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Test bank for Health Assessment for Nursing Practice 6th Edition Wilson

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Test Bank for Health Assessment for Nursing Practice 6th Edition Wilson

Chapter 01: Introduction to Health Assessment
Wilson: Health Assessment for Nursing Practice, 6th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. A patient comes to the emergency department and tells the triage nurse that he is “having a
heart attack.” What is the nurse’s top priority at this time?
a. Determine the patient’s personal data and insurance coverage.
b. Ask the patient to take a seat in the waiting room until his name is called.
c. Request that a nurse collect data for a comprehensive history.
d. Ask a nurse to start a focused assessment of this patient now.
ANS: D
The nurse needs to begin an assessment as soon as possible that is focused on this patient’s
cardiovascular system. The type of health assessment performed by the nurse is also driven by
patient need. Personal data and insurance information will be obtained, but in this situation,
these data can wait until after the patient is assessed. Based also on Maslow’s hierarchy of
needs, physiologic needs take precedence. Rather than asking the patient to wait, the nurse
needs to begin data collection, such as vital signs, immediately to determine the patient’s
health status. Complications can be prevented if an immediate assessment is made to analyze
the patient’s symptoms. A comprehensive history is not indicated in this situation at this time.
Some subjective data will be collected, such as allergies and medical history related to
cardiovascular disease. Eyes, ears, or a complete musculoskeletal or mental health assessment
is not a priority at this time.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply REF: Box 1-3 | p. 3
TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment
MSC: NCLEX Patient Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care:
Establishing Priorities
2. Which situation illustrates a screening assessment?
a. A patient visits an obstetric clinic for the first time and the nurse conducts a
detailed history and physical examination.
b. A hospital sponsors a health fair at a local mall and provides cholesterol and blood
pressure checks to mall patrons.
c. The nurse in an urgent care center checks the vital signs of a patient who is
complaining of leg pain.
d. A patient newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus comes to test his fasting blood
glucose level.
ANS: B
A health fair at a local mall that provides cholesterol and blood pressure checks is an example
of a screening assessment focused on disease detection. A detailed history and physical
examination conducted during a first-time visit to an obstetric clinic is an example of a
comprehensive assessment. Assessing a patient complaining of leg pain in the triage area of
an urgent care center is an example of a problem-based/focused assessment. A patient’s return
appointment 1 month after today’s office visit to report fasting blood glucose levels is an
example of an episodic or follow-up assessment.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand REF: Box 1-3 | p. 3
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TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment
MSC: NCLEX Patient Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Health Screening
3. For which person is a screening assessment indicated?
a. The person who had abdominal surgery yesterday
b. The person who is unaware of his high serum glucose levels
c. The person who is being admitted to a long-term care facility
d. The person who is beginning rehabilitation after a knee replacement
ANS: B
A screening assessment is performed for the purpose of disease detection. In this case this
person may have diabetes mellitus. A shift assessment is most appropriate for the person who
is recovering in the hospital from surgery. A comprehensive assessment is performed during
admission to a facility to obtain a detailed history and complete physical examination. An
episodic or follow-up assessment is performed after knee replacement to evaluate the outcome
of the procedure.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand REF: Box 1-3 | p. 3
TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment
MSC: NCLEX Patient Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care:
Establishing Priorities
4. For which person is a shift assessment indicated?
a. The person who had abdominal surgery yesterday
b. The person who is unaware of his high serum glucose levels
c. The person who is being admitted to a long-term care facility
d. The person who is beginning rehabilitation after a knee replacement
ANS: A
A shift assessment is most appropriate for the person who is recovering in the hospital from
surgery. A screening assessment is performed for the purpose of disease detection, in this case
diabetes mellitus. A comprehensive assessment is performed during admission to a facility to
obtain a detailed history and complete physical examination. An episodic or follow-up
assessment is performed after knee replacement to evaluate the outcome of the procedure.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand REF: Box 1-3 | p. 4
TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment
MSC: NCLEX Patient Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care:
Establishing Priorities
5. For which person is a comprehensive assessment indicated?
a. The person who had abdominal surgery yesterday
b. The person who is unaware of his high serum glucose levels
c. The person who is being admitted to a long-term care facility
d. The person who is beginning rehabilitation after a knee replacement
ANS: C
A comprehensive assessment is performed during admission to a facility to obtain a detailed
history and complete physical examination. A shift assessment is most appropriate for the
person who is recovering in the hospital from surgery. A screening assessment is performed
for the purpose of disease detection, in this case diabetes mellitus. An episodic or follow-up
assessment is performed after knee replacement to evaluate the outcome of the procedure.
NURSINGTB.COM
Health Assessment for Nursing Practice 6th Edition Wilson Test BankNU
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IN
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B.CO
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DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand REF: Box 1-3 | p. 3
TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment
MSC: NCLEX Patient Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care:
Establishing Priorities
6. For which person is an episodic or follow-up assessment indicated?
a. The person who had abdominal surgery yesterday
b. The person who is unaware of his high serum glucose levels
c. The person who is being admitted to a long-term care facility
d. The person who is beginning rehabilitation after a knee replacement
ANS: D
An episodic or follow-up assessment is performed after the knee replacement to evaluate the
outcome of the procedure. A shift assessment is most appropriate for the person who is
recovering in the hospital from surgery. A screening assessment is performed for the purpose
of disease detection, in this case diabetes mellitus. A comprehensive assessment is performed
during admission to a facility to obtain a detailed history and complete physical examination.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand REF: Box 1-3 | p. 3
TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment
MSC: NCLEX Patient Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care:
Establishing Priorities
7. Which is an example of data a nurse collects during a physical examination?
a. The patient’s lack of hair and shiny skin over both shins
b. The patient’s stated concern about lack of money for prescriptions
c. The patient’s complaints of tingling sensations in the feet
d. The patient’s mother’s statements that the patient is very nervous lately
ANS: A
The lack of hair and shiny skin over both shins are objective data or signs that are part of the
physical examination. A patient’s concerns about lack of money are subjective data and are
part of the health history. A patient’s complaints of tingling sensations in the feet are
subjective data and are part of the health history. A patient’s family statements are considered
secondary data, are subjective data, and are part of the health history.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply REF: Box 1-3 | p. 3
TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment
MSC: NCLEX Patient Needs: Physiologic Integrity: Reduction of Risk Potential: System Specific
Assessments
8. The nurse documents which information in the patient’s history?
a. The patient’s skin feels warm to the touch.
b. The patient is scratching his arm.
c. The patient’s temperature is 100° F.
d. The patient complains of itching.
ANS: D
NURSINGTB.COM
Health Assessment for Nursing Practice 6th Edition Wilson Test BankNU
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A patient’s complaint of itching is subjective information, which means it is a symptom and is
documented in the history. The patient’s warm skin is objective information gathered by the
nurse through palpation, is also a sign, and is documented in the physical examination. The
patient’s scratching is objective information gathered by the nurse through observation, is also
a sign, and is documented in the physical examination. The patient’s elevated temperature is
objective information gathered by the nurse through measurement, is also a sign, and is
documented in the physical examination.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply REF: p. 1 | p. 2 and Box 1-2
TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment
MSC: NCLEX Patient Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care:
Establishing Priorities
9. Which patient information does the nurse document in the patient’s physical assessment?
a. Slurred speech
b. Immunizations
c. Smoking habit
d. Allergies
ANS: A
Slurred speech should be noticed by the nurse and documented as objective data in the
physical assessment. Data on immunizations are collected from the patient, are subjective, and
documented in the history. A smoking habit is information that comes from the patient,
making it subjective data that is documented in the history. Allergies are information that
come from the patient, making it subjective data that is documented in the history.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply REF: p. 1-2 and Box 1-2
TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment
MSC: NCLEX Patient Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care:
Establishing Priorities
10. After collecting the data, the nurse begins data analysis with which action?
a. Clustering data
b. Documenting subjective data
c. Reporting information to other health team members
d. Documenting objective information
ANS: A
After collecting data, the nurse organizes or clusters the data so that the problems appear more
clearly. To cluster data, the nurse interprets the assessment data collected. Documenting
subjective data is necessary for the medical record, but does not provide analysis. Before
reporting data to health team members, the nurse clusters and interprets data. Documenting
objective data is necessary for the medical record, but does not provide analysis.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand REF: p. 4
TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment
MSC: NCLEX Patient Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care:
Establishing Priorities
11. Which activity illustrates the concept of primary prevention?
a. Monthly breast self-examination
b. Annual cervical (Papanicolaou test) examination
NURSINGTB.COM
Health Assessment for Nursing Practice 6th Edition Wilson Test BankNU
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c. Education about living with asthma
d. Exercising three times a week
ANS: D
Exercising is an example of primary prevention that prevents disease from developing by
maintaining a healthy lifestyle. Monthly breast self-examination is an example of secondary
prevention and screening efforts to promote early detection of disease. Annual cervical
(Papanicolaou test) examination is an example of secondary prevention and screening efforts
to promote early detection of disease. Teaching a patient how to live with a chronic disease
such as asthma is an example of tertiary prevention directed toward minimizing the disability
from chronic disease and helping the patient maximize his or her health.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand REF: Table 1-1 | p. 5-6
TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment
MSC: NCLEX Patient Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Health Promotion Programs
12. A nurse is teaching a patient how to manage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
This intervention is an example of which level of health promotion?
a. Primary prevention
b. Secondary prevention
c. Tertiary prevention
d. Risk factor prevention
ANS: C
Teaching a patient how to live with a chronic disease is an example of tertiary prevention
directed toward minimizing the disability from chronic disease and helping the patient
maximize his or her health. The focus of primary prevention is to prevent a disease from
developing by promoting a healthy lifestyle. Secondary prevention consists of efforts to
promote early detection of disease. Risk factor prevention is part of primary prevention that
focuses on preventing disease by managing risk factors.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand REF: Table 1-1 | p. 5-6
TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment
MSC: NCLEX Patient Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Health Promotion Programs
13. Which activity illustrates the concept of secondary prevention?
a. Annual mammogram
b. Nutrition classes on low-fat cooking
c. Education on living with diabetes mellitus
d. Cardiac rehabilitation after coronary artery bypass surgery
ANS: A
A mammogram screens for breast cancer and is an example of secondary prevention to
promote early detection of disease. Nutrition classes are an example of primary prevention to
prevent a disease from developing by promoting a healthy lifestyle. Education about diabetes
mellitus is an example of tertiary prevention directed toward minimizing the disability from
chronic disease and helping the patient maximize his or her health. Cardiac rehabilitation after
coronary artery bypass surgery is an example of tertiary prevention directed toward
minimizing the disability from chronic disease and helping the patient maximize his or her
health.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand REF: Table 1-1 | p. 5-6
NURSINGTB.COM
Health Assessment for Nursing Practice 6th Edition Wilson Test BankNU
RS
IN
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B.CO
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TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment
MSC: NCLEX Patient Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Health Promotion Programs
14. A community organization sponsors a health fair to increase awareness of colon cancer. At the
health fair, colorectal cancer screening kits are distributed, and health care professionals
answer questions, take blood pressure, and distribute literature. What level of health
prevention is being implemented by this community organization?
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary
d. Risk factor
ANS: B
Secondary prevention consists of screening efforts to promote early detection of disease—in
this scenario, colorectal cancer and hypertension. Primary prevention is focused on preventing
disease from developing through the promotion of a healthy lifestyle. Tertiary prevention is
directed toward minimizing the disability from chronic disease and helping the patient
maximize his or her health. Risk factor prevention is part of primary prevention that focuses
on preventing disease by managing risk factors.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply REF: Table 1-1 | p. 5-6
TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment
MSC: NCLEX Patient Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Health Promotion Programs
NURSINGTB.COM
Health Assessment for Nursing Practice 6th Edition Wilson Test Ban

