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Test Bank for Legal and Ethical Aspects of Health Information Management 4th Edition by McWay

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Test Bank for Legal and Ethical Aspects of Health Information Management 4th Edition by McWay

DESCRIPTION – CHAPTER SAMPLE

McWay_Chapter01_Exam

MULTIPLE CHOICE

  1. Standards for human behavior are established through _____.
a. concepts c. moral principles
b. laws d. societal ideals

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Under civil law, the burden of proof is described as a _____.
a. determination to be met by the presiding judge at the trial
b. meeting of the minds where at least two persons or entities must reach an agreement
c. preponderance of the evidence, which is defined as “more likely than not”
d. requirement that something be proven beyond a reasonable doubt

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

  1. Which statement is associated with civil law?
a. Defendants who do not pay court-assessed damages are imprisoned.
b. It is an area of law and justice that attempts to settle disputes among individuals.
c. Its body of law involves the state versus individuals and relies on statutory law.
d. Either plaintiff or defendant can be found partially right or wrong, but not both.

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

  1. The plaintiff is always the state or federal government in _____ law.
a. contract c. criminal
b. Civil d. private

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

  1. Which statement is associated with criminal law?
a. The defendant is always the state or federal government.
b. Only the plaintiff may appeal a decision.
c. Punishment may be a fine or imprisonment.
d. Federal statutes alone establish criminal law.

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

  1. The burden of proof is “beyond a reasonable doubt” during a _____ trial?
a. civil c. contract
b. conflict d. criminal

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

  1. Which statement is associated with a criminal trial?
a. Only the defendant may appeal a guilty verdict in a criminal case.
b. Each defendant is initially assigned a court-appointed lawyer.
c. State and federal statutes establish civil laws (or private laws).
d. The burden of proof is on the defendant named in the case.

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

  1. Consensus ad idem is Latin for the element of a contract associated with _____.
a. obligation c. consideration
b. acceptance d. meeting of the minds

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

  1. Consideration is an element of contract law that refers to _____.
a. business etiquette
b. exchange from one party in return for performing contractual obligations
c. one party’s agreement to a promise
d. an entity’s decision to enter into a contract

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

  1. In Mordecai vs. Blue Cross/Blue Shield of Alabama, the court determined that _____.
a. a patient cannot sue their health insurance company for breach of contract because that is prohibited by statutory law
b. terms of an insurance policy cannot be altered after inception because the patient pays a monthly premium for insurance coverage and signing the contract protects the insurance company
c. the insurance company had the right to deny payment for major medical expenses regardless of whether procedures and services performed were medically necessary.
d. the insured had the right to proceed against the insurance company for breach of contract to determine whether it had correctly determined that patient care was not medically necessary

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

  1. The first 10 amendments to the U.S. Constitution are called _____.
a. Judicial Declarations c. Executive Orders
b. The Bill of Rights d. Titles of Nobility

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

  1. Which of the following is associated with the Bill of Rights?
a. protects the rights to freedom of speech and religion.
b. provides the right to vote for those age 18 and above.
c. allows unlimited rights to sue states in federal court.
d. includes equality of rights under the law regardless of gender.

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

  1. Which constitutional amendment prohibits double jeopardy?
a. First c. Second
b. Fifth d. Sixth

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

  1. Which is associated with the Fifth Amendment of the Constitution?
a. Accused person may not be compelled to testify against himself.
b. Guards against searches, arrests, and seizures of property without a specific warrant or a “probable cause.”
c. Guarantees a speedy public trial for criminal offenses.
d. Forbids excessive bail or fines, and cruel and unusual punishment.

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

  1. Laws passed at the local level are called _____.
a. bills c. precedence
b. ordinances d. statutes

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

  1. From a statutory perspective, CFR is an abbreviation for _____.
a. Campaign Finance Reform c. Code of Federal Regulations
b. Case Fatality Rate d. Council of Foreign Relations

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

  1. HIPAA is the abbreviation for the _____.
a. Healthcare Information and Payer Accessibility Act
b. Health Information Provider and Accessibility Act
c. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
d. Healthcare Insurance and Payer Accountability Act

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

  1. Criminal law is subdivided into _____ categories.
a. felony and misdemeanor c. procedural and administrative
b. ordinal and substantive d. substantive and procedural

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

  1. A felony is defined as a crime _____.
a. for which probation is always assigned
b. involving civil or private law
c. of grave or serious nature
d. that is punishable by a term of less than 1 year

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

  1. Which subcategory of criminal law defines specific offenses?
a. misdemeanor c. statute
b. procedural d. substantive

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

  1. Primary sources of public law include _____.
a. law of contracts or torts c. policies and procedures
b. law of obligations d. statutes and penal law

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

  1. A constitution is a set of fundamental principles or established precedents according to which a state or other organization is governed. Thus, it _____.
a. defines principles for individuals, not the nation or state in which it is based
b. delineates procedures by which a court awards the defendant monetary damages
c. is considered the fundamental law of a nation or state
d. undergoes interpretation according to modern day statutes and regulations

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

  1. Under stare decisis, _____.
a. U.S. Courts of Appeal are bound by trial court decisions of U.S. district courts in other jurisdictions
b. U.S. district courts are bound by decisions of both the U.S. Courts of Appeal and U.S. Supreme Court within the same geographic area
c. U.S. Supreme Court is bound by decisions of all U.S. courts of appeal within different jurisdictions
d. U.S. Supreme Court is obligated to follow precedent, regardless of decisions in Courts of Appeal or district courts

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

  1. Which describes the doctrine of res judicata?
a. Appeals to a court decision are prohibited, and a plaintiff would be required to stand before the Supreme Court.
b. Final judgment of a competent court is conclusive upon the parties in any subsequent litigation involving the same cause of action.
c. Parties of a lawsuit have the option of bringing a subsequent action raising the same claim or demand.
d. Plaintiff can re-prosecute the defendant if a valid final judgment was administered by the court.

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

  1. An electronic case filing system (ECFS) is an automated system that _____.
a. allows the general public to search pleadings and testimony
b. eliminates the need to charge a fee for the search
c. is rarely a component for case management
d. prohibits the processing and exchange of information

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

  1. The government’s separation of powers include _____.
a. division of power that allows one branch to dominate another when deemed necessary
b. judicial, legislative and congressional branches headed by Congress
c. a provision that each branch may exercise powers involving other branches
d. a system of checks and balances that is referred to as the separation of powers

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

  1. GINA _____.
a. addresses perceived areas of discrimination in employment and insurance
b. is the abbreviation for Genetic Insurance Nondiscrimination Act
c. prohibits the interaction of all three branches of government for enforcement
d. replaces the HIPAA statute regarding implementation of the privacy rule

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

  1. The legislative branch of government _____.
a. enforces and administers laws (statutes)
b. includes the Senate and the House of Representatives
c. interprets laws through adjudication and resolution of disputes
d. promulgates rules and regulations within specialized subject matter

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

  1. The chief executive branch of government issues executive orders that interprets _____.
a. and implements and/or gives administrative effect to provisions of the constitution or laws
b. individual rules or regulations, which were written by administrative agencies
c. laws (statutes) through the adjudication and resolution of disputes
d. relevant constitutional provisions, federal/state statutes, regulations, and court decisions

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

  1. In deciding a dispute, the court or judicial branch _____.
a. applies laws that were enacted by a majority vote only
b. considers irrelevant statutes and unconstitutional provisions
c. does not have the authority to settle disputes
d. may apply the doctrines of stare decisis and res judicata

