Medicare?
a.Covers anyone with end-stage renal disease
b.Part A covers some prescription costs
c.Part B covers inpatient hospital costs
d.Part D eliminates the drug “donut hole”

ANS: A

Although Medicare is primarily for those over the age of 65, it does cover people of any age with end-stage kidney disease. Part A covers hospital costs. Part B is medical insurance. The “donut hole“ was fixed by the Affordable Care Act.

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DescriptionBy: Meiner Edition: 5th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadBy: Wilkinson Edition: 3rd Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadEdition: 6th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadEdition: 7th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadBy: Burton Edition: 2nd Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadBy: Savage Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant Download
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Test Bank for Gerontologic Nursing 5th Edition by Meiner

MULTIPLE CHOICE
  1. In 2010, the revised Standards and Scope of Gerontological Nursing Practice was published. The nurse would use these standards to:
a.promote the practice of gerontologic nursing within the acute care setting.
b.define the concepts and dimensions of gerontologic nursing practice.
c.elevate the practice of gerontologic nursing.
d.incorporate suggested interventions from others who practice gerontologic nursing.
ANS: D The current publishing of the Standards and Scope of Gerontological Nursing Practice in 2010 incorporates the input of gerontologic nurses from across the United States. It was not intended to promote gerontologic nursing practice within acute care settings, define concepts or dimensions of gerontologic nursing practice, or elevate the practice of gerontologic nursing.
  1. When attempting to minimize the effect of ageism on the practice of nursing older adults, a nurse needs to first:
a.recognize that nurses must act as advocates for aging patients.
b.accept that this population represents a substantial portion of those requiring nursing care.
c.self-reflect and formulate one’s personal view of aging and the older patient.
d.recognize ageism as a form of bigotry shared by many Americans.
ANS: C Ageism is an ever-increasing prejudicial view of the effects of the aging process and of the older population as a whole. With nurses being members of a society holding such views, it is critical that the individual nurse self-reflect on personal feelings and determine whether such feelings will affect the nursing care that he or she provides to the aging patient. Acting as an advocate is an important nursing role in all settings. Simply accepting a fact does not help end ageism, nor does recognize ageism as a form of bigotry.
  1. When discussing factors that have helped to increase the number of healthy, independent older Americans, the nurse includes the importance of:
a.increased availability of in-home care services.
b.government support of retired citizens.
c.effective antibiotic therapies.
d.the development of life-extending therapies.
ANS: C The health and ultimate autonomy of older Americans has been positively impacted by the development of antibiotics, better sanitation, and vaccines. These public health measures have been more instrumental in increasing the numbers of healthy, independent older Americans than have in-home care services, government programs, or life-extending therapies.
  1. Based on current data, when presenting an older adult’s discharge teaching plan, the nurse includes the patient’s:
a.nonrelated caretaker.
b.paid caregiver.
c.family member.
d.intuitional representative.
ANS: C Less than 4% of older adults live in a formal health care environment. The majority of the geriatric population lives at home or with family members.
  1. The nurse planning care for an older adult who has recently been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis views the priority criterion for continued independence to be the patients:
a.age.
b.financial status.
c.gender.
d.functional status.
ANS: D Maintaining the functional status of older adults may avert the onset of physical frailty and cognitive impairment, two conditions that increase the likelihood of institutionalization.
  1. A nurse working with the older adult population is most likely to assess a need for a financial social service’s referral for a(n):
a.white male.
b.black female.
c.Hispanic male.
d.Asian American female.
ANS: B The poverty rate among older black women is substantially higher than that seen among males or females of other ethnic groups. White males had the least poverty.
  1. Which of the following statements made by a nurse preparing to complete a health assessment and history on an older patient reflects an understanding of the general health status of this population?
a.“I’ll need to document well regarding the medications the patient is currently prescribed.”
b.“I would like to understand how supportive the patient’s family members are.”
c.“Most older patients are being treated for a variety of chronic health care issues.”
d.“It will be interesting to see whether this patient sees herself as being healthy.”
ANS: D It is a misconception that old age is synonymous with disease and illness. The nurse should always determine the patient’s sense of wellness and independence when conducting a health and history assessment. An assessment of medication use and family support is important for any patient. Many older adults do have chronic health conditions, but their perception is more important than a single number.
  1. The nurse is caring for an older adult who has been admitted to an acute care hospital for treatment of a fractured femur. The family expresses concern about the patient’s pending transfer to a subacute care facility. What response by the nurse is best?
a.“Acute care facilities lack the long-term physical therapy support your dad requires.”
b.“Your dad will be much happier in a more serene, private environment.”
c.“The subacute facility will focus on helping your dad maintain his independence.”
d.“Insurance, including Medicare, will cover only a limited amount of time here.”
ANS: C The transfer of the patient to a subacute facility is based on the need to maintain the patient’s level of function and independence, a task the acute care facility is not prepared to address once the patient is physiologically stable. The patient may or may not be happier in the new setting; the nurse should not make this judgment. It is true that insurance only pays for a limited amount of time in an acute care facility, but this is not the best reason for the patient to transfer.
  1. To best assure both the quality of care and the safety of the older adult patient who requires in-home unlicensed assistive personal (UAP) assistance, the geriatric nurse:
a.evaluates the competency of the UAP staff.
b.assumes the roles of the case manager and patient advocate.
c.arranges for the needed UAP provided services.
d.assesses the patient for functional limitations.
ANS: A As more care traditionally provided by professional nurses is being transferred to UAP, the nurse must assume more responsibility for educating, training, and evaluating the competency of UAP staff to provide safe, effective care for the older adult patient.
  1. The nurse working with older adults understands what information about certification in gerontologic nursing?
a.It is mandatory for those in long-term care settings.
b.It is voluntary and shows clinical expertise in an area.
c.It allows nurses to be paid by third-party payers.
d.It allows nurses to advance their careers in a job.
ANS: B Certification is voluntary and shows that a nurse has additional knowledge and expertise in a certain area of practice. It is not mandatory in specific care settings. It does not allow for third-party reimbursement. It may be part of a career ladder program, but that is not true of all work settings.
  1. A nurse works in a gerontologic clinic. What action by the nurse takes the highest priority?
a.Serving as a patient advocate
b.Educating patients about diseases
c.Helping patients remain independent
d.Referring patients to home health care
ANS: C One of the challenges and priorities of the gerontologic nurse is helping patients maintain their independence.
  1. A nurse is caring for an older patient in the emergency department. What information about the patient will be most helpful in creating a plan of care?
a.Baseline physical and cognitive functioning
b.Living conditions and family support
c.Medications and current medical problems
d.Results of the Mini-Mental State examination
ANS: A The nurse is encouraged to view older patients as individuals and consider their baseline physical and cognitive functional status as a standard by which to compare the patient’s current status. The other information is also important, but the basis of individualized care begins with the patient’s strengths and weaknesses.
  1. The faculty member explains to students that many older Americans continue to work past the “retirement age.” What best explains this trend?
a.Feeling healthier longer
b.Changing financial outlook
c.Becoming bored in retirement
d.A desire to give back
ANS: B As financial situations may have declined as a result of many economic factors, more older adults work past their “retirement age.” The other options may be reasons for some to continue working, but financial necessity is the reason the majority continue to do so.
  1. What information does the faculty member teach students about Medicare?
a.Covers anyone with end-stage renal disease
b.Part A covers some prescription costs
c.Part B covers inpatient hospital costs
d.Part D eliminates the drug “donut hole”
ANS: A Although Medicare is primarily for those over the age of 65, it does cover people of any age with end-stage kidney disease. Part A covers hospital costs. Part B is medical insurance. The “donut hole“ was fixed by the Affordable Care Act.