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DescriptionEdition: 6th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test Bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadEdition: 6th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadBy: Ackley Edition: 11th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Solution manual Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadBy: Hockenberry Edition: 10th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadBy: Stanhope Edition: 3rd Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadEdition: 9th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant Download
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Test Bank for Health Assessment for Nursing Practice 6th Edition Wilson

Chapter 01: Introduction to Health Assessment Wilson: Health Assessment for Nursing Practice, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A patient comes to the emergency department and tells the triage nurse that he is “having a heart attack.” What is the nurse’s top priority at this time? a. Determine the patient’s personal data and insurance coverage. b. Ask the patient to take a seat in the waiting room until his name is called. c. Request that a nurse collect data for a comprehensive history. d. Ask a nurse to start a focused assessment of this patient now. ANS: D The nurse needs to begin an assessment as soon as possible that is focused on this patient’s cardiovascular system. The type of health assessment performed by the nurse is also driven by patient need. Personal data and insurance information will be obtained, but in this situation, these data can wait until after the patient is assessed. Based also on Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, physiologic needs take precedence. Rather than asking the patient to wait, the nurse needs to begin data collection, such as vital signs, immediately to determine the patient’s health status. Complications can be prevented if an immediate assessment is made to analyze the patient’s symptoms. A comprehensive history is not indicated in this situation at this time. Some subjective data will be collected, such as allergies and medical history related to cardiovascular disease. Eyes, ears, or a complete musculoskeletal or mental health assessment is not a priority at this time. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply REF: Box 1-3 | p. 3 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Patient Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care: Establishing Priorities 2. Which situation illustrates a screening assessment? a. A patient visits an obstetric clinic for the first time and the nurse conducts a detailed history and physical examination. b. A hospital sponsors a health fair at a local mall and provides cholesterol and blood pressure checks to mall patrons. c. The nurse in an urgent care center checks the vital signs of a patient who is complaining of leg pain. d. A patient newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus comes to test his fasting blood glucose level. ANS: B A health fair at a local mall that provides cholesterol and blood pressure checks is an example of a screening assessment focused on disease detection. A detailed history and physical examination conducted during a first-time visit to an obstetric clinic is an example of a comprehensive assessment. Assessing a patient complaining of leg pain in the triage area of an urgent care center is an example of a problem-based/focused assessment. A patient’s return appointment 1 month after today’s office visit to report fasting blood glucose levels is an example of an episodic or follow-up assessment. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand REF: Box 1-3 | p. 3 NURSINGTB.COM Health Assessment for Nursing Practice 6th Edition Wilson Test BankNU RS IN GT B.CO M TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Patient Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Health Screening 3. For which person is a screening assessment indicated? a. The person who had abdominal surgery yesterday b. The person who is unaware of his high serum glucose levels c. The person who is being admitted to a long-term care facility d. The person who is beginning rehabilitation after a knee replacement ANS: B A screening assessment is performed for the purpose of disease detection. In this case this person may have diabetes mellitus. A shift assessment is most appropriate for the person who is recovering in the hospital from surgery. A comprehensive assessment is performed during admission to a facility to obtain a detailed history and complete physical examination. An episodic or follow-up assessment is performed after knee replacement to evaluate the outcome of the procedure. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand REF: Box 1-3 | p. 3 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Patient Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care: Establishing Priorities 4. For which person is a shift assessment indicated? a. The person who had abdominal surgery yesterday b. The person who is unaware of his high serum glucose levels c. The person who is being admitted to a long-term care facility d. The person who is beginning rehabilitation after a knee replacement ANS: A A shift assessment is most appropriate for the person who is recovering in the hospital from surgery. A screening assessment is performed for the purpose of disease detection, in this case diabetes mellitus. A comprehensive assessment is performed during admission to a facility to obtain a detailed history and complete physical examination. An episodic or follow-up assessment is performed after knee replacement to evaluate the outcome of the procedure. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand REF: Box 1-3 | p. 4 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Patient Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care: Establishing Priorities 5. For which person is a comprehensive assessment indicated? a. The person who had abdominal surgery yesterday b. The person who is unaware of his high serum glucose levels c. The person who is being admitted to a long-term care facility d. The person who is beginning rehabilitation after a knee replacement ANS: C A comprehensive assessment is performed during admission to a facility to obtain a detailed history and complete physical examination. A shift assessment is most appropriate for the person who is recovering in the hospital from surgery. A screening assessment is performed for the purpose of disease detection, in this case diabetes mellitus. An episodic or follow-up assessment is performed after knee replacement to evaluate the outcome of the procedure. NURSINGTB.COM Health Assessment for Nursing Practice 6th Edition Wilson Test BankNU RS IN GT B.CO M DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand REF: Box 1-3 | p. 3 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Patient Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care: Establishing Priorities 6. For which person is an episodic or follow-up assessment indicated? a. The person who had abdominal surgery yesterday b. The person who is unaware of his high serum glucose levels c. The person who is being admitted to a long-term care facility d. The person who is beginning rehabilitation after a knee replacement ANS: D An episodic or follow-up assessment is performed after the knee replacement to evaluate the outcome of the procedure. A shift assessment is most appropriate for the person who is recovering in the hospital from surgery. A screening assessment is performed for the purpose of disease detection, in this case diabetes mellitus. A comprehensive assessment is performed during admission to a facility to obtain a detailed history and complete physical examination. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand REF: Box 1-3 | p. 3 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Patient Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care: Establishing Priorities 7. Which is an example of data a nurse collects during a physical examination? a. The patient’s lack of hair and shiny skin over both shins b. The patient’s stated concern about lack of money for prescriptions c. The patient’s complaints of tingling sensations in the feet d. The patient’s mother’s statements that the patient is very nervous lately ANS: A The lack of hair and shiny skin over both shins are objective data or signs that are part of the physical examination. A patient’s concerns about lack of money are subjective data and are part of the health history. A patient’s complaints of tingling sensations in the feet are subjective data and are part of the health history. A patient’s family statements are considered secondary data, are subjective data, and are part of the health history. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply REF: Box 1-3 | p. 3 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Patient Needs: Physiologic Integrity: Reduction of Risk Potential: System Specific Assessments 8. The nurse documents which information in the patient’s history? a. The patient’s skin feels warm to the touch. b. The patient is scratching his arm. c. The patient’s temperature is 100° F. d. The patient complains of itching. ANS: D NURSINGTB.COM Health Assessment for Nursing Practice 6th Edition Wilson Test BankNU RS IN GT B.CO M A patient’s complaint of itching is subjective information, which means it is a symptom and is documented in the history. The patient’s warm skin is objective information gathered by the nurse through palpation, is also a sign, and is documented in the physical examination. The patient’s scratching is objective information gathered by the nurse through observation, is also a sign, and is documented in the physical examination. The patient’s elevated temperature is objective information gathered by the nurse through measurement, is also a sign, and is documented in the physical examination. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply REF: p. 1 | p. 2 and Box 1-2 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Patient Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care: Establishing Priorities 9. Which patient information does the nurse document in the patient’s physical assessment? a. Slurred speech b. Immunizations c. Smoking habit d. Allergies ANS: A Slurred speech should be noticed by the nurse and documented as objective data in the physical assessment. Data on immunizations are collected from the patient, are subjective, and documented in the history. A smoking habit is information that comes from the patient, making it subjective data that is documented in the history. Allergies are information that come from the patient, making it subjective data that is documented in the history. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply REF: p. 1-2 and Box 1-2 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Patient Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care: Establishing Priorities 10. After collecting the data, the nurse begins data analysis with which action? a. Clustering data b. Documenting subjective data c. Reporting information to other health team members d. Documenting objective information ANS: A After collecting data, the nurse organizes or clusters the data so that the problems appear more clearly. To cluster data, the nurse interprets the assessment data collected. Documenting subjective data is necessary for the medical record, but does not provide analysis. Before reporting data to health team members, the nurse clusters and interprets data. Documenting objective data is necessary for the medical record, but does not provide analysis. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand REF: p. 4 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Patient Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care: Establishing Priorities 11. Which activity illustrates the concept of primary prevention? a. Monthly breast self-examination b. Annual cervical (Papanicolaou test) examination NURSINGTB.COM Health Assessment for Nursing Practice 6th Edition Wilson Test BankNU RS IN GT B.CO M c. Education about living with asthma d. Exercising three times a week ANS: D Exercising is an example of primary prevention that prevents disease from developing by maintaining a healthy lifestyle. Monthly breast self-examination is an example of secondary prevention and screening efforts to promote early detection of disease. Annual cervical (Papanicolaou test) examination is an example of secondary prevention and screening efforts to promote early detection of disease. Teaching a patient how to live with a chronic disease such as asthma is an example of tertiary prevention directed toward minimizing the disability from chronic disease and helping the patient maximize his or her health. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand REF: Table 1-1 | p. 5-6 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Patient Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Health Promotion Programs 12. A nurse is teaching a patient how to manage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). This intervention is an example of which level of health promotion? a. Primary prevention b. Secondary prevention c. Tertiary prevention d. Risk factor prevention ANS: C Teaching a patient how to live with a chronic disease is an example of tertiary prevention directed toward minimizing the disability from chronic disease and helping the patient maximize his or her health. The focus of primary prevention is to prevent a disease from developing by promoting a healthy lifestyle. Secondary prevention consists of efforts to promote early detection of disease. Risk factor prevention is part of primary prevention that focuses on preventing disease by managing risk factors. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand REF: Table 1-1 | p. 5-6 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Patient Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Health Promotion Programs 13. Which activity illustrates the concept of secondary prevention? a. Annual mammogram b. Nutrition classes on low-fat cooking c. Education on living with diabetes mellitus d. Cardiac rehabilitation after coronary artery bypass surgery ANS: A A mammogram screens for breast cancer and is an example of secondary prevention to promote early detection of disease. Nutrition classes are an example of primary prevention to prevent a disease from developing by promoting a healthy lifestyle. Education about diabetes mellitus is an example of tertiary prevention directed toward minimizing the disability from chronic disease and helping the patient maximize his or her health. Cardiac rehabilitation after coronary artery bypass surgery is an example of tertiary prevention directed toward minimizing the disability from chronic disease and helping the patient maximize his or her health. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand REF: Table 1-1 | p. 5-6 NURSINGTB.COM Health Assessment for Nursing Practice 6th Edition Wilson Test BankNU RS IN GT B.CO M TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Patient Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Health Promotion Programs 14. A community organization sponsors a health fair to increase awareness of colon cancer. At the health fair, colorectal cancer screening kits are distributed, and health care professionals answer questions, take blood pressure, and distribute literature. What level of health prevention is being implemented by this community organization? a. Primary b. Secondary c. Tertiary d. Risk factor ANS: B Secondary prevention consists of screening efforts to promote early detection of disease—in this scenario, colorectal cancer and hypertension. Primary prevention is focused on preventing disease from developing through the promotion of a healthy lifestyle. Tertiary prevention is directed toward minimizing the disability from chronic disease and helping the patient maximize his or her health. Risk factor prevention is part of primary prevention that focuses on preventing disease by managing risk factors. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply REF: Table 1-1 | p. 5-6 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Patient Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Health Promotion Programs NURSINGTB.COM Health Assessment for Nursing Practice 6th Edition Wilson Test Ban