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

  1. Quasi-legal requirements may involve which of the following?
a. morals c. licensure
b. federal regulations d. statutes

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

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DescriptionBy: McWay Edition: 4th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadBy: Sole Edition: 7th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadBy:Polan Edition: 5th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadBy: Burns Edition: 7th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadEdition: 8th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Solution manual Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadBy: Savage Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant Download
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Test Bank for Legal and Ethical Aspects of Health Information Management 4th Edition by McWay

DESCRIPTION - CHAPTER SAMPLE

McWay_Chapter01_Exam MULTIPLE CHOICE
  1. Standards for human behavior are established through _____.
a. concepts c. moral principles
b. laws d. societal ideals
ANS:  B                    PTS:   1  
  1. Under civil law, the burden of proof is described as a _____.
a. determination to be met by the presiding judge at the trial
b. meeting of the minds where at least two persons or entities must reach an agreement
c. preponderance of the evidence, which is defined as “more likely than not”
d. requirement that something be proven beyond a reasonable doubt
ANS:  C                    PTS:   1
  1. Which statement is associated with civil law?
a. Defendants who do not pay court-assessed damages are imprisoned.
b. It is an area of law and justice that attempts to settle disputes among individuals.
c. Its body of law involves the state versus individuals and relies on statutory law.
d. Either plaintiff or defendant can be found partially right or wrong, but not both.
ANS:  B                    PTS:   1
  1. The plaintiff is always the state or federal government in _____ law.
a. contract c. criminal
b. Civil d. private
ANS:  C                    PTS:   1
  1. Which statement is associated with criminal law?
a. The defendant is always the state or federal government.
b. Only the plaintiff may appeal a decision.
c. Punishment may be a fine or imprisonment.
d. Federal statutes alone establish criminal law.
ANS:  C                    PTS:   1
  1. The burden of proof is “beyond a reasonable doubt” during a _____ trial?
a. civil c. contract
b. conflict d. criminal
ANS:  D                    PTS:   1
  1. Which statement is associated with a criminal trial?
a. Only the defendant may appeal a guilty verdict in a criminal case.
b. Each defendant is initially assigned a court-appointed lawyer.
c. State and federal statutes establish civil laws (or private laws).
d. The burden of proof is on the defendant named in the case.
ANS:  A                    PTS:   1
  1. Consensus ad idem is Latin for the element of a contract associated with _____.
a. obligation c. consideration
b. acceptance d. meeting of the minds
ANS:  D                    PTS:   1
  1. Consideration is an element of contract law that refers to _____.
a. business etiquette
b. exchange from one party in return for performing contractual obligations
c. one party’s agreement to a promise
d. an entity’s decision to enter into a contract
ANS:  B                    PTS:   1
  1. In Mordecai vs. Blue Cross/Blue Shield of Alabama, the court determined that _____.
a. a patient cannot sue their health insurance company for breach of contract because that is prohibited by statutory law
b. terms of an insurance policy cannot be altered after inception because the patient pays a monthly premium for insurance coverage and signing the contract protects the insurance company
c. the insurance company had the right to deny payment for major medical expenses regardless of whether procedures and services performed were medically necessary.
d. the insured had the right to proceed against the insurance company for breach of contract to determine whether it had correctly determined that patient care was not medically necessary
ANS:  D                    PTS:   1
  1. The first 10 amendments to the U.S. Constitution are called _____.
a. Judicial Declarations c. Executive Orders
b. The Bill of Rights d. Titles of Nobility
ANS:  B                    PTS:   1
  1. Which of the following is associated with the Bill of Rights?
a. protects the rights to freedom of speech and religion.
b. provides the right to vote for those age 18 and above.
c. allows unlimited rights to sue states in federal court.
d. includes equality of rights under the law regardless of gender.
ANS:  A                    PTS:   1
  1. Which constitutional amendment prohibits double jeopardy?
a. First c. Second
b. Fifth d. Sixth
ANS:  B                    PTS:   1
  1. Which is associated with the Fifth Amendment of the Constitution?
a. Accused person may not be compelled to testify against himself.
b. Guards against searches, arrests, and seizures of property without a specific warrant or a "probable cause."
c. Guarantees a speedy public trial for criminal offenses.
d. Forbids excessive bail or fines, and cruel and unusual punishment.
ANS:  A                    PTS:   1
  1. Laws passed at the local level are called _____.
a. bills c. precedence
b. ordinances d. statutes
ANS:  B                    PTS:   1
  1. From a statutory perspective, CFR is an abbreviation for _____.
a. Campaign Finance Reform c. Code of Federal Regulations
b. Case Fatality Rate d. Council of Foreign Relations
ANS:  C                    PTS:   1
  1. HIPAA is the abbreviation for the _____.
a. Healthcare Information and Payer Accessibility Act
b. Health Information Provider and Accessibility Act
c. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
d. Healthcare Insurance and Payer Accountability Act
ANS:  C                    PTS:   1
  1. Criminal law is subdivided into _____ categories.
a. felony and misdemeanor c. procedural and administrative
b. ordinal and substantive d. substantive and procedural
ANS:  D                    PTS:   1
  1. A felony is defined as a crime _____.
a. for which probation is always assigned
b. involving civil or private law
c. of grave or serious nature
d. that is punishable by a term of less than 1 year
ANS:  C                    PTS:   1
  1. Which subcategory of criminal law defines specific offenses?
a. misdemeanor c. statute
b. procedural d. substantive
ANS:  D                    PTS:   1
  1. Primary sources of public law include _____.
a. law of contracts or torts c. policies and procedures
b. law of obligations d. statutes and penal law
ANS:  D                    PTS:   1
  1. A constitution is a set of fundamental principles or established precedents according to which a state or other organization is governed. Thus, it _____.
a. defines principles for individuals, not the nation or state in which it is based
b. delineates procedures by which a court awards the defendant monetary damages
c. is considered the fundamental law of a nation or state
d. undergoes interpretation according to modern day statutes and regulations
ANS:  C                    PTS:   1
  1. Under stare decisis, _____.
a. U.S. Courts of Appeal are bound by trial court decisions of U.S. district courts in other jurisdictions
b. U.S. district courts are bound by decisions of both the U.S. Courts of Appeal and U.S. Supreme Court within the same geographic area
c. U.S. Supreme Court is bound by decisions of all U.S. courts of appeal within different jurisdictions
d. U.S. Supreme Court is obligated to follow precedent, regardless of decisions in Courts of Appeal or district courts
ANS:  B                    PTS:   1
  1. Which describes the doctrine of res judicata?
a. Appeals to a court decision are prohibited, and a plaintiff would be required to stand before the Supreme Court.
b. Final judgment of a competent court is conclusive upon the parties in any subsequent litigation involving the same cause of action.
c. Parties of a lawsuit have the option of bringing a subsequent action raising the same claim or demand.
d. Plaintiff can re-prosecute the defendant if a valid final judgment was administered by the court.
ANS:  B                    PTS:   1
  1. An electronic case filing system (ECFS) is an automated system that _____.
a. allows the general public to search pleadings and testimony
b. eliminates the need to charge a fee for the search
c. is rarely a component for case management
d. prohibits the processing and exchange of information
ANS:  A                    PTS:   1
  1. The government’s separation of powers include _____.
a. division of power that allows one branch to dominate another when deemed necessary
b. judicial, legislative and congressional branches headed by Congress
c. a provision that each branch may exercise powers involving other branches
d. a system of checks and balances that is referred to as the separation of powers
ANS:  D                    PTS:   1
  1. GINA _____.
a. addresses perceived areas of discrimination in employment and insurance
b. is the abbreviation for Genetic Insurance Nondiscrimination Act
c. prohibits the interaction of all three branches of government for enforcement
d. replaces the HIPAA statute regarding implementation of the privacy rule
ANS:  A                    PTS:   1
  1. The legislative branch of government _____.
a. enforces and administers laws (statutes)
b. includes the Senate and the House of Representatives
c. interprets laws through adjudication and resolution of disputes
d. promulgates rules and regulations within specialized subject matter
ANS:  B                    PTS:   1
  1. The chief executive branch of government issues executive orders that interprets _____.
a. and implements and/or gives administrative effect to provisions of the constitution or laws
b. individual rules or regulations, which were written by administrative agencies
c. laws (statutes) through the adjudication and resolution of disputes
d. relevant constitutional provisions, federal/state statutes, regulations, and court decisions
ANS:  A                    PTS:   1
  1. In deciding a dispute, the court or judicial branch _____.
a. applies laws that were enacted by a majority vote only
b. considers irrelevant statutes and unconstitutional provisions
c. does not have the authority to settle disputes
d. may apply the doctrines of stare decisis and res judicata
ANS:  D                    PTS:   1
  1. Quasi-legal requirements may involve which of the following?
a. morals c. licensure
b. federal regulations d. statutes
ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