Test Bank for Fundamentals of Nursing 3rd Edition by Wilkinson

Chapter 1. Evolution of Nursing Thought & Action MULTIPLE CHOICE
  1. Which of the following is an example of an illness prevention activity?
a.Encouraging the use of a food diary
b.Joining a cancer support group
c.Administering immunization for HPV
d.Teaching a diabetic patient about his diet
ANS:  C Administering immunization for HPV is an example of illness prevention. Although cancer is a disease, it is assumed that a person joining a support group would already have the disease; therefore, it would be treatment and not disease prevention. Illness prevention activities focus on avoiding a specific disease. A food diary is a health promotion activity. Teaching a diabetic patient about diet is a treatment for diabetes; the patient already has diabetes, so the teaching cannot prevent diabetes. Difficulty: Moderate Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance Cognitive Level: Application Page 15 PTS:   1
  1. Which organization can require nurses to take continuing education courses as a condition of licensure renewal?
a.American Nurses Association
b.National League for Nursing
c.Sigma Theta Tau
d.State Board of Nursing
ANS:  D Continuing education is a professional strategy designed to ensure that nurses remain current in their clinical knowledge. Many states require nurses to engage in a certain number of continuing-education requirements to renew their license. The knowledge gained in the nursing curriculum is sufficient for nursing school graduates to obtain their initial license. Requirements for renewal of a nurse’s license can be found in the state’s nurse practice act (state board of nursing). Difficulty: Difficult Cognitive Level: Analysis Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance Cognitive Level: Application Page 11 PTS:   1
  1. An experienced seasoned nurse uses her knowledge of patient medical conditions and intuition to identify patient problems. She is often the resource for other nurses on the unit. What stage of proficiency has this nurse achieved?
a.Novice
b.Advanced beginner
c.Competent
d.Expert
ANS:  D The nurse who has reached the expert stage of proficiency has a deep understanding of the clinical situation based on knowledge and experience. The nurse often senses a potential problem in the absence of classic signs and symptoms. The novice nurse is inexperienced and relies on rules and processes. The advanced beginner focuses on aspects of a situation and is unable to see the comprehensive perspective. A nurse functioning at the competent level is able to prioritize to meet the patient needs but does not fully grasp the total situation. Difficulty: Moderate Cognitive Level: Comprehension Pages 11-12 PTS:   1
  1. Which of the following best explains the importance of standards of practice?
a.Nurses and other healthcare providers have the same standards of practice.
b.Standard of practice only apply to nurses who work in hospital settings.
c.Standards of practice identify the knowledge, skills, and attitudes nurses need to provide safe care.
d.Standards of practice differ among registered nurses because the roles are different based on the population they serve.
ANS:  C Standards of practice are authoritative statements of the duties that all registered nurses, regardless of role, population, or specialty, are expected to perform competently. Standards are derived from several sources, including professional organizations and healthcare facilities’ policies and procedures. Difficulty: Moderate Cognitive Level: Application Pages 12-13 PTS:   1
  1. What is the primary goal of the National League for Nursing?
a.Advocate for the needs of registered nurses to promote patient safety
b.Establish and maintain standards for nursing education
c.Support global health policies and improve health worldwide
d.Foster nursing scholarship, leadership, and service to improve health worldwide
ANS:  B The National League for Nursing (NLN) was founded to establish and maintain a universal standard of nursing education. The NLN focuses on faculty development in nursing education programs and is the voice for nursing education. Difficulty: Moderate Cognitive Level: Application Page 14   PTS:   1
  1. A patient who requires long-term rehabilitation needs which type of care?
a.Primary care
b.Secondary care
c.Tertiary care
d.Preventive care
ANS:  C Tertiary care is required for individuals who need long-term care or for those who are dying. Difficulty: Easy Cognitive Level: Knowledge Page 18 PTS:   1
  1. An elderly patient is covered under Medicare. She is scheduled for discharge and tells the nursing student that several therapists will come to her home to help her regain functional abilities. The patient then asks, “Why can’t I just stay in the hospital and receive this type of care?” What is the nursing student’s best response?
a.“You should be able to stay in the hospital. I will ask the nurse to call your doctor.”
b.“Once you have reached your reimbursable length of stay and your condition is stable, it is more cost effective to provide you with home healthcare.”
c.“Medicare is a type of managed care, which mean that you are only allowed to stay in the hospital for a certain number of days before being discharged, regardless of your condition.”
d.“You should be glad to be in your own home. You will recover in no time.”
ANS:  B Home healthcare services are provided to patients who still require skilled care but are discharged from the hospital because the reimbursable length-of-stay has expired. The patient is stable and can receive provider services at home. It would be incorrect and misleading to tell the patient she “should be able to stay in the hospital.” It would be incorrect to tell the patient she is allowed only “a certain number of days before being discharged,” because the patient’s condition is a factor in determining whether the patient can be discharged from the hospital. Telling the patient that she should be glad to be going home is a form of closed communication and does not address her question. Difficulty: Moderate

Test Bank for Maternal Child Nursing Care 6th Edition Perry

NURSINGTB.COM Chapter 01: 21st Century Maternity Nursing Perry: Maternal Child Nursing Care, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. When providing care for a pregnant woman, the nurse should be aware that one of the most frequently reported maternal medical risk factors is: a. diabetes mellitus. b. mitral valve prolapse (MVP). c. chronic hypertension. d. anemia. ANS: A The most frequently reported maternal medical risk factors are diabetes and hypertension associated with pregnancy. Both of these conditions are associated with maternal obesity. There are no studies that indicate MVP is among the most frequently reported maternal risk factors. Hypertension associated with pregnancy, not chronic hypertension, is one of the most frequently reported maternal medical risk factors. Although anemia is a concern in pregnancy, it is not one of the most frequently reported maternal medical risk factors in pregnancy. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge OBJ: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiologic Integrity 2. To ensure optimal outcomes for the patient, the contemporary maternity nurse must incorporate both teamwork and communication with clinicians into her care delivery. The SBAR technique of communication is an easy-to-remember mechanism for communication. Which of the following correctly defines this acronym? a. Situation, baseline assessment, response b. Situation, background, assessment, recommendation c. Subjective background, assessment, recommendation d. Situation, background, anticipated recommendation ANS: B The situation, background, assessment, recommendation (SBAR) technique provides a specific framework for communication among health care providers. Failure to communicate is one of the major reasons for errors in health care. The SBAR technique has the potential to serve as a means to reduce errors. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension OBJ: Nursing Process: Assessment, Planning MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment 3. The role of the professional nurse caring for childbearing families has evolved to emphasize: a. providing care to patients directly at the bedside. b. primarily hospital care of maternity patients. c. practice using an evidence-based approach. d. planning patient care to cover longer hospital stays. ANS: C NURSINGTB.COM MATERNAL CHILD NURSING CARE 6TH EDITION PERRY TEST BANKNURSINGTB.COM Professional nurses are part of the team of health care providers who collaboratively care for patients throughout the childbearing cycle. Providing care to patients directly at the bedside is one of the nurse’s tasks; however, it does not encompass the concept of the evolved professional nurse. Throughout the prenatal period, nurses care for women in clinics and physician’s offices and teach classes to help families prepare for childbirth. Nurses also care for childbearing families in birthing centers and in the home. Nurses have been critically important in developing strategies to improve the well-being of women and their infants and have led the efforts to implement clinical practice guidelines using an evidence-based approach. Maternity patients have experienced a decreased, rather than an increased, length of stay over the past two decades. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment 4. A 23-year-old African-American woman is pregnant with her first child. Based on the statistics for infant mortality, which plan is most important for the nurse to implement? a. Perform a nutrition assessment. b. Refer the woman to a social worker. c. Advise the woman to see an obstetrician, not a midwife. d. Explain to the woman the importance of keeping her prenatal care appointments. ANS: D Consistent prenatal care is the best method of preventing or controlling risk factors associated with infant mortality. Nutritional status is an important modifiable risk factor, but a nutrition assessment is not the most important action a nurse should take in this situation. The patient may need assistance from a social worker at some time during her pregnancy, but a referral to a social worker is not the most important aspect the nurse should address at this time. If the woman has identifiable high risk problems, her health care may need to be provided by a physician. However, it cannot be assumed that all African-American women have high risk issues. In addition, advising the woman to see an obstetrician is not the most important aspect on which the nurse should focus at this time, and it is not appropriate for a nurse to advise or manage the type of care a patient is to receive. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application OBJ: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 5. During a prenatal intake interview, the nurse is in the process of obtaining an initial assessment of a 21-year-old Hispanic patient with limited English proficiency. It is important for the nurse to: a. use maternity jargon in order for the patient to become familiar with these terms. b. speak quickly and efficiently to expedite the visit. c. provide the patient with handouts. d. assess whether the patient understands the discussion. ANS: D Nurses contribute to health literacy by using simple, common words; avoiding jargon; and evaluating whether the patient understands the discussion. Speaking slowly and clearly and focusing on what is important increase understanding. Most patient education materials are written at too high a level for the average adult and may not be useful for a patient with limited English proficiency. NURSINGTB.COM MATERNAL CHILD NURSING CARE 6TH EDITION PERRY TEST BANKNURSINGTB.COM PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application OBJ: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 6. When managing health care for pregnant women at a prenatal clinic, the nurse should recognize that the most significant barrier to access to care is the pregnant woman’s: a. age. b. minority status. c. educational level. d. inability to pay. ANS: D The most significant barrier to health care access is the inability to pay for services; this is compounded by the fact that many physicians refuse to care for women who cannot pay. Although adolescent pregnant patients statistically receive less prenatal care, age is not the most significant barrier. Significant disparities in morbidity and mortality rates exist for minority women; however, minority status is not the most significant barrier to access of care. Disparities in educational level are associated with morbidity and mortality rates; however, educational level is not the most significant barrier to access of care. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge OBJ: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment 7. When the nurse is unsure about how to perform a patient care procedure, the best action would be to: a. ask another nurse. b. discuss the procedure with the patient’s physician. c. look up the procedure in a nursing textbook. d. consult the agency’s procedure manual and follow the guidelines for the procedure. ANS: D It is always best to follow the agency’s policies and procedures manual when seeking information on correct patient procedures. These policies should reflect the current standards of care and state guidelines. Each nurse is responsible for her own practice. Relying on another nurse may not always be safe practice. Each nurse is obligated to follow the standards of care for safe patient care delivery. Physicians are responsible for their own patient care activity. Nurses may follow safe orders from physicians, but they are also responsible for the activities that they as nurses are to carry out. Information provided in a nursing textbook is basic information for general knowledge. Furthermore, the information in a textbook may not reflect the current standard of care or individual state or hospital policies. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Client Needs: Physiologic Integrity 8. From the nurse’s perspective, what measure should be the focus of the health care system to reduce the rate of infant mortality further? a. Implementing programs to ensure women’s early participation in ongoing prenatal care. b. Increasing the length of stay in a hospital after vaginal birth from 2 to 3 days. NURSINGTB.COM MATERNAL CHILD NURSING CARE 6TH EDITION PERRY TEST BANKNURSINGTB.COM c. Expanding the number of neonatal intensive care units (NICUs). d. Mandating that all pregnant women receive care from an obstetrician. ANS: A Early prenatal care allows for early diagnosis and appropriate interventions to reduce the rate of infant mortality. An increased length of stay has been shown to foster improved self-care and parental education. However, it does not prevent the incidence of leading causes of infant mortality rates, such as low birth weight. Early prevention and diagnosis reduce the rate of infant mortality. NICUs offer care to high risk infants after they are born. Expanding the number of NICUs would offer better access for high risk care, but this factor is not the primary focus for further reduction of infant mortality rates. A mandate that all pregnant women receive obstetric care would be nearly impossible to enforce. Furthermore, certified nurse-midwives (CNMs) have demonstrated reliable, safe care for pregnant women. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 9. Alternative and complementary therapies: a. replace conventional Western modalities of treatment. b. are used by only a small number of American adults. c. recognize the value of patients’ input into their health care. d. focus primarily on the disease an individual is experiencing. ANS: C Many popular alternative healing modalities offer human-centered care based on philosophies that recognize the value of the patient’s input and honor the individual’s beliefs, values, and desires. Alternative and complementary therapies are part of an integrative approach to health care. An increasing number of American adults are seeking alternative and complementary health care options. Alternative healing modalities offer a holistic approach to health, focusing on the whole person, not just the disease. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension OBJ: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: Client Needs: Physiologic Integrity 10. A 38-year-old Hispanic woman delivered a 9-pound, 6-ounce girl vaginally after being in labor for 43 hours. The baby died 3 days later from sepsis. On what grounds would the woman potentially have a legitimate legal case for negligence? a. She is Hispanic. b. She delivered a girl. c. The standards of care were not met. d. She refused fetal monitoring. ANS: C Not meeting the standards of care is a legitimate factor for a case of negligence. The patient’s race is not a factor for a case of negligence. The infant’s gender is not a factor for a case of negligence. Although fetal monitoring is the standard of care, the patient has the right to refuse treatment. This refusal is not a case for negligence; however, informed consent should be properly obtained, and the patient should sign an against medical advice form for refusal of any treatment that is within the standard of care. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension OBJ: Nursing Process: Planning NURSINGTB.COM MATERNAL CHILD NURSING CARE 6TH EDITION PERRY TEST BANKNURSINGTB.COM MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 11. A newly graduated nurse is attempting to understand the reason for increasing health care spending in the United States. Her research finds that these costs are much higher compared with other developed countries as a result of: a. a higher rate of obesity among pregnant women. b. limited access to technology. c. increased usage of health care services along with lower prices. d. homogeneity of the population. ANS: A Health care is one of the fastest growing sectors of the U.S. economy. Currently, 17.5% of the gross domestic product is spent on health care. Higher spending in the United States compared with 12 other industrialized countries is related to higher prices and readily accessible technology along with greater obesity rates among women. More than one third of women in the United States are obese. Of the U.S. population, 16% is uninsured and has limited access to health care. Maternal morbidity and mortality are directly related to racial disparities. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis OBJ: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment 12. The term used to describe legal and professional responsibility for practice for maternity nurses is: a. collegiality. b. ethics. c. evaluation. d. accountability. ANS: D Accountability refers to legal and professional responsibility for practice. Collegiality refers to a working relationship with one’s colleagues. Ethics refers to a code to guide practice. Evaluation refers to examination of the effectiveness of interventions in relation to expected outcomes. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Understanding OBJ: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 13. Through the use of social media technology, nurses can link with other nurses who may share similar interests, insights about practice, and advocate for patients. The most concerning pitfall for nurses using this technology is: a. violation of patient privacy and confidentiality. b. institutions and colleagues may be cast in an unfavorable light. c. unintended negative consequences for using social media. d. lack of institutional policy governing online contact. ANS: A NURSINGTB.COM MATERNAL CHILD NURSING CARE 6TH EDITION PERRY TEST BANKNURSINGTB.COM The most significant pitfall for nurses using this technology is the violation of patient privacy and confidentiality. Furthermore, institutions and colleagues can be cast in unfavorable lights with negative consequences for those posting information. Nursing students have been expelled from school and nurses have been fired or reprimanded by their Board of Nursing for injudicious posts. The American Nurses Association has published six principles for social networking and nurses. All institutions should have policies guiding the use of social media, and nurses should be familiar with these guidelines. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment 14. An important development that affects maternity nursing is integrative health care, which: a. seeks to provide the same health care for all racial and ethnic groups. b. blends complementary and alternative therapies with conventional Western treatment. c. focuses on the disease or condition rather than the background of the patient. d. has been mandated by Congress. ANS: B Integrative health care tries to mix the old with the new at the discretion of the patient and health care providers. Integrative health care is a blending of new and traditional practices. Integrative health care focuses on the whole person, not just the disease or condition. U.S. law supports complementary and alternative therapies but does not mandate them. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Understanding OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 15. The nurse caring for a pregnant patient should be aware that the U.S. birth rate shows which trend? a. Births to unmarried women are more likely to have less favorable outcomes. b. Birth rates for women 40 to 44 years old are beginning to decline. c. Cigarette smoking among pregnant women continues to increase. d. The rates of maternal death owing to racial disparity are elevated in the United States. ANS: A Low-birth-weight infants and preterm birth are more likely because of the large number of teenagers in the unmarried group. Birth rates for women in their early 40s continue to increase. Fewer pregnant women smoke. In the United States, there is significant racial disparity in the rates of maternal death. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension OBJ: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment 16. Maternity nursing care that is based on knowledge gained through research and clinical trials is: a. derived from the Nursing Intervention Classification. b. known as evidence-based practice. c. at odds with the Cochrane School of traditional nursing. NURSINGTB.COM MATERNAL CHILD NURSING CARE 6TH EDITION PERRY TEST BANKNURSINGTB.COM d. an outgrowth of telemedicine. ANS: B Evidence-based practice is based on knowledge gained from research and clinical trials. The Nursing Intervention Classification is a method of standardizing language and categorizing care. Dr. Cochrane systematically reviewed research trials and is part of the evidence-based practice movement. Telemedicine uses communication technologies to support health care. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension OBJ: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity 17. The level of practice a reasonably prudent nurse provides is called: a. the standard of care. b. risk management. c. a sentinel event. d. failure to rescue. ANS: A Guidelines for standards of care are published by various professional nursing organizations. Risk management identifies risks and establishes preventive practices, but it does not define the standard of care. Sentinel events are unexpected negative occurrences. They do not establish the standard of care. Failure to rescue is an evaluative process for nursing, but it does not define the standard of care. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension OBJ: Nursing Process: Diagnosis MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment 18. While obtaining a detailed history from a woman who has recently emigrated from Somalia, the nurse realizes that the patient has undergone female genital mutilation (FGM). The nurse’s best response to this patient is: a. “this is a very abnormal practice and rarely seen in the United States.” b. “do you know who performed this so that it can be reported to the authorities?” c. “we will be able to restore your circumcision fully after delivery.” d. “the extent of your circumcision will affect the potential for complications.” ANS: D “The extent of your circumcision will affect the potential for complications” is the most appropriate response. The patient may experience pain, bleeding, scarring, or infection and may require surgery before childbirth. With the growing number of immigrants from countries where FGM is practiced, nurses will increasingly encounter women who have undergone the procedure. Although this practice is not prevalent in the United States, it is very common in many African and Middle Eastern countries for religious reasons. Responding with, “This is a very abnormal practice and rarely seen in the United States” is culturally insensitive. The infibulation may have occurred during infancy or childhood. The patient will have little to no recollection of the event. She would have considered this to be a normal milestone during her growth and development. The International Council of Nurses has spoken out against this procedure as harmful to a woman’s health. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application OBJ: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment NURSINGTB.COM MATERNAL CHILD NURSING CARE 6TH EDITION PERRY TEST BANKNURSINGTB.COM 19. To ensure patient safety, the practicing nurse must have knowledge of the current Joint Commission’s “Do Not Use” list of abbreviations. Which of the following is acceptable for use? a. q.o.d. or Q.O.D. b. MSO4 or MgSO4 c. International Unit d. Lack of a leading zero ANS: C The abbreviations “i.u.” and “I.U.” are no longer acceptable because they could be misread as “I.V.” or the number “10.” The abbreviation “q.o.d. or Q.O.D.” should be written out as “every other day.” The period after the “Q” could be mistaken for an “I”; the “o” could also be mistaken for an “i.” With MSO4 or MgSO4, it is too easy to confuse one medication for another. These medications are used for very different purposes and could put a patient at risk for an adverse outcome. They should be written as morphine sulfate and magnesium sulfate. The decimal point should never be missed before a number to avoid confusion (i.e., 0.4 rather than .4). PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application OBJ: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity 20. Healthy People 2020 has established national health priorities that focus on a number of maternal-child health indicators. Nurses are assuming greater roles in assessing family health and providing care across the perinatal continuum. Therefore, it is important for the nurse to be aware that significant progress has been made in: a. the reduction of fetal deaths and use of prenatal care. b. low birth weight and preterm birth. c. elimination of health disparities based on race. d. infant mortality and the prevention of birth defects. ANS: A Trends in maternal child health indicate that progress has been made in relation to reduced infant and fetal deaths and increased prenatal care. Notable gaps remain in the rates of low birth weight and preterm births. According to the March of Dimes, persistent disparities still exist between African-Americans and non-Hispanic Caucasians. Many of these negative outcomes are preventable through access to prenatal care and the use of preventive health practices. This demonstrates the need for comprehensive community-based care for all mothers, infants, and families. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. Which interventions would help alleviate the problems associated with access to health care for maternity patients? (Select all that apply.) a. Provide transportation to prenatal visits. b. Provide child care so that a pregnant woman may keep prenatal visits. c. Mandate that physicians make house calls. NURSINGTB.COM MATERNAL CHILD NURSING CARE 6TH EDITION PERRY TEST BANKNURSINGTB.COM d. Provide low-cost or no-cost health care insurance. e. Provide job training. ANS: A, B, D Lack of transportation to visits, lack of child care, and lack of affordable health insurance are prohibitive factors associated with lack of prenatal care. House calls are not a cost-effective approach to health care. Although job training may result in employment and income, the likelihood of significant changes during the time frame of the pregnancy is remote. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Implementation OBJ: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance MATCHING Medical errors are a leading cause of death in the United States. The National Quality Forum has recommended numerous safe practices that nursing can promote to reduce errors. Match each safe practice with the correct statement. a. Ask the patient to “teach back.” b. Comply with CDC guidelines. c. Ensure that information is documented in a timely manner. d. Promote interventions that will reduce patient risk. e. Reduce exposure to radiation. 1. Hand hygiene 2. Informed consent 3. Culture measurement, feedback, and intervention 4. Pediatric imaging 5. Patient care information 1. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment NOT: The National Quality Forum updated its publication Safe Practices for Better Healthcare in 2010, outlining 24 safe practices that should be used in all health care settings to reduce the risk of harm from the environment of care, processes, and systems. These are only a few of the recommended practices; however, nurses should be familiar with these guidelines. 2. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment NOT: The National Quality Forum updated its publication Safe Practices for Better Healthcare in 2010, outlining 24 safe practices that should be used in all health care settings to reduce the risk of harm from the environment of care, processes, and systems. These are only a few of the recommended practices; however, nurses should be familiar with these guidelines. 3. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment NOT: The National Quality Forum updated its publication Safe Practices for Better Healthcare in 2010, outlining 24 safe practices that should be used in all health care settings to reduce the risk of harm from the environment of care, processes, and systems. These are only a few of the recommended practices; however, nurses should be familiar with these guidelines. 4. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application NURSINGTB.COM MATERNAL CHILD NURSING CARE 6TH EDITION PERRY TEST BANKNURSINGTB.COM OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment NOT: The National Quality Forum updated its publication Safe Practices for Better Healthcare in 2010, outlining 24 safe practices that should be used in all health care settings to reduce the risk of harm from the environment of care, processes, and systems. These are only a few of the recommended practices; however, nurses should be familiar with these guidelines. 5. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment NOT: The National Quality Forum updated its publication Safe Practices for Better Healthcare in 2010, outlining 24 safe practices that should be used in all health care settings to reduce the risk of harm from the environment of care, processes, and systems. These are only a few of the recommended practices; however, nurses should be familiar with these guidelines. NURSINGTB.COM MATERNAL CHILD NURSING CARE 6TH EDITION PERRY TEST BAN  

Test Bank Foundations of Maternal-Newborn and Women’s Health Nursing 7th Edition