Test Bank for Maternal Child Nursing Care 6th Edition Perry

NURSINGTB.COM Chapter 01: 21st Century Maternity Nursing Perry: Maternal Child Nursing Care, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. When providing care for a pregnant woman, the nurse should be aware that one of the most frequently reported maternal medical risk factors is: a. diabetes mellitus. b. mitral valve prolapse (MVP). c. chronic hypertension. d. anemia. ANS: A The most frequently reported maternal medical risk factors are diabetes and hypertension associated with pregnancy. Both of these conditions are associated with maternal obesity. There are no studies that indicate MVP is among the most frequently reported maternal risk factors. Hypertension associated with pregnancy, not chronic hypertension, is one of the most frequently reported maternal medical risk factors. Although anemia is a concern in pregnancy, it is not one of the most frequently reported maternal medical risk factors in pregnancy. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge OBJ: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiologic Integrity 2. To ensure optimal outcomes for the patient, the contemporary maternity nurse must incorporate both teamwork and communication with clinicians into her care delivery. The SBAR technique of communication is an easy-to-remember mechanism for communication. Which of the following correctly defines this acronym? a. Situation, baseline assessment, response b. Situation, background, assessment, recommendation c. Subjective background, assessment, recommendation d. Situation, background, anticipated recommendation ANS: B The situation, background, assessment, recommendation (SBAR) technique provides a specific framework for communication among health care providers. Failure to communicate is one of the major reasons for errors in health care. The SBAR technique has the potential to serve as a means to reduce errors. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension OBJ: Nursing Process: Assessment, Planning MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment 3. The role of the professional nurse caring for childbearing families has evolved to emphasize: a. providing care to patients directly at the bedside. b. primarily hospital care of maternity patients. c. practice using an evidence-based approach. d. planning patient care to cover longer hospital stays. ANS: C NURSINGTB.COM MATERNAL CHILD NURSING CARE 6TH EDITION PERRY TEST BANKNURSINGTB.COM Professional nurses are part of the team of health care providers who collaboratively care for patients throughout the childbearing cycle. Providing care to patients directly at the bedside is one of the nurse’s tasks; however, it does not encompass the concept of the evolved professional nurse. Throughout the prenatal period, nurses care for women in clinics and physician’s offices and teach classes to help families prepare for childbirth. Nurses also care for childbearing families in birthing centers and in the home. Nurses have been critically important in developing strategies to improve the well-being of women and their infants and have led the efforts to implement clinical practice guidelines using an evidence-based approach. Maternity patients have experienced a decreased, rather than an increased, length of stay over the past two decades. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment 4. A 23-year-old African-American woman is pregnant with her first child. Based on the statistics for infant mortality, which plan is most important for the nurse to implement? a. Perform a nutrition assessment. b. Refer the woman to a social worker. c. Advise the woman to see an obstetrician, not a midwife. d. Explain to the woman the importance of keeping her prenatal care appointments. ANS: D Consistent prenatal care is the best method of preventing or controlling risk factors associated with infant mortality. Nutritional status is an important modifiable risk factor, but a nutrition assessment is not the most important action a nurse should take in this situation. The patient may need assistance from a social worker at some time during her pregnancy, but a referral to a social worker is not the most important aspect the nurse should address at this time. If the woman has identifiable high risk problems, her health care may need to be provided by a physician. However, it cannot be assumed that all African-American women have high risk issues. In addition, advising the woman to see an obstetrician is not the most important aspect on which the nurse should focus at this time, and it is not appropriate for a nurse to advise or manage the type of care a patient is to receive. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application OBJ: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 5. During a prenatal intake interview, the nurse is in the process of obtaining an initial assessment of a 21-year-old Hispanic patient with limited English proficiency. It is important for the nurse to: a. use maternity jargon in order for the patient to become familiar with these terms. b. speak quickly and efficiently to expedite the visit. c. provide the patient with handouts. d. assess whether the patient understands the discussion. ANS: D Nurses contribute to health literacy by using simple, common words; avoiding jargon; and evaluating whether the patient understands the discussion. Speaking slowly and clearly and focusing on what is important increase understanding. Most patient education materials are written at too high a level for the average adult and may not be useful for a patient with limited English proficiency. NURSINGTB.COM MATERNAL CHILD NURSING CARE 6TH EDITION PERRY TEST BANKNURSINGTB.COM PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application OBJ: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 6. When managing health care for pregnant women at a prenatal clinic, the nurse should recognize that the most significant barrier to access to care is the pregnant woman’s: a. age. b. minority status. c. educational level. d. inability to pay. ANS: D The most significant barrier to health care access is the inability to pay for services; this is compounded by the fact that many physicians refuse to care for women who cannot pay. Although adolescent pregnant patients statistically receive less prenatal care, age is not the most significant barrier. Significant disparities in morbidity and mortality rates exist for minority women; however, minority status is not the most significant barrier to access of care. Disparities in educational level are associated with morbidity and mortality rates; however, educational level is not the most significant barrier to access of care. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge OBJ: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment 7. When the nurse is unsure about how to perform a patient care procedure, the best action would be to: a. ask another nurse. b. discuss the procedure with the patient’s physician. c. look up the procedure in a nursing textbook. d. consult the agency’s procedure manual and follow the guidelines for the procedure. ANS: D It is always best to follow the agency’s policies and procedures manual when seeking information on correct patient procedures. These policies should reflect the current standards of care and state guidelines. Each nurse is responsible for her own practice. Relying on another nurse may not always be safe practice. Each nurse is obligated to follow the standards of care for safe patient care delivery. Physicians are responsible for their own patient care activity. Nurses may follow safe orders from physicians, but they are also responsible for the activities that they as nurses are to carry out. Information provided in a nursing textbook is basic information for general knowledge. Furthermore, the information in a textbook may not reflect the current standard of care or individual state or hospital policies. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Client Needs: Physiologic Integrity 8. From the nurse’s perspective, what measure should be the focus of the health care system to reduce the rate of infant mortality further? a. Implementing programs to ensure women’s early participation in ongoing prenatal care. b. Increasing the length of stay in a hospital after vaginal birth from 2 to 3 days. NURSINGTB.COM MATERNAL CHILD NURSING CARE 6TH EDITION PERRY TEST BANKNURSINGTB.COM c. Expanding the number of neonatal intensive care units (NICUs). d. Mandating that all pregnant women receive care from an obstetrician. ANS: A Early prenatal care allows for early diagnosis and appropriate interventions to reduce the rate of infant mortality. An increased length of stay has been shown to foster improved self-care and parental education. However, it does not prevent the incidence of leading causes of infant mortality rates, such as low birth weight. Early prevention and diagnosis reduce the rate of infant mortality. NICUs offer care to high risk infants after they are born. Expanding the number of NICUs would offer better access for high risk care, but this factor is not the primary focus for further reduction of infant mortality rates. A mandate that all pregnant women receive obstetric care would be nearly impossible to enforce. Furthermore, certified nurse-midwives (CNMs) have demonstrated reliable, safe care for pregnant women. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 9. Alternative and complementary therapies: a. replace conventional Western modalities of treatment. b. are used by only a small number of American adults. c. recognize the value of patients’ input into their health care. d. focus primarily on the disease an individual is experiencing. ANS: C Many popular alternative healing modalities offer human-centered care based on philosophies that recognize the value of the patient’s input and honor the individual’s beliefs, values, and desires. Alternative and complementary therapies are part of an integrative approach to health care. An increasing number of American adults are seeking alternative and complementary health care options. Alternative healing modalities offer a holistic approach to health, focusing on the whole person, not just the disease. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension OBJ: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: Client Needs: Physiologic Integrity 10. A 38-year-old Hispanic woman delivered a 9-pound, 6-ounce girl vaginally after being in labor for 43 hours. The baby died 3 days later from sepsis. On what grounds would the woman potentially have a legitimate legal case for negligence? a. She is Hispanic. b. She delivered a girl. c. The standards of care were not met. d. She refused fetal monitoring. ANS: C Not meeting the standards of care is a legitimate factor for a case of negligence. The patient’s race is not a factor for a case of negligence. The infant’s gender is not a factor for a case of negligence. Although fetal monitoring is the standard of care, the patient has the right to refuse treatment. This refusal is not a case for negligence; however, informed consent should be properly obtained, and the patient should sign an against medical advice form for refusal of any treatment that is within the standard of care. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension OBJ: Nursing Process: Planning NURSINGTB.COM MATERNAL CHILD NURSING CARE 6TH EDITION PERRY TEST BANKNURSINGTB.COM MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 11. A newly graduated nurse is attempting to understand the reason for increasing health care spending in the United States. Her research finds that these costs are much higher compared with other developed countries as a result of: a. a higher rate of obesity among pregnant women. b. limited access to technology. c. increased usage of health care services along with lower prices. d. homogeneity of the population. ANS: A Health care is one of the fastest growing sectors of the U.S. economy. Currently, 17.5% of the gross domestic product is spent on health care. Higher spending in the United States compared with 12 other industrialized countries is related to higher prices and readily accessible technology along with greater obesity rates among women. More than one third of women in the United States are obese. Of the U.S. population, 16% is uninsured and has limited access to health care. Maternal morbidity and mortality are directly related to racial disparities. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis OBJ: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment 12. The term used to describe legal and professional responsibility for practice for maternity nurses is: a. collegiality. b. ethics. c. evaluation. d. accountability. ANS: D Accountability refers to legal and professional responsibility for practice. Collegiality refers to a working relationship with one’s colleagues. Ethics refers to a code to guide practice. Evaluation refers to examination of the effectiveness of interventions in relation to expected outcomes. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Understanding OBJ: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 13. Through the use of social media technology, nurses can link with other nurses who may share similar interests, insights about practice, and advocate for patients. The most concerning pitfall for nurses using this technology is: a. violation of patient privacy and confidentiality. b. institutions and colleagues may be cast in an unfavorable light. c. unintended negative consequences for using social media. d. lack of institutional policy governing online contact. ANS: A NURSINGTB.COM MATERNAL CHILD NURSING CARE 6TH EDITION PERRY TEST BANKNURSINGTB.COM The most significant pitfall for nurses using this technology is the violation of patient privacy and confidentiality. Furthermore, institutions and colleagues can be cast in unfavorable lights with negative consequences for those posting information. Nursing students have been expelled from school and nurses have been fired or reprimanded by their Board of Nursing for injudicious posts. The American Nurses Association has published six principles for social networking and nurses. All institutions should have policies guiding the use of social media, and nurses should be familiar with these guidelines. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment 14. An important development that affects maternity nursing is integrative health care, which: a. seeks to provide the same health care for all racial and ethnic groups. b. blends complementary and alternative therapies with conventional Western treatment. c. focuses on the disease or condition rather than the background of the patient. d. has been mandated by Congress. ANS: B Integrative health care tries to mix the old with the new at the discretion of the patient and health care providers. Integrative health care is a blending of new and traditional practices. Integrative health care focuses on the whole person, not just the disease or condition. U.S. law supports complementary and alternative therapies but does not mandate them. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Understanding OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 15. The nurse caring for a pregnant patient should be aware that the U.S. birth rate shows which trend? a. Births to unmarried women are more likely to have less favorable outcomes. b. Birth rates for women 40 to 44 years old are beginning to decline. c. Cigarette smoking among pregnant women continues to increase. d. The rates of maternal death owing to racial disparity are elevated in the United States. ANS: A Low-birth-weight infants and preterm birth are more likely because of the large number of teenagers in the unmarried group. Birth rates for women in their early 40s continue to increase. Fewer pregnant women smoke. In the United States, there is significant racial disparity in the rates of maternal death. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension OBJ: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment 16. Maternity nursing care that is based on knowledge gained through research and clinical trials is: a. derived from the Nursing Intervention Classification. b. known as evidence-based practice. c. at odds with the Cochrane School of traditional nursing. NURSINGTB.COM MATERNAL CHILD NURSING CARE 6TH EDITION PERRY TEST BANKNURSINGTB.COM d. an outgrowth of telemedicine. ANS: B Evidence-based practice is based on knowledge gained from research and clinical trials. The Nursing Intervention Classification is a method of standardizing language and categorizing care. Dr. Cochrane systematically reviewed research trials and is part of the evidence-based practice movement. Telemedicine uses communication technologies to support health care. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension OBJ: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity 17. The level of practice a reasonably prudent nurse provides is called: a. the standard of care. b. risk management. c. a sentinel event. d. failure to rescue. ANS: A Guidelines for standards of care are published by various professional nursing organizations. Risk management identifies risks and establishes preventive practices, but it does not define the standard of care. Sentinel events are unexpected negative occurrences. They do not establish the standard of care. Failure to rescue is an evaluative process for nursing, but it does not define the standard of care. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension OBJ: Nursing Process: Diagnosis MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment 18. While obtaining a detailed history from a woman who has recently emigrated from Somalia, the nurse realizes that the patient has undergone female genital mutilation (FGM). The nurse’s best response to this patient is: a. “this is a very abnormal practice and rarely seen in the United States.” b. “do you know who performed this so that it can be reported to the authorities?” c. “we will be able to restore your circumcision fully after delivery.” d. “the extent of your circumcision will affect the potential for complications.” ANS: D “The extent of your circumcision will affect the potential for complications” is the most appropriate response. The patient may experience pain, bleeding, scarring, or infection and may require surgery before childbirth. With the growing number of immigrants from countries where FGM is practiced, nurses will increasingly encounter women who have undergone the procedure. Although this practice is not prevalent in the United States, it is very common in many African and Middle Eastern countries for religious reasons. Responding with, “This is a very abnormal practice and rarely seen in the United States” is culturally insensitive. The infibulation may have occurred during infancy or childhood. The patient will have little to no recollection of the event. She would have considered this to be a normal milestone during her growth and development. The International Council of Nurses has spoken out against this procedure as harmful to a woman’s health. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application OBJ: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment NURSINGTB.COM MATERNAL CHILD NURSING CARE 6TH EDITION PERRY TEST BANKNURSINGTB.COM 19. To ensure patient safety, the practicing nurse must have knowledge of the current Joint Commission’s “Do Not Use” list of abbreviations. Which of the following is acceptable for use? a. q.o.d. or Q.O.D. b. MSO4 or MgSO4 c. International Unit d. Lack of a leading zero ANS: C The abbreviations “i.u.” and “I.U.” are no longer acceptable because they could be misread as “I.V.” or the number “10.” The abbreviation “q.o.d. or Q.O.D.” should be written out as “every other day.” The period after the “Q” could be mistaken for an “I”; the “o” could also be mistaken for an “i.” With MSO4 or MgSO4, it is too easy to confuse one medication for another. These medications are used for very different purposes and could put a patient at risk for an adverse outcome. They should be written as morphine sulfate and magnesium sulfate. The decimal point should never be missed before a number to avoid confusion (i.e., 0.4 rather than .4). PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application OBJ: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity 20. Healthy People 2020 has established national health priorities that focus on a number of maternal-child health indicators. Nurses are assuming greater roles in assessing family health and providing care across the perinatal continuum. Therefore, it is important for the nurse to be aware that significant progress has been made in: a. the reduction of fetal deaths and use of prenatal care. b. low birth weight and preterm birth. c. elimination of health disparities based on race. d. infant mortality and the prevention of birth defects. ANS: A Trends in maternal child health indicate that progress has been made in relation to reduced infant and fetal deaths and increased prenatal care. Notable gaps remain in the rates of low birth weight and preterm births. According to the March of Dimes, persistent disparities still exist between African-Americans and non-Hispanic Caucasians. Many of these negative outcomes are preventable through access to prenatal care and the use of preventive health practices. This demonstrates the need for comprehensive community-based care for all mothers, infants, and families. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. Which interventions would help alleviate the problems associated with access to health care for maternity patients? (Select all that apply.) a. Provide transportation to prenatal visits. b. Provide child care so that a pregnant woman may keep prenatal visits. c. Mandate that physicians make house calls. NURSINGTB.COM MATERNAL CHILD NURSING CARE 6TH EDITION PERRY TEST BANKNURSINGTB.COM d. Provide low-cost or no-cost health care insurance. e. Provide job training. ANS: A, B, D Lack of transportation to visits, lack of child care, and lack of affordable health insurance are prohibitive factors associated with lack of prenatal care. House calls are not a cost-effective approach to health care. Although job training may result in employment and income, the likelihood of significant changes during the time frame of the pregnancy is remote. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Implementation OBJ: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance MATCHING Medical errors are a leading cause of death in the United States. The National Quality Forum has recommended numerous safe practices that nursing can promote to reduce errors. Match each safe practice with the correct statement. a. Ask the patient to “teach back.” b. Comply with CDC guidelines. c. Ensure that information is documented in a timely manner. d. Promote interventions that will reduce patient risk. e. Reduce exposure to radiation. 1. Hand hygiene 2. Informed consent 3. Culture measurement, feedback, and intervention 4. Pediatric imaging 5. Patient care information 1. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment NOT: The National Quality Forum updated its publication Safe Practices for Better Healthcare in 2010, outlining 24 safe practices that should be used in all health care settings to reduce the risk of harm from the environment of care, processes, and systems. These are only a few of the recommended practices; however, nurses should be familiar with these guidelines. 2. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment NOT: The National Quality Forum updated its publication Safe Practices for Better Healthcare in 2010, outlining 24 safe practices that should be used in all health care settings to reduce the risk of harm from the environment of care, processes, and systems. These are only a few of the recommended practices; however, nurses should be familiar with these guidelines. 3. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment NOT: The National Quality Forum updated its publication Safe Practices for Better Healthcare in 2010, outlining 24 safe practices that should be used in all health care settings to reduce the risk of harm from the environment of care, processes, and systems. These are only a few of the recommended practices; however, nurses should be familiar with these guidelines. 4. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application NURSINGTB.COM MATERNAL CHILD NURSING CARE 6TH EDITION PERRY TEST BANKNURSINGTB.COM OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment NOT: The National Quality Forum updated its publication Safe Practices for Better Healthcare in 2010, outlining 24 safe practices that should be used in all health care settings to reduce the risk of harm from the environment of care, processes, and systems. These are only a few of the recommended practices; however, nurses should be familiar with these guidelines. 5. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment NOT: The National Quality Forum updated its publication Safe Practices for Better Healthcare in 2010, outlining 24 safe practices that should be used in all health care settings to reduce the risk of harm from the environment of care, processes, and systems. These are only a few of the recommended practices; however, nurses should be familiar with these guidelines. NURSINGTB.COM MATERNAL CHILD NURSING CARE 6TH EDITION PERRY TEST BAN  