Test Bank for Introduction to Critical Care Nursing 7th Edition by Sole

Chapter 05: Comfort and Sedation

Sole: Introduction to Critical Care Nursing, 7th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.Nociceptors differ from other nerve receptors in the body in that they:
a. adapt very little to continual pain response.
b. inhibit the infiltration of neutrophils and eosinophils.
c. play no role in the inflammatory response.
d. transmit only the thermal stimuli.
ANS: A Nociceptors are stimulated by mechanical, chemical, or thermal stimuli. Nociceptors differ from other nerve receptors in the body in that they adapt very little to the pain response. The body continues to experience pain until the stimulus is discontinued or therapy is initiated. This is a protective mechanism so that the body tissues being damaged will be removed from harm. Nociceptors usually initiate inflammatory responses near injured capillaries. As such, the response promotes infiltration of injured tissues with neutrophils and eosinophils. DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember/Knowledge REF: p. 54 OBJ:Discuss the physiology of pain and anxiety. TOP:Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 2.A postsurgical patient is on a ventilator in the critical care unit. The patient has been tolerating the ventilator well and has not required any sedation. On assessment, the nurse notes the patient is tachycardic and hypertensive with an increased respiratory rate of 28 breaths/min. The patient has been suctioned recently via the endotracheal tube, and the airway is clear. The patient responds appropriately to the nurse’s commands. The nurse should:
a. assess the patient’s level of pain.
b. decrease the ventilator rate.
c. provide sedation as ordered.
d. suction the patient again.
ANS: A Pulse, respirations, and blood pressure frequently result from activation of the sympathetic nervous system by the pain stimulus. Because the patient is postoperative, the patient should be assessed for the presence of pain and need for pain medication. Decreasing the ventilator rate will not help in this situation. Providing sedation may calm the patient but will not solve the problem if the physiological changes are from pain. The patient has just been suctioned and the airway is clear. There is no need to suction again. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze/Analysis REF: p. 55 OBJ: Describe the positive and negative effects of pain and anxiety in critically ill patients. TOP:Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 3.The assessment of pain and anxiety is a continuous process. When critically ill patients exhibit signs of anxiety, the nurse’s first priority is to
a. administer antianxiety medications as ordered.
b. administer pain medication as ordered.
c. identify and treat the underlying cause.
d. reassess the patient hourly to determine whether symptoms resolve on their own.
ANS: C When patients exhibit signs of anxiety or agitation, the first priority is to identify and treat the underlying cause, which could be hypoxemia, hypoglycemia, hypotension, pain, or withdrawal from alcohol and drugs. Treatment is not initiated until assessment is completed. Medication may not be needed if the underlying cause can be resolved. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply/Application REF: p. 70 | Table 5-11 OBJ: Describe methods and tools for assessing pain and anxiety in the critically ill patient. TOP:Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 4.Both the electroencephalogram (EEG) monitor and the Bispectral Index Score (BIS) or Patient State Index (PSI) analyzer monitors are used to assess patient sedation levels in critically ill patients. The BIS and PSI monitors are simpler to use because they
a. can be used only on heavily sedated patients.
b. can be used only on pediatric patients.
c. provide raw EEG data and a numeric value.
d. require only five leads.
ANS: C The BIS and PSI have very simple steps for application, and results are displayed as raw EEG data and the numeric value. A single electrode is placed across the patient’s forehead and is attached to a monitor. These monitors can be used in both children and adults and in patients with varying levels of sedation. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand/Comprehension REF: p. 60 OBJ: Describe methods and tools for assessing pain and anxiety in the critically ill patient. TOP:Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 5.The nurse is caring for a patient who requires administration of a neuromuscular blocking agent to facilitate ventilation with nontraditional modes. The nurse understands that neuromuscular blocking agents provide:
a. antianxiety effects.
b. complete analgesia.
c. high levels of sedation.
d. no sedation or analgesia.
ANS: D Neuromuscular blocking (NMB) agents do not possess any sedative or analgesic properties. Patients who receive NMBs must also receive sedatives and pain medication. DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember/Knowledge REF: p. 72 OBJ: Discuss assessment and management challenges in subsets of critically ill patients. TOP:Nursing Process Step: Implementation MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 6.The patient is receiving neuromuscular blockade. Which nursing assessment indicates a target level of paralysis?
a. Glasgow Coma Scale score of 3
b. Train-of-four yields two twitches
c. Bispectral index of 60
d. CAM-ICU positive
ANS: B A train-of-four response of two twitches (out of four) using a peripheral nerve stimulator indicates adequate paralysis. The Glasgow Coma Scale does not assess paralysis; it is an indicator of consciousness. The bispectral index provides an assessment of sedation. The CAM-ICU is a tool to assess delirium. DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember/Knowledge REF: p. 73 OBJ: Discuss assessment and management challenges in subsets of critically ill patients. TOP:Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 7.The nurse is concerned that the patient will pull out the endotracheal tube. As part of the nursing management, the nurse obtains an order for
a. arm binders or splints.
b. a higher dosage of lorazepam.
c. propofol.
d. soft wrist restraints.
ANS: D The priority in caring for agitated patients is safety. The least restrictive methods of keeping the patient safe are appropriate. If possible, the tube or device causing irritation should be removed, but if that is not possible, the nurse must prevent the patient from pulling it out. Restraints are associated with an increased incidence of agitation and delirium. Therefore, restraints should not be used unless as a last resort for combative patients. The least amount of sedation is also recommended; therefore, neither increasing the dosage of lorazepam nor adding propofol is indicated and would be likely to prolong mechanical ventilation. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply/Application REF: p. 61 OBJ:Identify nonpharmacological and pharmacological strategies to promote comfort and reduce anxiety.TOP:Nursing Process Step: Planning MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment 8.The primary mode of action for neuromuscular blocking agents used in the management of some ventilated patients is
a. analgesia.
b. anticonvulsant therapy.
c. paralysis.
d. sedation.
ANS: C These agents cause respiratory muscle paralysis. They do not provide analgesia or sedation. They do not have anticonvulsant properties. DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember/Knowledge REF: p. 72 OBJ: Discuss assessment and management challenges in subsets of critically ill patients. TOP:Nursing Process Step: Implementation MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 9.The most important nursing intervention for patients who receive neuromuscular blocking agents is to
a. administer sedatives in conjunction with the neuromuscular blocking agents.
b. assess neurological status every 30 minutes.
c. avoid interaction with the patient, because he or she won’t be able to hear.
d. restrain the patient to avoid self-extubation.
ANS: A Neuromuscular blocking agents cause paralysis only; they do not cause sedation. Therefore, concomitant administration of sedatives is essential. Neurological status is monitored according to unit protocol. Nurses should communicate with all critically ill patients, regardless of their status. If the patient is paralyzed, restraining devices may not be needed. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply/Application REF: p. 72 OBJ: Discuss assessment and management challenges in subsets of critically ill patients. TOP:Nursing Process Step: Implementation MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 10.The best way to monitor agitation and effectiveness of treating it in the critically ill patient is to use a/the:
a. Confusion Assessment Method (CAM-ICU).
b. FACES assessment tool.
c. Glasgow Coma Scale.
d. Richmond Agitation Sedation Scale.
ANS: D Various sedation scales are available to assist the nurse in monitoring the level of sedation and assessing response to treatment. The Richmond Agitation Sedation Scale is a commonly used tool that has been validated. The CAM-ICU assesses for delirium. The FACES scale assesses pain. The Glasgow Coma Scale assesses neurological status. DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember/Knowledge REF: p. 59 | Table 5-5 OBJ: Describe methods and tools for assessing pain and anxiety in the critically ill patient. TOP:Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 11.The nurse is caring for a patient receiving intravenous ibuprofen for pain management. The nurse recognizes which laboratory assessment to be a possible side effect of the ibuprofen?
a. Creatinine: 3.1 mg/dL
b. Platelet count 350,000 billion/L
c. White blood count 13, 550 mm3
d. ALT 25 U/L
ANS: A Ibuprofen can result in renal insufficiency, which may be noted in an elevated serum creatinine level. Thrombocytopenia (low platelet count) is another possible side effect. This platelet count is elevated. An elevated white blood count indicates infection. Although ibuprofen is cleared primarily by the kidneys, it is also important to assess liver function, which would show elevated liver enzymes, not low values such as shown here. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze/Analysis REF: p. 71 OBJ:Identify nonpharmacological and pharmacological strategies to promote comfort and reduce anxiety.TOP:Nursing Process Step: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 12.The nurse is assessing pain levels in a critically ill patient using the Behavioral Pain Scale. The nurse recognizes __________ as indicating the greatest level of pain.
a. brow lowering
b. eyelid closing
c. grimacing
d. relaxed facial expression
ANS: C The Behavioral Pain Scale issues the most points, indicating the greatest amount of pain, to assessment of facial grimacing. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand/Comprehension REF: p. 58 | Table 5-3 OBJ: Describe methods and tools for assessing pain and anxiety in the critically ill patient. TOP:Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 13.The nurse wishes to assess the quality of a patient’s pain. Which of the following questions is appropriate to obtain this assessment if the patient is able to give a verbal response?
a. “Is the pain constant or intermittent?”
b. “Is the pain sharp, dull, or crushing?”
c. “What makes the pain better? Worse?”
d. “When did the pain start?”
ANS: B If the patient can describe the pain, the nurse can assess quality, such as sharp, dull, or crushing. The other responses relate to continuous or intermittent presence, what provides relief, and duration. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand/Comprehension REF: p. 56 OBJ: Describe methods and tools for assessing pain and anxiety in the critically ill patient. TOP:Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 14.The nurse is assessing the patient’s pain using the Critical Care Pain Observation Tool. Which of the following assessments would indicate the greatest likelihood of pain and need for nursing intervention?
a. Absence of vocal sounds
b. Fighting the ventilator
c. Moving legs in bed
d. Relaxed muscles in upper extremities
ANS: B Fighting the ventilator is rated with the greatest number of points for compliance with the ventilator, and could indicate pain or anxiety. Absence of vocal sounds (e.g., no crying) and relaxed muscles do not indicate pain and are not given a point value. The patient may be moving the legs as a method of range of motion, not necessarily in response to pain. The patient needs to be assessed for restlessness if the movement is excessive. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply/Application REF: p. 59 | Table 5-4 OBJ: Describe methods and tools for assessing pain and anxiety in the critically ill patient. TOP:Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 15.The nurse is caring for four patients on the progressive care unit. Which patient is at greatest risk for developing delirium?
a. 36-year-old recovering from a motor vehicle crash; being treated with an evidence-based alcohol withdrawal protocol.
b. 54-year-old postoperative aortic aneurysm resection with a 40 pack-year history of smoking
c. 86-year-old from nursing home with dementia, postoperative from colon resection, still being mechanically ventilated
d. 95-year-old with community-acquired pneumonia; family has brought in eyeglasses and hearing aid
ANS: C From this list, the 86-year-old postoperative nursing home resident is at greatest risk due to advanced age, cognitive impairment, and some degree of respiratory failure. The 96-year-old has been provided eyeglasses and a hearing aid, which will decrease the risk of delirium. Smoking is a possible risk for delirium. The 36-year-old is receiving medications as part of an alcohol withdrawal protocol, which should decrease the risk for delirium. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze/Analysis REF: p. 61 | Table 5-8 OBJ: Describe methods and tools for assessing pain and anxiety in the critically ill patient. TOP:Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 16.The nurse is caring for a patient with hyperactive delirium. The nurse focuses interventions toward keeping the patient:
a. comfortable.
b. nourished.
c. safe.
d. sedated.
ANS: C The greatest priority in managing delirium is to keep the patient safe. Sedation may contribute to the development of delirium. Comfort and nutrition are important, but they are not priorities. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand/Comprehension REF: p. 61 OBJ: Identify nonpharmacological and pharmacological strategies to promote comfort, reduce anxiety, and prevent delirium. TOP: Nursing Process Step: Implementation MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment 17.The nurse is caring for a critically ill trauma patient who is expected to be hospitalized for an extended period. Which of the following nursing interventions would improve the patient’s well-being and reduce anxiety the most?
a. Arrange for the patient’s dog to be brought into the unit (per protocol).
b. Provide aromatherapy with scents such as lavender that are known to help anxiety.
c. Secure the harpist to come and play soothing music for an hour every afternoon.
d. Wheel the patient out near the unit aquarium to observe the tropical fish.
ANS: A Nonpharmacological approaches are helpful in reducing stress and anxiety, and each of these activities has the potential for improving the patient’s well-being. The patient is likely to benefit most from the presence of his or her own dog rather than the other activities, however; if unit protocol does not allow the patient’s own dog, the nurse should investigate the use of therapy animals or the other options. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply/Application REF: p. 64 OBJ: Identify nonpharmacological and pharmacological strategies to promote comfort, reduce anxiety, and prevent delirium. TOP: Nursing Process Step: Intervention MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Psychological Integrity 18.The nurse recognizes that which patient is likely to benefit most from patient-controlled analgesia (PCA)?
a. Patient with a C4 fracture and quadriplegia
b. Patient with a femur fracture and closed head injury
c. Postoperative patient who had elective bariatric surgery
d. Postoperative cardiac surgery patient with mild dementia
ANS: C The patient undergoing bariatric surgery (an elective procedure) is the best candidate for PCA as this patient should be awake, cognitively intact, and will have the acute pain related to the surgical procedure. The quadriplegic would be unable to operate the PCA pump. The cardiac surgery patient with mild dementia may not understand how to operate the pump. Likewise, the patient with the closed head injury may not be cognitively intact. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze/Analysis REF: p. 71 | Box 5-6 OBJ: Identify nonpharmacological and pharmacological strategies to promote comfort, reduce anxiety, and prevent delirium. TOP: Nursing Process Step: Intervention MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 19.The nurse is caring for a patient receiving a benzodiazepine intermittently. The nurse understands that the best way to administer such drugs is to:
a. administer around the clock, rather than as needed, to ensure constant sedation.
b. administer the medications through the feeding tube to prevent complications.
c. give the highest allowable dose for the greatest effect.
d. titrate to a predefined endpoint using a standard sedation scale.