Chapter 01: Maternity and Women’s Health Care Today Foundations of Maternal-Newborn & Women’s Health Nursing, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A nurse educator is teaching a group of nursing students about the history of family-centered maternity care. Which statement should the nurse include in the teaching session? a. The Sheppard-Towner Act of 1921 promoted family-centered care. b. Changes in the pharmacologic management of labor prompted family-centered care. c. Demands by physicians for family involvement in childbirth increased the practice of family-centered care. d. Parental requests that infants be allowed to remain with them rather than in a nursery initiated the practice of family-centered care. ANS: D As research began to identify the benefits of early, extended parent-infant contact, parents began to insist that the infant remain with them. This gradually developed into the practice of rooming-in and finally to family-centered maternity care. The Sheppard-Towner Act provided funds for state-managed programs for mothers and children but did not promote family-centered care. The changes in pharmacologic management of labor were not a factor in family-centered maternity care. Family-centered care was a request by parents, not physicians. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application OBJ: Nursing Process Step: Planning MSC: Patient Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 2. Expectant parents ask a prenatal nurse educator, “Which setting for childbirth limits the amount of parent-infant interaction?” Which answer should the nurse provide for these parents in order to assist them in choosing an appropriate birth setting? a. Birth center b. Homebirth c. Traditional hospital birth d. Labor, birth, and recovery room ANS: C In the traditional hospital setting, the mother may see the infant for only short feeding periods, and the infant is cared for in a separate nursery. Birth centers are set up to allow an increase in parent-infant contact. Home births allow the greatest amount of parent-infant contact. The labor, birth, recovery, and postpartum room setting allows for increased parent-infant contact. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understanding OBJ: Nursing Process Step: Planning MSC: Patient Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 3. Which statement best describes the advantage of a labor, birth, recovery, and postpartum (LDRP) room? a. The family is in a familiar environment. b. They are less expensive than traditional hospital rooms. c. The infant is removed to the nursery to allow the mother to rest. d. The woman’s support system is encouraged to stay until discharge. ANS: D NURSINGTB.COM Foundations of Maternal-Newborn and Women's Health Nursing 7th Edition Murray Test BankNU RS IN GT B.CO M Sleeping equipment is provided in a private room. A hospital setting is never a familiar environment to new parents. An LDRP room is not less expensive than a traditional hospital room. The baby remains with the mother at all times and is not removed to the nursery for routine care or testing. The father or other designated members of the mother’s support system are encouraged to stay at all times. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understanding OBJ: Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: Patient Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 4. Which nursing intervention is an independent function of the professional nurse? a. Administering oral analgesics b. Requesting diagnostic studies c. Teaching the patient perineal care d. Providing wound care to a surgical incision ANS: C Nurses are now responsible for various independent functions, including teaching, counseling, and intervening in nonmedical problems. Interventions initiated by the physician and carried out by the nurse are called dependent functions. Administrating oral analgesics is a dependent function; it is initiated by a physician and carried out by a nurse. Requesting diagnostic studies is a dependent function. Providing wound care is a dependent function; however, the physician prescribes the type of wound care through direct orders or protocol. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understanding OBJ: Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: Patient Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment 5. Which response by the nurse is the most therapeutic when the patient states, “I’m so afraid to have a cesarean birth”? a. “Everything will be OK.” b. “Don’t worry about it. It will be over soon.” c. “What concerns you most about a cesarean birth?” d. “The physician will be in later and you can talk to him.” ANS: C The response, “What concerns you most about a cesarean birth” focuses on what the patient is saying and asks for clarification, which is the most therapeutic response. The response, “Everything will be ok” is belittling the patient’s feelings. The response, “Don’t worry about it. It will be over soon” will indicate that the patient’s feelings are not important. The response, “The physician will be in later and you can talk to him” does not allow the patient to verbalize her feelings when she wishes to do that. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application OBJ: Nursing Process Step: Implementation MSC: Patient Needs: Psychosocial Integrity 6. In which step of the nursing process does the nurse determine the appropriate interventions for the identified nursing diagnosis? a. Planning b. Evaluation c. Assessment d. Intervention ANS: A NURSINGTB.COM Foundations of Maternal-Newborn and Women's Health Nursing 7th Edition Murray Test BankNU RS IN GT B.CO M The third step in the nursing process involves planning care for problems that were identified during assessment. The evaluation phase is determining whether the goals have been met. During the assessment phase, data are collected. The intervention phase is when the plan of care is carried out. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understanding OBJ: Nursing Process Step: Planning MSC: Patient Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment 7. Which goal is most appropriate for the collaborative problem of wound infection? a. The patient will not exhibit further signs of infection. b. Maintain the patient’s fluid intake at 1000 mL/8 hour. c. The patient will have a temperature of 98.6F within 2 days. d. Monitor the patient to detect therapeutic response to antibiotic therapy. ANS: D In a collaborative problem, the goal should be nurse-oriented and reflect the nursing interventions of monitoring or observing. Monitoring for complications such as further signs of infection is an independent nursing role. Intake and output is an independent nursing role. Monitoring a patient’s temperature is an independent nursing role. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application OBJ: Nursing Process Step: Planning MSC: Patient Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment 8. Which nursing intervention is written correctly? a. Force fluids as necessary. b. Observe interaction with the infant. c. Encourage turning, coughing, and deep breathing. d. Assist to ambulate for 10 minutes at 8 AM, 2 PM, and 6 PM. ANS: D Interventions might not be carried out if they are not detailed and specific. “Force fluids” is not specific; it does not state how much or how often. Encouraging the patient to turn, cough, and breathe deeply is not detailed or specific. Observing interaction with the infant does not state how often this procedure should be done. Assisting the patient to ambulate for 10 minutes within a certain timeframe is specific. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application OBJ: Nursing Process Step: Planning MSC: Patient Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment 9. The patient makes the statement: “I’m afraid to take the baby home tomorrow.” Which response by the nurse would be the most therapeutic? a. “You’re afraid to take the baby home?” b. “Don’t you have a mother who can come and help?” c. “You should read the literature I gave you before you leave.” d. “I was scared when I took my first baby home, but everything worked out.” ANS: A NURSINGTB.COM Foundations of Maternal-Newborn and Women's Health Nursing 7th Edition Murray Test BankNU RS IN GT B.CO M This response uses reflection to show concern and open communication. The other choices are blocks to communication. Asking if the patient has a mother who can come and assist blocks further communication with the patient. Telling the patient to read the literature before leaving does not allow the patient to express her feelings further. Sharing your own birth experience is inappropriate. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application OBJ: Nursing Process Step: Implementation MSC: Patient Needs: Psychosocial Integrity 10. The nurse is writing an expected outcome for the nursing diagnosis—acute pain related to tissue trauma, secondary to vaginal birth, as evidenced by patient stating pain of 8 on a scale of 10. Which expected outcome is correctly stated for this problem? a. Patient will state that pain is a 2 on a scale of 10. b. Patient will have a reduction in pain after administration of the prescribed analgesic. c. Patient will state an absence of pain 1 hour after administration of the prescribed analgesic. d. Patient will state that pain is a 2 on a scale of 10, 1 hour after the administration of the prescribed analgesic. ANS: D The outcome should be patient-centered, measurable, realistic, and attainable and within a specified timeframe. Patient stating that her pain is now 2 on a scale of 10 lacks a timeframe. Patient having a reduction in pain after administration of the prescribed analgesic lacks a measurement. Patient stating an absence of pain 1 hour after the administration of prescribed analgesic is unrealistic. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application OBJ: Nursing Process Step: Planning MSC: Patient Needs: Physiologic Integrity 11. Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse identify as a priority for a patient in active labor? a. Risk for anxiety related to upcoming birth b. Risk for imbalanced nutrition related to NPO status c. Risk for altered family processes related to new addition to the family d. Risk for injury (maternal) related to altered sensations and positional or physical changes ANS: D The nurse should determine which problem needs immediate attention. Risk for injury is the problem that has the priority at this time because it is a safety problem. Risk for anxiety, imbalanced nutrition, and altered family processes are not the priorities at this time. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application OBJ: Nursing Process Step: Implementation MSC: Patient Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment

Test Bank for Fundamentals of Nursing Care 2nd Edition by Burton

Chapter 1 Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____    1.   A nurse is educating a nursing student about nursing history. The nurse explains that throughout ancient history, nursing care was provided by family members and
1.Nurses.