Solution Manual for Nursing Diagnosis Handbook 11th Edition by Ackley

Ackley: Nursing Diagnosis Handbook, 11th Edition Table of Contents     41 cases  Lecture Notes

Problem-Based Learning/Critical Thinking

Case Study - Restless Leg Syndrome

Case Scenario Abdul Malek is a 21 year old college student. He attends the local state university and is a junior studying graphic design.  Three (3) weeks into his fall semester, Abdul’s professors notice that he is falling asleep in class and often looks restless. Abdul taps his foot and squirms around in his seat. Abdul, who is usually an excellent student, has failed his first test in his Graphic Design II course. His professor asks him to see his advisor because the fear is that Abdul has become chemically impaired. His advisor sends Abdul to the student health services and his case is reviewed by the nurse.  Nursing Assessment  Abdul is a well-developed 22 year old male with a BMI of 20. His vital signs are: blood pressure 104/78; temperature 98.4 degrees F.; heart rate – 64 BPM; respiratory rate – 16 per minute. A nutritional history confirms a well-balanced diet with the exclusion of pork products. Abdul had been working out every day at the University gym but reports that he is currently “too tired” to do so.  Abdul denies drug or alcohol use and this is confirmed by serum analysis. Abdul complains about sleeping poorly and feeling as if, “I am moving all night.” He states that he often wakes up his dorm mate and feels badly about that.  The nurse reclines Abdul on the examination table and checks his deep tendon reflexes (DTRs) which are all 2 . The nurse asks Abdul to relax and dims the lights while she consults with the primary care practitioner. While the nurse is out of the examination room Abdul dozes and when the nurse returns the nurse observes Abdul’s right leg jerking several times before she arouses him.
  1. ASSESS
  2. Identify significant symptoms by underlining them in the assessment.
  3. List those symptoms that indicate the client has a health problem (those you have underlined).
  • falling asleep in class
  • often looks restless
  • taps his foot
  • squirms around in his seat
  • failed his first test
  •  “too tired
  • complains about sleeping poorly
  • I am moving all night
  • often wakes up
  • dozes
  • right leg jerking several times
  1. Group the symptoms that are similar.
  • falling asleep in class
  • often looks restless
  • taps his foot
  • squirms around in his seat
  • failed his first test
  • complains about sleeping poorly
  • dozes
  •  “too tired
  • I am moving all night
  • often wakes up
  • right leg jerking several times