ANS: D The best approach for administering benzodiazepines (and all sedatives) is to administer and titrate to a desired endpoint using a standard sedation scale. Administering around the clock as well as giving the highest allowable dose without basing it on an assessment target may result in excessive sedation. For greatest effect, most benzodiazepines are given intravenously. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply/Application REF: p. 72 OBJ: Identify nonpharmacological and pharmacological strategies to promote comfort, reduce anxiety, and prevent delirium. TOP: Nursing Process Step: Intervention MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 20.The nurse is concerned about the risk of alcohol withdrawal syndrome in a postoperative patient. Which statement by the nurse indicates understanding of management of this patient?
a. “Alcohol withdrawal is common; we see it all of the time in the trauma unit.”
b. “There is no way to assess for alcohol withdrawal.”
c. “This patient will require less pain medication.”
d. “We have initiated the alcohol withdrawal protocol.”
ANS: D The most important treatment of alcohol withdrawal syndrome is prevention. Many units have protocols that are initiated early to prevent the syndrome. Alcohol withdrawal syndrome is common; however, this statement does not indicate knowledge of management. The patient experiencing alcohol withdrawal may exhibit a variety of symptoms, such as disorientation, agitation, and tachycardia. Patients with substance abuse require increased dosages of pain medications. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand/Comprehension REF: p. 74 OBJ: Identify nonpharmacological and pharmacological strategies to promote comfort, reduce anxiety, and prevent delirium. TOP: Nursing Process Step: Intervention MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1.Nonpharmacological approaches to pain and/or anxiety that may best meet the needs of critically ill patients include: (Select all that apply.)
a. anaerobic exercise.
b. art therapy.
c. guided imagery.
d. music therapy.
e. animal therapy.
ANS: C, D, E Guided imagery is a powerful technique for controlling pain and anxiety, especially that associated with painful procedures. Similar to guided imagery, a music therapy program offers patients a diversionary technique for pain and anxiety relief. Likewise animal therapy has many benefits for the critically ill patient. Anaerobic exercise is not a nonpharmacological approach for managing pain and anxiety. Most critically ill patients are not able to participate in art therapy. DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember/Knowledge REF: pp. 62-64 OBJ:Identify nonpharmacological and pharmacological strategies to promote comfort and reduce anxiety.TOP:Nursing Process Step: Implementation MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 2.Which of the following statements regarding pain and anxiety are true? (Select all that apply.)
a. Anxiety is a state marked by apprehension, agitation, autonomic arousal, and/or fearful withdrawal.
b. Critically ill patients often experience anxiety, but they rarely experience pain.
c. Pain and anxiety are often interrelated and may be difficult to differentiate because their physiological and behavioral manifestations are similar.
d. Pain is defined by each patient; it is whatever the person experiencing the pain says it is.
e. While anxiety is unpleasant, it does not contribute to mortality or morbidity of the critically ill patient.
ANS: A, C, D Pain is defined by each patient, anxiety is associated with marked apprehension, and pain and anxiety are often interrelated. Critically ill patients commonly have both pain and anxiety. Anxiety does increase both morbidity and mortality in critically ill patients, especially those with cardiovascular disease. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand/Comprehension REF: p. 53 OBJ: Define pain and anxiety. TOP: Nursing Process Step: Planning MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 3.Which of the following factors predispose the critically ill patient to pain and anxiety? (Select all that apply.)
a. Inability to communicate
b. Invasive procedures
c. Monitoring devices
d. Nursing care
e. Preexisting conditions
ANS: A, B, C, D, E All of these factors predispose the patient to pain or anxiety. DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember/Knowledge REF: pp. 53-54 OBJ: Identify factors that place the critically ill patient at risk for developing pain and anxiety. TOP:Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 4.Choose the items that are common to both pain and anxiety. (Select all that apply.)
a. Cyclical exacerbation of one another
b. Require good nursing assessment for proper treatment
c. Response only to real phenomena
d. Subjective in nature
e. Perception may be influenced by prior experience
ANS: A, B, D, E Both pain and anxiety are subjective in nature. One can exacerbate the other in a vicious cycle that often requires good nursing assessment to manage the precipitating problem and break the cycle. Anxiety is a response to a real or perceived fear. Pain is a response to real or “phantom” phenomenon but always involves transmission of nerve impulses. Both relate to the patient’s perceptions of pain and fear. Previous experiences of both pain and/or anxiety can influence the patient’s perception of both. Anxiety is a response to real or perceived fear, and pain is a response to a real or “phantom” phenomenon. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand/Comprehension REF: pp. 53-54 OBJ: Identify factors that place the critically ill patient at risk for developing pain and anxiety. TOP:Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 5.Anxiety differs from pain in that: (Select all that apply.)
a. it is confined to neurological processes in the brain.
b. it is linked to reward and punishment centers in the limbic system.
c. it is subjective.
d. there is no actual tissue injury.
e. it can be increased by noise and light.
ANS: A, B, D, E Unlike pain, anxiety is linked to the reward and punishment centers in the limbic system of the brain. It is totally neurological and does not involve tissue injury. Like pain, it is a subjective phenomenon. Noise, light, and other stimuli can increase the intensity of anxiety. Both anxiety and pain are subjective in nature. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand/Comprehension REF: pp. 53-55 OBJ:Discuss the physiology of pain and anxiety. TOP: Nursing Process Step: Assessment 6.Factors in the critical care unit that may predispose the client to increased pain and anxiety include: (Select all that apply.)
a. an endotracheal tube.
b. frequent vital signs.
c. monitor alarms.
d. room temperature.
e. hostile environment.
ANS: A, B, C, D, E Anxiety is likely to result from loss of control, the inability to communicate, continuous noise and lighting, excessive stimulation (including repeated vital sign measurements), lack of mobility, and uncomfortable room temperatures. Increased anxiety levels often lead to increased pain perception. Environments that are perceived as hostile also contribute. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand/Comprehension REF: pp. 53-54 OBJ: Identify factors that place the critically ill patient at risk for developing pain and anxiety. TOP:Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 7.In the healthy individual, pain and anxiety: (Select all that apply.)
a. activate the sympathetic nervous system (SNS).
b. decrease stress levels.
c. help remove one from harm.
d. increase performance levels.
e. limit sympathetic nervous system activity.
ANS: A, C, D In the healthy person, pain and anxiety are adaptive mechanisms used to increase performance levels or to remove one from potential harm. The “fight or flight” response occurs in response to pain and/or anxiety and involves the activation of the sympathetic nervous system. Pain and anxiety, however, can induce significant stress. The SNS is activated, not limited, by pain and/or anxiety. DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember/Knowledge REF: p. 55 OBJ: Describe the positive and negative effects of pain and anxiety in critically ill patients. TOP:Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity 8.The nurse is caring for a patient who is intubated and on a ventilator following extensive abdominal surgery. Although the patient is responsive, the nurse is not able to read the patient’s lips as the patient attempts to mouth the words. Which of the following assessment tools would be the most appropriate for the nurse to use when assessing the patient’s pain level? (Select all that apply.)
a. The FACES scale
b. Pain Intensity Scale
c. The PQRST method
d. The Visual Analogue Scale
e. The CAM tool
ANS: A, D