2.Physicians.
3.Male priests.
4.Female priests.
____    2.   A nurse is teaching a student about the history of nursing. The nurse informs the student that in 1836, the first school of nursing was established in Kaiserworth, Germany, by
1.Jean Watson.
2.Clara Barton.
3.Theodor Fliedner.
4.Florence Nightingale.
____    3.   A nurse teaches a student nurse that in 1897, the Nurses Associated Alumnae of the United States was formed in an effort to
1.Set standards and rules in nursing education.
2.Keep nurses aware of the newest medical information.
3.Oversee training to protect patients from incompetent nurses.
4.Keep nurses updated on the newest information about nursing education.
____    4.   The purpose of the National League for Nursing is to
1.Set standards and rules in nursing education.
2.Keep nurses aware of the newest medical information.
3.Oversee training to protect patients from incompetent nurses.
4.Keep nurses updated on the newest information about nursing education.
____    5.   All states required practical nurses to be licensed in the year
1.1940.
2.1945.
3.1950.
4.1955.
____    6.   The title licensed practical nurse (LPN) is used in all states except California and
1.Texas.
2.Maine.
3.Alaska.
4.Arizona.
____    7.   The National Council Licensure Examination for Practical Nursing (NCLEX-PN) is
1.Taken in order to practice as a nurse.
2.Given as an entrance examination for nursing school.
3.Individualized based on where an examinee resides.
4.Taken in order to practice as a certified nursing assistant (CNA).
____    8.   A nurse recruiter is seeking a graduate nurse who has been educated more extensively on management and leadership. The graduate nurse who most likely fits this description is the
1.Diploma nurse.
2.Associate degree nurse (ADN).
3.Licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN).
4.Baccalaureate degree nurse (BSN).
____    9.   Which statement about the Nurse Practice Act is accurate?
1.The Nurse Practice Act clarifies who can supervise a physician.
2.The Nurse Practice Act is the law that governs the actions of nurses.
3.The Nurse Practice Act is determined by the National League of Nursing.
4.The Nurse Practice Act specifies the tasks of the unlicensed assistive personnel.
____   10.   A nurse educates a nursing student about the Nurse Practice Act. The nursing student demonstrates understanding when he or she states:
1.“The Nurse Practice Act is the same in every state.”
2.“The Nurse Practice Act does not specify who can supervise a nurse.”
3.“The Nurse Practice Act is determined by the American Nurses Association.”
4.“The Nurse Practice Act establishes the scope of practice for each level of nurse.”
____   11.   While caring for a patient, a nurse performs a nursing action that is not within his or her scope of practice. The nurse has violated the
1.Ethics Committee.
2.Nurse Practice Act.
3.State Department of Health.
4.National League for Nursing Education.
____   12.   The Nurse Practice Act is enforced by the
1.State Board of Nursing.
2.County Health Department.
3.State Department of Health.
4.National League for Nursing.
____   13.   A nurse is caring for a resident in a long-term setting. The nurse best demonstrates a caring approach when
1.Performing all activities of daily living for the resident.
2.Asking the resident’s spouse to bring a family picture for the resident’s room.
3.Answering the resident’s questions quickly without allowing time for clarification.
4.Encouraging the resident’s spouse to decide which activities the resident should do.
____   14.   A nurse is caring for multiple patients on a medical unit. The nurse can best practice the art of nursing with an emphasis on caring by
1.Providing identical care to each patient.
2.Individualizing care provided to each patient.
3.Viewing the patients in terms of a cellular disorder.
4.Viewing the patients as seriously ill and needing a cure.
____   15.   A nurse is educating a student nurse about the responsibilities of a student nurse. The nurse recognizes that additional teaching is needed when the student nurse states:
1.“I will check laboratory results for my patients often.”
2.“I am responsible for noting abnormal assessment findings.”
3.“I will frequently check the patient’s chart for diagnostic test results.”
4.“It is not within my scope of practice to notify someone of abnormal findings.”
____   16.   A nursing instructor teaches a student nurse about the importance of joining a professional organization. The nursing instructor recognizes that further instruction is necessary when the student nurse states,
1.“Professional organizations allow me to have a collective voice.”
2.“Professional organizations limit my ability to influence laws and policies.”
3.“Professional behavior is demonstrated by joining a professional organization.”
4.“By joining a professional organization, I will have opportunities for leadership.”
 

Test Bank for Public Health Science and Nursing Practice Caring For Populations by Savage

Chapter 10: Mental Health MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1.According to Healthy People 2020, which of the following are characteristics of mental health? Select all that apply.
A.Engaging in productive activities
B.Having fulfilling relationships
C.Experiencing alterations in thinking
D.Adapting to change
E.Coping with challenges
ANS: A, B, D, E Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders. pp. 225-226 Heading: Introduction Integrated Processes: N/A Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Knowledge [Remembering] Concept: Promoting Health Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
1.Mental health is a state of successful performance of mental function, including engagement in productive activities.
2.Mental health is a state of successful performance of mental function, including being able to form fulfilling relationships with other people.
3.This is incorrect; it is an example of a mental disorder. Mental disorders are health conditions that are characterized by alterations in thinking, mood, or behavior that are associated with distress or impaired functioning.
4.Mental health is a state of successful performance of mental function, including the ability to adapt to change.
5.Mental health is a state of successful performance of mental function, including the ability to cope with challenges.
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health MULTIPLE CHOICE 2.In 2010, approximately how many people in the United States reported experiencing mental disorders in the previous year?