Hockenberry: Wong’s Essentials of Pediatric Nursing, 10th Edition

Chapter 02: Family, Social, Cultural, and Religious Influences on Child Health Promotion MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A nurse is selecting a family theory to assess a patient’s family dynamics. Which family theory best describes a series of tasks for the family throughout its life span?
a. Interactional theory
b. Developmental systems theory
c. Structural-functional theory
d. Duvall’s developmental theory
ANS: D Duvall’s developmental theory describes eight developmental tasks of the family throughout its life span. Interactional theory and structural-functional theory are not family theories. Developmental systems theory is an outgrowth of Duvall’s theory. The family is described as a small group, a semiclosed system of personalities that interact with the larger cultural system. Changes do not occur in one part of the family without changes in others. DIF:Cognitive Level: UnderstandREF:p. 17 TOP:Integrated Process: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC:Area of Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 2.Which family theory explains how families react to stressful events and suggests factors that promote adaptation to these events?
a. Interactional theory
b. Developmental systems theory
c. Family stress theory
d. Duvall’s developmental theory
ANS: C Family stress theory explains the reaction of families to stressful events. In addition, the theory helps suggest factors that promote adaptation to the stress. Stressors, both positive and negative, are cumulative and affect the family. Adaptation requires a change in family structure or interaction. Interactional theory is not a family theory. Interactions are the basis of general systems theory. Developmental systems theory is an outgrowth of Duvall’s theory. The family is described as a small group, a semiclosed system of personalities that interact with the larger cultural system. Changes do not occur in one part of the family without changes in others. Duvall’s developmental theory describes eight developmental tasks of the family throughout its life span. DIF:Cognitive Level: UnderstandREF:p. 16 TOP:Integrated Process: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC:Area of Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 3.Which is the term for a family in which the paternal grandmother, the parents, and two minor children live together?
a. Blended
b. Nuclear
c. Binuclear
d. Extended
ANS: D An extended family contains at least one parent, one or more children, and one or more members (related or unrelated) other than a parent or sibling. A blended family contains at least one stepparent, step-sibling, or half-sibling. The nuclear family consists of two parents and their children. No other relatives or nonrelatives are present in the household. In binuclear families, parents continue the parenting role while terminating the spousal unit. For example, when joint custody is assigned by the court, each parent has equal rights and responsibilities for the minor child or children. DIF:Cognitive Level: RememberREF:p. 18 TOP:Integrated Process: Nursing Process: Planning MSC:Area of Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 4.A nurse is assessing a family’s structure. Which describes a family in which a mother, her children, and a stepfather live together?
a. Blended
b. Nuclear
c. Binuclear
d. Extended
ANS: A A blended family contains at least one stepparent, step-sibling, or half-sibling. The nuclear family consists of two parents and their children. No other relatives or nonrelatives are present in the household. In binuclear families, parents continue the parenting role while terminating the spousal unit. For example, when joint custody is assigned by the court, each parent has equal rights and responsibilities for the minor child or children. An extended family contains at least one parent, one or more children, and one or more members (related or unrelated) other than a parent or sibling. DIF:Cognitive Level: UnderstandREF:p. 18 TOP:Integrated Process: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC:Area of Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 5.Parents of a firstborn child are asking whether it is normal for their child to be extremely competitive. The nurse should respond to the parents that studies about the ordinal position of children suggest that firstborn children tend to:
a. be praised less often.
b. be more achievement oriented.
c. be more popular with the peer group.
d. identify with peer group more than parents.
ANS: B Firstborn children, like only children, tend to be more achievement oriented. Being praised less often, being more popular with the peer group, and identifying with peer groups more than parents are characteristics of later-born children. DIF:Cognitive Level: ApplyREF:p. 29 TOP:Integrated Process: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC:Area of Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 6.The nurse is teaching a group of new parents about the experience of role transition. Which statement by a parent would indicate a correct understanding of the teaching?
a. “My marital relationship can have a positive or negative effect on the role transition.”
b. “If an infant has special care needs, the parents’ sense of confidence in their new role is strengthened.”
c. “Young parents can adjust to the new role easier than older parents.”
d. “A parent’s previous experience with children makes the role transition more difficult.”
ANS: A If parents are supportive of each other, they can serve as positive influences on establishing satisfying parental roles. When marital tensions alter caregiving routines and interfere with the enjoyment of the infant, then the marital relationship has a negative effect. Infants with special care needs can be a significant source of added stress. Older parents are usually more able to cope with the greater financial responsibilities, changes in sleeping habits, and reduced time for each other and other children. Parents who have previous experience with parenting appear more relaxed, have less conflict in disciplinary relationships, and are more aware of normal growth and development. DIF:Cognitive Level: UnderstandREF:p. 17 TOP:Integrated Process: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC:Area of Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 7.When assessing a family, the nurse determines that the parents exert little or no control over their children. What is this style of parenting called?
a. Permissive
b. Dictatorial
c. Democratic
d. Authoritarian
ANS: A Permissive parents avoid imposing their own standards of conduct and allow their children to regulate their own activity as much as possible. The parents exert little or no control over their children’s actions. Dictatorial or authoritarian parents attempt to control their children’s behavior and attitudes through unquestioned mandates. They establish rules and regulations or standards of conduct that they expect to be followed rigidly and unquestioningly. Democratic parents combine permissive and dictatorial styles. They direct their children’s behavior and attitudes by emphasizing the reasons for rules and negatively reinforcing deviations. They respect the child’s individual nature. DIF:Cognitive Level: RememberREF:p. 20 TOP:Integrated Process: Nursing Process: Diagnosis MSC:Area of Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 8.When discussing discipline with the mother of a 4-year-old child, the nurse should include which instruction?
a. Children as young as 4 years old rarely need to be punished.
b. Parental control should be consistent.
c. Withdrawal of love and approval is effective at this age.
d. One should expect rules to be followed rigidly and unquestioningly.
ANS: B For effective discipline, parents must be consistent and must follow through with agreed-on actions. Realistic goals should be set for this age group. Parents should structure the environment to prevent unnecessary difficulties. Requests for behavior change should be phrased in a positive manner to provide direction for the child. Withdrawal of love and approval is never appropriate or effective. Discipline strategies should be appropriate to the child’s age, temperament, and severity of the misbehavior. Following rules rigidly and unquestioningly is beyond the developmental capabilities of a 4-year-old. DIF:Cognitive Level: ApplyREF:p. 20 TOP:Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning MSC:Area of Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 9.Which is most characteristic of the physical punishment of children, such as spanking?
a. Psychological impact is usually minimal.
b. Children rarely become accustomed to spanking.
c. Children’s development of reasoning increases.
d. Misbehavior is likely to occur when parents are not present.
ANS: D Through the use of physical punishment, children learn what they should not do. When parents are not around, it is more likely that children will misbehave because they have not learned to behave well for their own sake, but rather out of fear of punishment. Spanking can cause severe physical and psychological injury and interfere with effective parent-child interaction. Children do become accustomed to spanking, requiring more severe corporal punishment each time. The use of corporal punishment may interfere with the child’s development of moral reasoning. DIF:Cognitive Level: UnderstandREF:p. 20 TOP:Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning MSC:Area of Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 10.A 3-year-old girl was adopted immediately after birth. The parents have just asked the nurse how they should tell the child that she is adopted. Which guidelines concerning adoption should the nurse use in planning a response?