Test Bank for Journey Across The Life Span Human Development And Health Promotion 5th Edition by Polan

Table of Content

Table of Contents Chapter 1. Healthy Lifestyles Chapter 2. Culture Chapter 3. The Family Chapter 4. Communication Chapter 5. Theories of Growth and Development Chapter 6. Prenatal Period to 1 Year Chapter 7. Toddlerhood Chapter 8. Preschool Chapter 9. School Age Chapter 10. Puberty and Adolescence Chapter 11. Early Adulthood Chapter 12. Middle Adulthood Chapter 13. Late Adulthood Chapter 14. Death and Dying

Test Bank for Shortell and Kaluznys Healthcare Management 7th Edition by Burns

CHAPTER 1: Delivering Value: The Global Challenge in Health Care Management   MULTIPLE CHOICE  
  1. What is one issue that health care organizations must address in order to create and deliver value?
a. To create appropriate barriers to health care for equity
b. To improve access to health care
c. To increase cost acceleration
d. To decrease the overall quality of care
    ANS:  B  
  Feedback
A Incorrect: Improving access to health care must be addressed to create and deliver value.
B Correct: Improving access to health care must be addressed to create and deliver value.
C Incorrect: Improving access to health care must be addressed to create and deliver value.
D Incorrect: Improving access to health care must be addressed to create and deliver value.
    PTS:   1  
  1. Health care concerns shared by the United States, China, and India include concerns over ____.
a. the consolidated financial mechanism
b. lack of spending at the local level
c. the low number of specialists
d. lifestyle issues and behaviors
    ANS:  D  
  Feedback
A Incorrect: Health care concerns shared by the United States, China, and India include concerns over lifestyle issues and behaviors.
B Incorrect: Health care concerns shared by the United States, China, and India include concerns over lifestyle issues and behaviors.
C Incorrect: Health care concerns shared by the United States, China, and India include concerns over lifestyle issues and behaviors.
D Correct: Health care concerns shared by the United States, China, and India include concerns over lifestyle issues and behaviors.
    PTS:   1  
  1. The Premier Hospital Quality Incentive Demonstration (PHQID) was launched to determine if economic incentives are effective at improving ____.
a. the cost of inpatient care c. the cost of outpatient care
b. the quality of inpatient care d. the quality of outpatient care
    ANS:  B  
  Feedback
A Incorrect: The Premier Hospital Quality Incentive Demonstration (PHQID) was launched to determine if economic incentives are effective at improving the quality of inpatient care.
B Correct: The Premier Hospital Quality Incentive Demonstration (PHQID) was launched to determine if economic incentives are effective at improving the quality of inpatient care.
C Incorrect: The Premier Hospital Quality Incentive Demonstration (PHQID) was launched to determine if economic incentives are effective at improving the quality of inpatient care.
D Incorrect: The Premier Hospital Quality Incentive Demonstration (PHQID) was launched to determine if economic incentives are effective at improving the quality of inpatient care.
    PTS:   1  
  1. Investor-owned facilities comprise about ____ percent of the hospital sector.
a. 15–20 c. 55–60
b. 30–35 d. 75–80
    ANS:  A  
  Feedback
A Correct: Investor-owned facilities comprise about 15–20 percent of the hospital sector.
B Incorrect: Investor-owned facilities comprise about 15–20 percent of the hospital sector.
C Incorrect: Investor-owned facilities comprise about 15–20 percent of the hospital sector.
D Incorrect: Investor-owned facilities comprise about 15–20 percent of the hospital sector.
    PTS:   1  
  1. Organizations within the health care industry have increasingly consolidated into ____ over the past two decades with the stated objective of being more efficient, but may not operate as such.
a. community care centers c. systems
b. corporations d. foundations
    ANS:  C  
  Feedback
A Incorrect: Organizations within the health care industry have increasingly consolidated into systems over the past two decades with the stated objective of being more efficient, but may not operate as such.
B Incorrect: Organizations within the health care industry have increasingly consolidated into systems over the past two decades with the stated objective of being more efficient, but may not operate as such.
C Correct: Organizations within the health care industry have increasingly consolidated into systems over the past two decades with the stated objective of being more efficient, but may not operate as such.
D Incorrect: Organizations within the health care industry have increasingly consolidated into systems over the past two decades with the stated objective of being more efficient, but may not operate as such.
    PTS:   1  
  1. The Human Relations School ascertains that in order to improve productivity, management must ____.
a. implement the top-down control of work
b. minimize the input of workers
c. offer monetary incentives
d. understand the informal organization of workers
    ANS:  D

Solution Manual for Spreadsheet Modeling and Decision Analysis 8th Edition by Ragsdale

Chapter 1 Introduction to Modeling & Problem Solving  
  1. Solution Manual for Spreadsheet Modeling and Decision Analysis  Decision Analysis - Identifying and evaluating the different possible courses of action that might be chosen to address a decision problem.
 
  1. Solution Manual for Spreadsheet Modeling and Decision Analysis  Computer Model - A set of mathematical relationships and logical assumptions implemented in a computer as a representation of some real-world object or phenomenon.
 
  1. A spreadsheet model is a type (or special case) of a computer model where a spreadsheet is used to implement the model.
 
  1. Solution Manual for Spreadsheet Modeling and Decision Analysis  Business Analytics - A field of study that uses computers, statistics and mathematics to solve business problems.
 
  1. Many of the tools and techniques from the field of business analytics can be implemented and used in spreadsheets.
 
  1. Solution Manual for Spreadsheet Modeling and Decision Analysis  Spreadsheets are sometimes used to store lists of data; such as the grades of students in a class, or names addresses and phone numbers of friends and family. These types of "data base" applications of spreadsheets do not fall into the area of business analytics unless they data is being “mined” with a specific objective in mind.
 
  1. Spreadsheets facilitate the decision-making process by making it easier to play out various what-if scenarios.
 
  1. A modeling approach to decision making is beneficial in that the decision maker can analyze the probable impact of numerous alternative before selecting an alternative for implementation.
 
  1. Dependent Variable - A bottom-line performance measure of interest to the decision maker that is influenced by other variables in the model; denoted by the symbol Y in the expression Y=(X1, X2, ... X3).
 
  1. Solution Manual for Spreadsheet Modeling and Decision Analysis  Independent Variable - A variable that influences (or plays a role in determining) the value of some bottom-line performance measure (dependent variable); denoted by the symbols Xiin the expression Y=(X1, X2, ... X3).
 
  1. Yes, a model can have more than one dependent variable. In some decision problems a manager might be interested in evaluating various alternatives on the basis of profit, probable number of injuries, resulting amount of toxic waste produced, etc.  Each of the variables represents a bottom-line performance measure that the manager might be interested in that should be included in the model.
 
  1. Yes. See the answer to the previous question.
 
  1. The solution to prescriptive models tell managers what actions to take while descriptive models simply describe the operation of a system. In descriptive models, the values to be assumed by one or more independent variables are uncertain and not under the decision maker's control.
 