A.15%
B.50%
C.30%
D.25%
ANS: D Objective: 1. Define the burden of disease related to mental disorders using current epidemiological frameworks. pp. 226-227 Heading: Epidemiology of Mental Disorders Integrated Processes: N/A Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Comprehension [Understanding] Concept: Promoting Health Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
AThis is incorrect. In the United States in 2010 an estimated 25% of adults reported having mental disorders in the previous year.
BThis is incorrect. In the United States in 2010 an estimated 25% of adults reported having mental disorders in the previous year.
CThis is incorrect. In the United States in 2010 an estimated 25% of adults reported having mental disorders in the previous year.
DIn the United States in 2010 an estimated 25% of adults reported having mental disorders in the previous year.
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health 3.A student nurse is studying stress and mental health. The student nurse learns that ____ is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events.
A.Intervention
B.Support
C.Resilience
D.Therapy
ANS: C Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders. pp. 229-231 Heading: Protective Factors: Building Resilience Integrated Processes: Teaching/Learning Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Trauma; Stress; Promoting Health; Nursing Roles Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
AThis is incorrect. Resilience is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events. Preventive and treatment interventions are useful tools to build on an individual’s natural resilience to promote positive outcomes.
BThis is incorrect. Resilience is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events. Support from family, friends, and community is an important part of strengthening an individual’s resilience.
CResilience is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events.
DThis is incorrect. Resilience is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events. Therapy is an important part of an overall treatment plan, in conjunction with intervention, support, and an individual’s capacity for resilience.
PTS: 1 CON: Trauma | Stress | Promoting Health | Nursing Roles 4.____ addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder.
A.Indicated prevention
B.Selective prevention
C.Universal prevention
D.Both 1 and 2
ANS: A Objective: 4. Apply current evidence-based population level interventions to the prevention of mental disorders and the promotion of optimal mental health for communities and populations. pp. 232-233 Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Institute of Medicine Model of Prevention Integrated Processes: Nursing Process Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Comprehension [Understanding] Concept: Promoting Health Difficulty: Moderate
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AIndicated prevention addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder. The purpose of indicated techniques is to delay or reduce the severity of a mental disorder.
BSelective prevention includes interventions provided to specific subgroups that are known to be at high risk for mental disorders owing to biological, psychological, social, or environmental factors but that have not yet been diagnosed with mental disorders. High-risk subgroups include but are not limited to those with a family history of mental disorders, history of adverse childhood events, or victims of violence.
CUniversal prevention refers to prevention interventions provided to the entire population, not just those who may be at risk. The interventions include but are not limited to public service announcements provided to the public at large through billboards, media messages (print and electronic), or general health education programs.
DIndicated prevention addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder. The purpose of indicated techniques is to delay or reduce the severity of a mental disorder. Selective prevention includes interventions provided to specific subgroups that are known to be at high risk for mental disorders owing to biological, psychological, social, or environmental factors but that have not yet been diagnosed with mental disorders. High-risk subgroups include but are not limited to those with a family history of mental disorders, history of adverse childhood events, or victims of violence.
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health 5.The public health nurse (PHN) recognizes that which of the following are used as screening tools for depression?
A.Patient Health Questionnaire 2
B.Center for Epidemiological Studies Depression Scale (CESD-10)
C.Brief Symptom Checklist-18 of the My Mood Monitor (M-3)
D.Both 1 and 2
ANS: D Objective: 5. Describe systems approaches to the promotion of mental health and the prevention and treatment of mental health disorders. p. 232 Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Measure of Mental Health: Health-Related Quality of Life Integrated Processes: Nursing Process Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Promoting Health; Mood; Assessment Difficulty: Moderate
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ATools to screen for depression include the Patient Health Questionnaire 2 and the CESD-10.
BTools to screen for depression include the Patient Health Questionnaire 2 and the CESD-10.
CThis is incorrect. Tools to screen for depression include the Patient Health Questionnaire 2 and the CESD-10. Screening tools for anxiety disorders include the Brief Symptom Checklist-18 of the My Mood Monitor (M-3).
DTools to screen for depression include the Patient Health Questionnaire 2 and the CESD-10.
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health | Mood | Assessment 6.During a course on mental disorders, a PHN learns that the term serious mental illness (SMI) refers to diagnosable mental disorders that may disrupt a person’s ability to function and may qualify that person for support services. The PHN also notes that the mental disorders that can lead to SMI include:
A.Mild depression
B.Panic disorder
C.Schizophrenia
D.Both 2 and 3
ANS: D Objective: 1. Define the burden of disease related to mental disorders using current epidemiological frameworks. pp. 225-226 Heading: Introduction Integrated Processes: Teaching/Learning Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Cognition; Mood; Stress; Promoting Health; Nursing Roles Difficulty: Moderate
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AThis is incorrect. Major depression, however, is one of the mental disorders that can lead to SMI.
BBoth panic disorder and schizophrenia, among other mental disorders, can lead to SMI.
CBoth schizophrenia and panic disorder, among other mental disorders, can lead to SMI.
DThe mental disorders that can lead to SMI include major depression, panic disorder, schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD), post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), and borderline personality disorder.
PTS: 1 CON: Cognition | Mood | Stress | Promoting Health | Nursing Roles 7.While studying the prevalence of mental health disorders worldwide, a PHN learns about the World Mental Health Survey, which is used to determine estimates of human capital costs and prevalence of mental disorders in a wide range of countries. The survey was developed by
A.The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
B.The World Health Organization (WHO)
C.The Institute of Medicine (IOM)
D.The World Health Assembly
ANS: B Objective: 1. Define the burden of disease related to mental disorders using current epidemiological frameworks. p. 227 Heading: Epidemiology of Mental Disorders > Surveillance of Mental Health Disorders Integrated Processes: Teaching/Learning Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Promoting Health; Nursing Roles Difficulty: Moderate
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AThis is incorrect. WHO developed the World Mental Health Survey to estimate human capital costs and mental disorders prevalence on a global scale. The CDC conducts many types of surveys on the prevalence of mental disorders but the organization did not develop the World Mental Health Survey.
BThe WHO developed the World Mental Health Survey to estimate human capital costs and mental disorders prevalence on a global scale.
CThis is incorrect. WHO developed the World Mental Health Survey to estimate human capital costs and mental disorders prevalence on a global scale. The IOM is involved in screening for mental health disorders and addresses the need for appropriate behavioral health treatment in its report, Improving the Quality of Health Care for Mental and Substance-Use Conditions: Quality Chasm Series.
DThis is incorrect. WHO developed the World Mental Health Survey to estimate human capital costs and mental disorders prevalence on a global scale. The World Health Assembly issued a resolution on mental health that aims to reduce the global burden of mental disorders and improve overall mental health worldwide.
PTS: 1 CON: Promoting Health | Nursing Roles 8.Which ethnic group has the highest 12-month prevalence of a mental disorder?
A.Hispanics
B.African Americans
C.Asian Americans
D.Non-Hispanic whites
ANS: D Objective: 1. Define the burden of disease related to mental disorders using current epidemiological frameworks. pp. 227-228 Heading: Epidemiology of Mental Disorders > Prevalence of Mental Health Disorders Integrated Processes: N/A Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Knowledge [Remembering] Concept: Promoting Health Difficulty: Moderate
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AThis is incorrect. Non-Hispanic whites have the highest 12-month prevalence rate for mental disorders at 21% compared with 16% for Hispanics.
BThis is incorrect. Non-Hispanic whites have the highest 12-month prevalence rate for mental disorders at 21% compared with 15% for African Americans.