a. Telling the child is an important aspect of their parental responsibilities.
b. The best time to tell the child is between ages 7 and 10 years.
c. It is not necessary to tell the child who was adopted so young.
d. It is best to wait until the child asks about it.
ANS: A It is important for the parents not to withhold information about the adoption from the child. It is an essential component of the child’s identity. There is no recommended best time to tell children. It is believed that children should be told young enough so they do not remember a time when they did not know. It should be done before the children enter school to keep third parties from telling the children before the parents have had the opportunity. DIF:Cognitive Level: UnderstandREF:p. 22 TOP:Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning MSC:Area of Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 11.A parent of a school-age child is going through a divorce. The parent tells the school nurse the child has not been doing well in school and sometimes has trouble sleeping. The nurse should recognize this as which implication?
a. Indication of maladjustment
b. Common reaction to divorce
c. Lack of adequate parenting
d. Unusual response that indicates need for referral
ANS: B Parental divorce affects school-age children in many ways. In addition to difficulties in school, they often have profound sadness, depression, fear, insecurity, frequent crying, loss of appetite, and sleep disorders. This is not an indication of maladjustment, suggestive of lack of adequate parenting, or an unusual response that indicates need for referral in school-age children after parental divorce. DIF:Cognitive Level: ApplyREF:p. 24 TOP:Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning MSC: Area of Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity 12.A mother brings 6-month-old Eric to the clinic for a well-baby checkup. She comments, “I want to go back to work, but I don’t want Eric to suffer because I’ll have less time with him.” The nurse’s most appropriate answer would be which statement?
a. “I’m sure he’ll be fine if you get a good babysitter.”
b. “You will need to stay home until Eric starts school.”
c. “You should go back to work so Eric will get used to being with others.”
d. “Let’s talk about the child care options that will be best for Eric.”
ANS: D Let’s talk about the child care options that will be best for Eric is an open-ended statement that will assist the mother in exploring her concerns about what is best for both her and Eric. I’m sure he’ll be fine if you get a good babysitterYou will need to stay home until Eric starts school, and You should go back to work so Eric will get used to being with others are directive statements. They do not address the effect of her working on Eric. DIF:Cognitive Level: ApplyREF:p. 27 TOP:Integrated Process: Communication and Documentation MSC: Area of Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity 13.Which term best describes a group of people who share a set of values, beliefs, practices, social relationships, law, politics, economics, and norms of behavior?
a. Race
b. Culture
c. Ethnicity
d. Social group
ANS: B Culture is a pattern of assumptions, beliefs, and practices that unconsciously frames or guides the outlook and decisions of a group of people. A culture is composed of individuals who share a set of values, beliefs, and practices that serve as a frame of reference for individual perceptions and judgments. Race is defined as a division of humankind possessing traits that are transmissible by descent and are sufficient to characterize it as a distinct human type. Ethnicity is an affiliation of a set of persons who share a unique cultural, social, and linguistic heritage. A social group consists of systems of roles carried out in groups. Examples of primary social groups include the family and peer groups. DIF:Cognitive Level: RememberREF:p. 29 TOP:Integrated Process: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Area of Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity 14.Which term best describes the emotional attitude that one’s own ethnic group is superior to others?
a. Culture
b. Ethnicity
c. Superiority
d. Ethnocentrism
ANS: D Ethnocentrism is the belief that one’s way of living and behaving is the best way. This includes the emotional attitude that the values, beliefs, and perceptions of one’s ethnic group are superior to those of others. Culture is a pattern of assumptions, beliefs, and practices that unconsciously frames or guides the outlook and decisions of a group of people. A culture is composed of individuals who share a set of values, beliefs, and practices that serves as a frame of reference for individual perception and judgments. Ethnicity is an affiliation of a set of persons who share a unique cultural, social, and linguistic heritage. Superiority is the state or quality of being superior; it does not include ethnicity. DIF:Cognitive Level: UnderstandREF:p. 30 TOP:Integrated Process: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Area of Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1.Dunst, Trivette, and Deal identified the qualities of strong families that help them function effectively. Which qualities are included? (Select all that apply.)
a. Ability to stay connected without spending time together
b. Clear set of family values, rules, and beliefs
c. Adoption of one coping strategy that always promotes positive functioning in dealing with life events
d. Sense of commitment toward growth of individual family members as opposed to that of the family unit
e. Ability to engage in problem-solving activities
f. Sense of balance between the use of internal and external family resources
ANS: B, E, F A clear set of family rules, values, and beliefs that establishes expectations about acceptable and desired behavior is one of the qualities of strong families that help them function effectively. Strong families also are able to engage in problem-solving activities and to find a balance between internal and external forces. Strong families have a sense of congruence among family members regarding the value and importance of assigning time and energy to meet needs. Strong families also use varied coping strategies. The sense of commitment is toward the growth and well-being of individual family members, as well as the family unit. DIF:Cognitive Level: UnderstandREF:p. 19 TOP:Integrated Process: Nursing Process: Diagnosis MSC:Area of Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 2.A nurse is conducting a teaching session on the use of time-out as a discipline measure to parents of toddlers. Which are correct strategies the nurse should include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.)
a. Time-out as a discipline measure cannot be used when in a public place.
b. A rule for the length of time-out is 1 minute per year.
c. When the child misbehaves, one warning should be given.
d. The area for time-out can be in the family room where the child can see the television.
e. When the child is quiet for the specified time, he or she can leave the room.
ANS: B, C, E A rule for the length of time-out is 1 minute per year of age; use a kitchen timer with an audible bell to record the time rather than a watch. When the child misbehaves, one warning should be given. When the child is quiet for the duration of the time, he or she can then leave the room. Time-out can be used in public places and the parents should be consistent on the use of time-out. Implement time-out in a public place by selecting a suitable area or explain to children that time-out will be spent immediately on returning home. The time-out should not be spent in an area from which the child can view the television. Select an area for time-out that is safe, convenient, and unstimulating but where the child can be monitored, such as the bathroom, hallway, or laundry room. DIF:Cognitive Level: ApplyREF:p. 21 TOP:Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning MSC:Area of Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 3.Divorced parents of a preschool child are asking whether their child will display any feelings or behaviors related to the effect of the divorce. The nurse is correct when explaining that the parents should be prepared for which types of behaviors? (Select all that apply.)
a. Displaying fears of abandonment
b. Verbalizing that he or she “is the reason for the divorce”
c. Displaying fear regarding the future
d. Ability to disengage from the divorce proceedings
e. Engaging in fantasy to understand the divorce
ANS: A, B, E A child 3 to 5 years of age (preschool) may display fears of abandonment, verbalize feelings that he or she is the reason for the divorce, and engage in fantasy to understand the divorce. He or she would not be displaying fear regarding the future until school age, and the ability to disengage from the divorce proceedings would be characteristic of an adolescent. DIF:Cognitive Level: ApplyREF:p. 24 TOP:Integrated Process: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Area of Client Needs: Teaching and Learning COMPLETION