  1. The solution to prescriptive models tell managers what actions to take while predictive models provide forecasts of what will happen in the future. In predictive models, the functional form () describing the nature of the relationship between the dependent and independent variable is ill-defined or not precisely known.
 
  1. Descriptive models have a well-defined functional form, but the values of one or more of the independent variables are unknown or uncertain. In predictive models, the values of the independent variables are known or under the decision maker's control, but the functional form () describing the nature of the relationship between the dependent and independent variables is ill-defined or not precisely known.
 
  1. Description - To report on or summarize the features, characteristics or behavior of some object or phenomenon.
Prediction - An estimate or forecast of what will occur in the future. Prescription - Directions, orders, or advise on how to solve a problem.  
  1. Consider the problem of determining how to travel from your home to school or work. There are probably many different routes that could be taken that might influence the total distance (or total length of time) required for the trip.  Most people would be interested in determining the route that requires the least distance (or least amount of time).  In this sort of problem (also known as a shortest path problem) the different routes that can be chosen represent independent variables and the dependent variable would be the total distance (or total travel time).
 
  1. The spreadsheet in Figure 1.2 most closely resembles a prescriptive model because the function form () relating the dependent and independent variables is well-defined and the values of the independent variables are known, or are under the decision maker's control.
 
  1. “Probortunity” is the combination of the words problem and opportunity and denotes the fact that every problem can also be viewed as an opportunity.
 
  1. The steps in the problem solving process are:
  1) Identify the problem 2) Formulate and implement a model 3) Analyze the model 4) Test the result of the model 5) Implement the solution

Test Bank for Public Health Science and Nursing Practice Caring For Populations by Savage