CThis is incorrect. Non-Hispanic whites have the highest 12-month prevalence rate for mental disorders at 21% compared with 9% for Asian Americans.
DNon-Hispanic whites have the highest 12-month prevalence rate for mental disorders at 21%.
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health 9.A PHN learns in a behavioral health class that the relationship between physiology and mental health plays an important role in mental disorders. Which of the following physiological factors may contribute to the development of mental disorders?
A.Conditions that affect brain chemistry, such as medication side effects or toxins
B.Physical trauma
C.1 and 2
D.Unstable family life
ANS: C Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders. pp. 228-229 Heading: Behavioral, Biological, Environmental, and Socioeconomic Risk Factors > Individual Level Risk Factors for Mental Disorders Integrated Processes: Teaching/Learning Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Application] Concept: Cognition; Trauma; Promoting Health Difficulty: Moderate
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ABoth conditions that affect brain chemistry and physical trauma are the physiological factors that may contribute to the development of mental disorders.
BBoth physical trauma and conditions that affect brain chemistry are physiological factors that may contribute to the development of mental disorders.
CConditions that affect brain chemistry and physical trauma are two of the physiological factors that may contribute to the development of mental disorders.
DThis is incorrect. Conditions that affect brain chemistry and physical trauma are two of the physiological factors that may contribute to the development of mental disorders. An unstable family life is not a physiological factor, although it may also contribute to the development of mental disorders.
PTS:1CON:Cognition | Trauma | Promoting Health 10.Which of the following community environment factors play a role in the development of mental disorders?
A.Living in high crime areas
B.Poverty
C.Both 1 and 2
D.Family instability
ANS: C Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders. p. 229 Heading: Behavioral, Biological, Environmental, and Socioeconomic Risk Factors > Community-Level Risk Factors for Mental Disorders Integrated Processes: N/A Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Comprehension [Understanding] Concept: Promoting Health Difficulty: Easy
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ALiving in high crime areas is a factor, along with poverty.
BBoth poverty and living in high crime areas play a role in the development of mental disorders.
CBoth poverty and living in high crime areas play a role in the development of mental disorders.
DThis is incorrect. Although family instability often contributes to the development of mental disorders, it is not considered a community environment factor.
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health 11.____ is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable.
A.Indicated prevention
B.Stigma
C.Risk factors
D.Transinstitutionalization
ANS: B Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders. pp. 231-232 Heading: Culture, Stigma, and Mental Health Disorders Integrated Processes: N/A Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Comprehension [Understanding] Concept: Promoting Health Difficulty: Moderate
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AThis is incorrect. Stigma is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable. Indicated prevention addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder.
BStigma is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable.
CThis is incorrect. Stigma is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable. Risk factors increase an individual’s chance of developing a mental disorder.
DThis is incorrect. Stigma is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable. Transinstitutionalization refers to the growing number of mentally ill persons who are homeless, in jail, in shelters, or in other facilities instead of being home or in a hospital.
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health 12.A nurse interested in working with persons with mental disorders who live in poverty understands that the most effective treatment involves multiple sectors of society, such as government agencies, grass roots groups, nonprofits, and businesses, working in tandem. This interrelationship is called:
A.Indicated prevention
B.Intersectoral strategies
C.Health-Related Quality of Life
D.Institute of Medicine Model of Prevention
ANS: B Objective: 4. Apply current evidence-based population level interventions to the prevention of mental disorders and the promotion of optimal mental health for communities and populations. p. 233 Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Promotion of Mental Health and Policy Integrated Processes: Nursing Process Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Promoting Health; Collaboration Difficulty: Moderate
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AThis is incorrect. Intersectoral strategies engage more than one sector of society with a shared interest such as government agencies, grass roots citizens groups, nonprofits, and businesses. Indicated prevention addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder.
BIntersectoral strategies engage more than one sector of society with a shared interest such as government agencies, grass roots citizens groups, nonprofits, and businesses.
CThis is incorrect. Intersectoral strategies engage more than one sector of society with a shared interest such as government agencies, grass roots citizens groups, nonprofits, and businesses. Health-Related Quality of Life is the self-perceived impact of physical and emotional health on overall quality of life.
DThis is incorrect. Intersectoral strategies engage more than one sector of society with a shared interest such as government agencies, grass roots citizens groups, nonprofits, and businesses. The Institute of Medicine Model of Prevention is a framework for mental disorders that clearly separates prevention into three categories with specific interventions at each level.
PTS: 1 CON: Promoting Health | Collaboration 13.A recent graduate nurse working in an urban labor and delivery unit had a patient who experienced a difficult labor. The mother, suffering from postpartum depression (PPD), committed suicide a year after giving birth. Although the nurse knew the basics about PPD, the nurse immediately studied the condition in depth and learned that PPD:
A.Can be triggered by a massive hormone drop following delivery
B.Can intensify to cause delusions
C.Occurs soon after delivery
D.All of the above
ANS: D Objective: 4. Apply current evidence-based population level interventions to the prevention of mental disorders and the promotion of optimal mental health for communities and populations. pp. 233-235 Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Secondary Prevention: Screening for Mental Disorders Integrated Processes: Nursing Process Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Pregnancy; Mood; Violence; Promoting Health; Nursing Roles Difficulty: Moderate
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APPD can be triggered by a massive post-delivery hormone drop, intensify enough to cause delusions, and occur soon after delivery.
BPPD can be triggered by a massive post-delivery hormone drop, intensify enough to cause delusions, and occur soon after delivery.
CPPD can be triggered by a massive post-delivery hormone drop, intensify enough to cause delusions, and occur soon after delivery.
DPPD can be triggered by a massive post-delivery hormone drop, intensify enough to cause delusions, and occur soon after delivery.
PTS: 1 CON: Pregnancy | Mood | Violence | Promoting Health | Nursing Roles 14.A nurse working in labor and delivery requested permission from the nurse manager to conduct a quality improvement project to screen patients that might be susceptible to PPD. After completing the project, which of the following screening guidelines did the unit incorporate?
A.All patients will be screened for PPD when they are admitted to the labor and delivery unit.
B.Patients at high risk are referred to the attending obstetrician.
C.Before being discharged, all new mothers will complete a questionnaire specific to PPD symptoms.
D.All of the above
ANS: D Objective: Apply current evidence-based population level interventions to the prevention of mental disorders and the promotion of optimal mental health for communities and populations. pp. 233-235 Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Secondary Prevention: Screening for Mental Disorders Integrated Processes: Nursing Process Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Pregnancy; Mood; Promoting Health; Assessment; Quality Improvement Difficulty: Moderate
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AThis is incorrect. Screening, high-risk referrals to the attending obstetrician and completion of a PPD symptom questionnaire were all incorporated.
BThis is incorrect. Screening, high-risk referrals to the attending obstetrician and completion of a PPD symptom questionnaire were all incorporated.
CThis is incorrect. Screening, high-risk referrals to the attending obstetrician and completion of a PPD symptom questionnaire were all incorporated.
DScreening, high-risk referrals to the attending obstetrician and completion of a PPD symptom questionnaire were all incorporated.
PTS:1 CON: Pregnancy | Mood | Promoting Health | Assessment | Quality Improvement 15.A PHN treats a patient who may be depressed. To verify suspicions, the PHN checks ____, the definitive clinical guide for diagnosing mental disorders and providing consistency and accuracy in the screening for mental disorders.
A.The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5)
B.The Center for Epidemiological Studies Depression Scale (CESD-10)
C.Patient Health Questionnaire 2
D.Brief System Checklist-18 of the My Mood Monitor
ANS: A
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