Test Bank Community Health Nursing in Canada, 3rd Edition by Marcia Stanhope

Chapter 01: Community Health Nursing

Stanhope: Community Health Nursing in Canada, 3rd Canadian Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1.   Which of the following best describes community health nursing?
a. Giving care with a focus on the aggregate’s needs
b. Giving care with a focus on the group’s needs
c. Focusing on the health care of individual clients in the community
d. Working with an approach of unique client care
ANS:  C By definition, community health nursing is the health care of individual clients in the community. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remember                         REF:   p. 3 OBJ:   1.6 TOP:   Client Need: Safe and Effective Care Environment - Management of Care 2.   Which of the following best describes primary health care?
a. A comprehensive way to address issues of social justice
b. Giving the care to manage acute or chronic conditions
c. Giving direct care to ill individuals within their family setting
d. Having the goal of health promotion and disease prevention
ANS:  A By definition, primary health care is comprehensive and addresses issues of social justice and equity. Social justice in the context of health refers to ensuring fairness and equality in health services so that vulnerable individuals in society have easy access to health care. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remember                         REF:   p. 10 OBJ:   1.4                 TOP:   Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance 3.   The health of which of the following is the primary focus of public health nurses (PHNs)?
a. Families
b. Groups
c. Individuals
d. Populations
ANS:  D PHNs use knowledge of nursing, social sciences, and public health sciences for the promotion and protection of health and for the prevention of disease among populations. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remember                         REF:   p. 13, Table 1-4 | p. 20 OBJ:   1.5                 TOP:   Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance 4.   Which change is the primary explanation for life expectancy increasing so notably since the early 1900s?
a. An increase in findings from medical laboratory research
b. Incredible advances in surgical techniques and procedures
c. Improved sanitation and other public health activities
d. Increased use of antibiotics to fight infections
ANS:  C Improvement in control of infectious diseases through immunizations, sanitation, and other public health activities led to the increase in life expectancy since the early 1900s. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remember                         REF:   pp. 12-13 OBJ:   1.5                 TOP:   Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance 5.   Which community health nursing practice area receives funding from the private sector?
a. Telenurses
b. Corrections nurses
c. Nurse entrepreneurs
d. Street or outreach nurses
ANS:  C The nurse entrepreneur receives private funding, whereas all of the other community health nurse (CHN) roles are with provincially or federally funded positions. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remember                         REF:   p. 22, Table 1-4 Examples OBJ:   1.6 TOP:   Client Need: Safe and Effective Care Environment - Management of Care 6.   A PHN strives to prevent disease and disability, often in partnership with other community groups. Which statement is an appropriate summary of the PHN’s role?
a. The PHN asks the political leaders what interventions should be chosen.
b. The PHN assesses the community and decides on appropriate interventions.
c. The PHN uses data from the main health care institutions in the community to determine needed health services.
d. The PHN works with community members to carry out public health functions.
ANS:  D It is crucial that the PHN work with members of the community to carry out core public health functions. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Application/Apply                                          REF:    p. 13, How To box OBJ:   1.5                 TOP:   Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance 7.   Which of the following is used as a measurement of population health?
a. Health status indicators
b. The levels of prevention
c. The number of memberships at the local fitness centre
d. Reported provincial alcohol and tobacco sales in any given month
ANS:  A Population health refers to the health outcomes of a population as measured by determinants of health and health outcomes. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remember                         REF:   p. 16 OBJ:   1.2                 TOP:   Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance 8.   A registered nurse (RN), has just been employed as a CHN. Which question would be most relevant to her practice as she begins her position?
a. “Which community groups are at greatest risk for problems?”
b. “Which patients should I see first as I begin my day?”
c. “With which physicians will I be collaborating most closely?”
d. “Who is the nursing assistant to whom I can refer patients?”
ANS:  A CHNs apply the nursing process to the entire community; asking which groups are at greatest risk reflects a community-oriented perspective. The other possible responses focus on particular individuals. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Application/Apply                                          REF:    p. 15 OBJ:   1.6                 TOP:   Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance 9.   The CHN working with women at the senior citizens’ centre reminds them that the only way the centre will be able to afford a driver and a van service for those who cannot drive themselves is to continue to write letters to their local city council representatives, requesting funding for such a service. What is the CHN doing?
a. Ensuring that the women do not expect the CHN herself to do anything about their problem
b. Demonstrating that she understands the women’s concerns and needs
c. Expressing empathy, support, and concern
d. Helping the women engage in political action locally
ANS:  D CHNs have an imperative to work with the members of the community to carry out public health functions such as political action. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Application/Apply                                          REF:    p. 13, How To box OBJ:   1.5 | 1.6 TOP:   Client Need: Safe and Effective Care Environment - Management of Care 10.   Which activity is an example of the “advocate” role of the CHN?
a. Organizing home care support for a newly discharged older adult client
b. Acting as a member of a community action group for provision of accessible transit choices
c. Doing prenatal assessments
d. Facilitating a self-help group for smoking cessation
ANS:  B An advocate provides a voice to client concerns when acting as a member of a community action group for provision of accessible transit choices. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Application/Apply                                          REF:    p. 19, Table 1-3 OBJ:   1.6 TOP:   Client Need: Safe and Effective Care Environment - Management of Care 11.   In which scenario is the PHN most comprehensively fulfilling collaborative practice responsibilities?
a. The PHN meets with several groups about community recreation issues.
b. The PHN spends the day attending meetings at various health agencies.
c. The PHN talks to several people about their particular health concerns.
d. The PHN watches television, including a telecast of a city council meeting on the local cable station.
ANS:  B Any of these might represent a PHN communicating, cooperating, or collaborating with community residents or groups about health concerns. However, the PHN who spends the day attending meetings at various health agencies is most comprehensively fulfilling requirements effectively, since health is broader than recreation, individual concerns are not as important as aggregate priorities, and watching television is only one-way communication. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Synthesis/Synthesize                            REF:   pp. 15-16 OBJ:   1.5 TOP:   Client Need: Safe and Effective Care Environment - Management of Care 12.   A CHN often has to make resource allocation decisions. In such cases, which approach will most help the CHN to arrive at the decision?
a. Choosing a moral or ethical principle
b. Choosing the cheapest, most economical approach
c. Choosing the most rational outcome
d. Choosing the needs of the aggregate, rather than the needs of a few individuals
ANS:  D Although all of the answers represent components of the CHN’s decision-making process, the predominant needs of the population outweigh the expressed needs of one person or a few people. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Application/Apply                                          REF:    pp. 7-8 OBJ:   1.3 TOP:   Client Need: Safe and Effective Care Environment - Management of Care 13.   Which situation most closely represents the focus of public health nursing?
a. Assessing the services and effectiveness of the school health clinic
b. Caring for patients after their outpatient surgeries
c. Giving care to schoolchildren at the school clinic and to the children’s families
d. Treating paediatric patients at an outpatient clinic
ANS:  A A public health or population-focused approach would consider the entire group of children receiving care, to see if services are effective in achieving the goal of improving the health of the school population. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Application/Apply                                          REF:    p. 13, How To box OBJ:   1.5                 TOP:   Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance 14.   Which public health service best represents primary prevention?
a. Developing a health education program about the dangers of smoking
b. Providing a diabetes clinic for adults in low-income neighbourhoods
c. Providing an influenza vaccination program in a community retirement village
d. Teaching school-aged children about the positive effects of exercise
ANS:  C Although all the services listed are appropriate and valuable, providing influenza vaccines to healthy adults represents the primary level of health prevention. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Application/Apply                                          REF:    p. 14 OBJ:   1.5                 TOP:   Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance 15.   What term is used interchangeably with the term subpopulations?
a. Groups
b. Aggregates
c. Clients
d. Communities
ANS:  B Generally, subpopulations are referred to as aggregates within the larger community population. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remember                         REF:   p. 16 OBJ:   1.2                 TOP:   Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance

Test Bank for Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 9th Edition

Contents Chapter 01: The Nursing Process and Drug Therapy................................................................................. 4 Chapter 02: Pharmacologic Principles...................................................................................................... 8 Chapter 03: Lifespan Considerations...................................................................................................... 14 Chapter 04: Cultural, Legal, and Ethical Considerations.......................................................................... 20 Chapter 05: Medication Errors: Preventing and Responding .................................................................. 26 Chapter 06: Patient Education and Drug Therapy................................................................................... 29 Chapter 07: Over-the-Counter Drugs and Herbal and Dietary Supplements ........................................... 34 Chapter 08: Gene Therapy and Pharmacogenomics............................................................................... 38 Chapter 09: Photo Atlas of Drug Administration .................................................................................... 41 Chapter 10: Analgesic Drugs.................................................................................................................. 50 Chapter 11: General and Local Anesthetics............................................................................................ 57 Chapter 12: Central Nervous System Depressants and Muscle Relaxants............................................... 61 Chapter 13: Central Nervous System Stimulants and Related Drugs....................................................... 66 Chapter 14: Antiepileptic Drugs............................................................................................................. 70 Chapter 15: Antiparkinson Drugs.............................................................................................................76 Chapter 16: Psychotherapeutic Drugs.................................................................................................... 81 Chapter 17: Substance Use Disorder...................................................................................................... 88 Chapter 18: Adrenergic Drugs................................................................................................................ 93 Chapter 19: Adrenergic-Blocking Drugs.................................................................................................. 98 Chapter 20: Cholinergic Drugs ............................................................................................................. 103 Chapter 21: Cholinergic-Blocking Drugs............................................................................................... 108 Chapter 22: Antihypertensive Drugs.................................................................................................... 113 Chapter 23: Antianginal Drugs............................................................................................................. 119 Chapter 24: Heart Failure Drugs........................................................................................................... 125 Chapter 25: Antidysrhythmic Drugs..................................................................................................... 131 Chapter 26: Coagulation Modifier Drugs.............................................................................................. 137 Chapter 27: Antilipemic Drugs............................................................................................................. 143 Chapter 28: Diuretic Drugs................................................................................................................... 148 Chapter 29: Fluids and Electrolytes...................................................................................................... 154 Chapter 30: Pituitary Drugs.................................................................................................................. 160 Chapter 31: Thyroid and Antithyroid Drugs.......................................................................................... 163 Chapter 32: Antidiabetic Drugs............................................................................................................ 168 Chapter 33: Adrenal Drugs................................................................................................................... 177 Chapter 34: Women’s Health Drugs..................................................................................................... 181 Chapter 35: Men’s Health Drugs.......................................................................................................... 188 Chapter 36: Antihistamines, Decongestants, Antitussives, and Expectorants ....................................... 193 Chapter 37: Respiratory Drugs............................................................................................................. 198 Chapter 38: Antibiotics Part 1.............................................................................................................. 204 Chapter 39: Antibiotics Part 2.............................................................................................................. 211 Chapter 40: Antiviral Drugs.................................................................................................................. 216 Chapter 41: Antitubercular Drugs ........................................................................................................ 221 Chapter 42: Antifungal Drugs............................................................................................................... 226 Chapter 43: Antimalarial, Antiprotozoal, and Anthelmintic Drugs ........................................................ 231 Chapter 44: Anti-inflammatory and Antigout Drugs............................................................................. 236 Chapter 45: Antineoplastic Drugs Part 1: Cancer Overview and Cell Cycle–Specific Drugs..................... 242 Chapter 46: Antineoplastic Drugs Part 2: Cell Cycle–Nonspecific Drugs and Miscellaneous Drugs......... 248 Chapter 47: Biologic Response–Modifying and Antirheumatic Drugs ................................................... 253 Chapter 48: Immunosuppressant Drugs............................................................................................... 258 Chapter 49: Immunizing Drugs............................................................................................................. 263 Chapter 50: Acid-Controlling Drugs...................................................................................................... 268 Chapter 51: Bowel Disorder Drugs....................................................................................................... 274 Chapter 52: Antiemetic and Antinausea Drugs..................................................................................... 281 Chapter 53: Vitamins and Minerals...................................................................................................... 286 Chapter 54: Anemia Drugs................................................................................................................... 292 Chapter 55: Nutritional Supplements................................................................................................... 299 Chapter 56: Dermatologic Drugs.......................................................................................................... 304 Chapter 57: Ophthalmic Drugs............................................................................................................. 310 Chapter 58: Otic Drugs 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