Chapter 10: Mental Health MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1.According to Healthy People 2020, which of the following are characteristics of mental health? Select all that apply.
A. Engaging in productive activities
B. Having fulfilling relationships
C. Experiencing alterations in thinking
D. Adapting to change
E. Coping with challenges
ANS: A, B, D, E Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders. pp. 225-226 Heading: Introduction Integrated Processes: N/A Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Knowledge [Remembering] Concept: Promoting Health Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
1. Mental health is a state of successful performance of mental function, including engagement in productive activities.
2. Mental health is a state of successful performance of mental function, including being able to form fulfilling relationships with other people.
3. This is incorrect; it is an example of a mental disorder. Mental disorders are health conditions that are characterized by alterations in thinking, mood, or behavior that are associated with distress or impaired functioning.
4. Mental health is a state of successful performance of mental function, including the ability to adapt to change.
5. Mental health is a state of successful performance of mental function, including the ability to cope with challenges.
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health MULTIPLE CHOICE 2.In 2010, approximately how many people in the United States reported experiencing mental disorders in the previous year?
A. 15%
B. 50%
C. 30%
D. 25%
ANS: D Objective: 1. Define the burden of disease related to mental disorders using current epidemiological frameworks. pp. 226-227 Heading: Epidemiology of Mental Disorders Integrated Processes: N/A Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Comprehension [Understanding] Concept: Promoting Health Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A This is incorrect. In the United States in 2010 an estimated 25% of adults reported having mental disorders in the previous year.
B This is incorrect. In the United States in 2010 an estimated 25% of adults reported having mental disorders in the previous year.
C This is incorrect. In the United States in 2010 an estimated 25% of adults reported having mental disorders in the previous year.
D In the United States in 2010 an estimated 25% of adults reported having mental disorders in the previous year.
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health 3.A student nurse is studying stress and mental health. The student nurse learns that ____ is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events.
A. Intervention
B. Support
C. Resilience
D. Therapy
ANS: C Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders. pp. 229-231 Heading: Protective Factors: Building Resilience Integrated Processes: Teaching/Learning Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Trauma; Stress; Promoting Health; Nursing Roles Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A This is incorrect. Resilience is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events. Preventive and treatment interventions are useful tools to build on an individual’s natural resilience to promote positive outcomes.
B This is incorrect. Resilience is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events. Support from family, friends, and community is an important part of strengthening an individual’s resilience.
C Resilience is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events.
D This is incorrect. Resilience is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events. Therapy is an important part of an overall treatment plan, in conjunction with intervention, support, and an individual’s capacity for resilience.
PTS: 1 CON: Trauma | Stress | Promoting Health | Nursing Roles 4.____ addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder.
A. Indicated prevention
B. Selective prevention
C. Universal prevention
D. Both 1 and 2
ANS: A Objective: 4. Apply current evidence-based population level interventions to the prevention of mental disorders and the promotion of optimal mental health for communities and populations. pp. 232-233 Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Institute of Medicine Model of Prevention Integrated Processes: Nursing Process Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Comprehension [Understanding] Concept: Promoting Health Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A Indicated prevention addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder. The purpose of indicated techniques is to delay or reduce the severity of a mental disorder.
B Selective prevention includes interventions provided to specific subgroups that are known to be at high risk for mental disorders owing to biological, psychological, social, or environmental factors but that have not yet been diagnosed with mental disorders. High-risk subgroups include but are not limited to those with a family history of mental disorders, history of adverse childhood events, or victims of violence.
C Universal prevention refers to prevention interventions provided to the entire population, not just those who may be at risk. The interventions include but are not limited to public service announcements provided to the public at large through billboards, media messages (print and electronic), or general health education programs.
D Indicated prevention addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder. The purpose of indicated techniques is to delay or reduce the severity of a mental disorder. Selective prevention includes interventions provided to specific subgroups that are known to be at high risk for mental disorders owing to biological, psychological, social, or environmental factors but that have not yet been diagnosed with mental disorders. High-risk subgroups include but are not limited to those with a family history of mental disorders, history of adverse childhood events, or victims of violence.
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health 5.The public health nurse (PHN) recognizes that which of the following are used as screening tools for depression?
A. Patient Health Questionnaire 2
B. Center for Epidemiological Studies Depression Scale (CESD-10)
C. Brief Symptom Checklist-18 of the My Mood Monitor (M-3)
D. Both 1 and 2
ANS: D Objective: 5. Describe systems approaches to the promotion of mental health and the prevention and treatment of mental health disorders. p. 232 Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Measure of Mental Health: Health-Related Quality of Life Integrated Processes: Nursing Process Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Promoting Health; Mood; Assessment Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A Tools to screen for depression include the Patient Health Questionnaire 2 and the CESD-10.
B Tools to screen for depression include the Patient Health Questionnaire 2 and the CESD-10.
C This is incorrect. Tools to screen for depression include the Patient Health Questionnaire 2 and the CESD-10. Screening tools for anxiety disorders include the Brief Symptom Checklist-18 of the My Mood Monitor (M-3).
D Tools to screen for depression include the Patient Health Questionnaire 2 and the CESD-10.
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health | Mood | Assessment 6.During a course on mental disorders, a PHN learns that the term serious mental illness (SMI) refers to diagnosable mental disorders that may disrupt a person’s ability to function and may qualify that person for support services. The PHN also notes that the mental disorders that can lead to SMI include:
A. Mild depression
B. Panic disorder
C. Schizophrenia
D. Both 2 and 3
ANS: D Objective: 1. Define the burden of disease related to mental disorders using current epidemiological frameworks. pp. 225-226 Heading: Introduction Integrated Processes: Teaching/Learning Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Cognition; Mood; Stress; Promoting Health; Nursing Roles Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A This is incorrect. Major depression, however, is one of the mental disorders that can lead to SMI.
B Both panic disorder and schizophrenia, among other mental disorders, can lead to SMI.
C Both schizophrenia and panic disorder, among other mental disorders, can lead to SMI.
D The mental disorders that can lead to SMI include major depression, panic disorder, schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD), post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), and borderline personality disorder.
PTS: 1 CON: Cognition | Mood | Stress | Promoting Health | Nursing Roles 7.While studying the prevalence of mental health disorders worldwide, a PHN learns about the World Mental Health Survey, which is used to determine estimates of human capital costs and prevalence of mental disorders in a wide range of countries. The survey was developed by
A. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
B. The World Health Organization (WHO)
C. The Institute of Medicine (IOM)
D. The World Health Assembly
ANS: B Objective: 1. Define the burden of disease related to mental disorders using current epidemiological frameworks. p. 227 Heading: Epidemiology of Mental Disorders > Surveillance of Mental Health Disorders Integrated Processes: Teaching/Learning Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Promoting Health; Nursing Roles Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A This is incorrect. WHO developed the World Mental Health Survey to estimate human capital costs and mental disorders prevalence on a global scale. The CDC conducts many types of surveys on the prevalence of mental disorders but the organization did not develop the World Mental Health Survey.
B The WHO developed the World Mental Health Survey to estimate human capital costs and mental disorders prevalence on a global scale.
C This is incorrect. WHO developed the World Mental Health Survey to estimate human capital costs and mental disorders prevalence on a global scale. The IOM is involved in screening for mental health disorders and addresses the need for appropriate behavioral health treatment in its report, Improving the Quality of Health Care for Mental and Substance-Use Conditions: Quality Chasm Series.
D This is incorrect. WHO developed the World Mental Health Survey to estimate human capital costs and mental disorders prevalence on a global scale. The World Health Assembly issued a resolution on mental health that aims to reduce the global burden of mental disorders and improve overall mental health worldwide.
PTS: 1 CON: Promoting Health | Nursing Roles 8.Which ethnic group has the highest 12-month prevalence of a mental disorder?
A. Hispanics
B. African Americans
C. Asian Americans
D. Non-Hispanic whites
ANS: D Objective: 1. Define the burden of disease related to mental disorders using current epidemiological frameworks. pp. 227-228 Heading: Epidemiology of Mental Disorders > Prevalence of Mental Health Disorders Integrated Processes: N/A Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Knowledge [Remembering] Concept: Promoting Health Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A This is incorrect. Non-Hispanic whites have the highest 12-month prevalence rate for mental disorders at 21% compared with 16% for Hispanics.
B This is incorrect. Non-Hispanic whites have the highest 12-month prevalence rate for mental disorders at 21% compared with 15% for African Americans.
C This is incorrect. Non-Hispanic whites have the highest 12-month prevalence rate for mental disorders at 21% compared with 9% for Asian Americans.
D Non-Hispanic whites have the highest 12-month prevalence rate for mental disorders at 21%.
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health 9.A PHN learns in a behavioral health class that the relationship between physiology and mental health plays an important role in mental disorders. Which of the following physiological factors may contribute to the development of mental disorders?
A. Conditions that affect brain chemistry, such as medication side effects or toxins
B. Physical trauma
C. 1 and 2
D. Unstable family life
ANS: C Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders. pp. 228-229 Heading: Behavioral, Biological, Environmental, and Socioeconomic Risk Factors > Individual Level Risk Factors for Mental Disorders Integrated Processes: Teaching/Learning Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Application] Concept: Cognition; Trauma; Promoting Health Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A Both conditions that affect brain chemistry and physical trauma are the physiological factors that may contribute to the development of mental disorders.
B Both physical trauma and conditions that affect brain chemistry are physiological factors that may contribute to the development of mental disorders.
C Conditions that affect brain chemistry and physical trauma are two of the physiological factors that may contribute to the development of mental disorders.
D This is incorrect. Conditions that affect brain chemistry and physical trauma are two of the physiological factors that may contribute to the development of mental disorders. An unstable family life is not a physiological factor, although it may also contribute to the development of mental disorders.
PTS:1CON:Cognition | Trauma | Promoting Health 10.Which of the following community environment factors play a role in the development of mental disorders?
A. Living in high crime areas
B. Poverty
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Family instability
ANS: C Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders. p. 229 Heading: Behavioral, Biological, Environmental, and Socioeconomic Risk Factors > Community-Level Risk Factors for Mental Disorders Integrated Processes: N/A Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Comprehension [Understanding] Concept: Promoting Health Difficulty: Easy
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A Living in high crime areas is a factor, along with poverty.
B Both poverty and living in high crime areas play a role in the development of mental disorders.
C Both poverty and living in high crime areas play a role in the development of mental disorders.
D This is incorrect. Although family instability often contributes to the development of mental disorders, it is not considered a community environment factor.
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health 11.____ is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable.
A. Indicated prevention
B. Stigma
C. Risk factors
D. Transinstitutionalization
ANS: B Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders. pp. 231-232 Heading: Culture, Stigma, and Mental Health Disorders Integrated Processes: N/A Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Comprehension [Understanding] Concept: Promoting Health Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A This is incorrect. Stigma is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable. Indicated prevention addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder.
B Stigma is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable.
C This is incorrect. Stigma is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable. Risk factors increase an individual’s chance of developing a mental disorder.
D This is incorrect. Stigma is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable. Transinstitutionalization refers to the growing number of mentally ill persons who are homeless, in jail, in shelters, or in other facilities instead of being home or in a hospital.
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health 12.A nurse interested in working with persons with mental disorders who live in poverty understands that the most effective treatment involves multiple sectors of society, such as government agencies, grass roots groups, nonprofits, and businesses, working in tandem. This interrelationship is called:
A. Indicated prevention
B. Intersectoral strategies
C. Health-Related Quality of Life
D. Institute of Medicine Model of Prevention
ANS: B Objective: 4. Apply current evidence-based population level interventions to the prevention of mental disorders and the promotion of optimal mental health for communities and populations. p. 233 Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Promotion of Mental Health and Policy Integrated Processes: Nursing Process Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Promoting Health; Collaboration Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A This is incorrect. Intersectoral strategies engage more than one sector of society with a shared interest such as government agencies, grass roots citizens groups, nonprofits, and businesses. Indicated prevention addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder.
B Intersectoral strategies engage more than one sector of society with a shared interest such as government agencies, grass roots citizens groups, nonprofits, and businesses.
C This is incorrect. Intersectoral strategies engage more than one sector of society with a shared interest such as government agencies, grass roots citizens groups, nonprofits, and businesses. Health-Related Quality of Life is the self-perceived impact of physical and emotional health on overall quality of life.
D This is incorrect. Intersectoral strategies engage more than one sector of society with a shared interest such as government agencies, grass roots citizens groups, nonprofits, and businesses. The Institute of Medicine Model of Prevention is a framework for mental disorders that clearly separates prevention into three categories with specific interventions at each level.
PTS: 1 CON: Promoting Health | Collaboration 13.A recent graduate nurse working in an urban labor and delivery unit had a patient who experienced a difficult labor. The mother, suffering from postpartum depression (PPD), committed suicide a year after giving birth. Although the nurse knew the basics about PPD, the nurse immediately studied the condition in depth and learned that PPD:
A. Can be triggered by a massive hormone drop following delivery
B. Can intensify to cause delusions
C. Occurs soon after delivery
D. All of the above
ANS: D Objective: 4. Apply current evidence-based population level interventions to the prevention of mental disorders and the promotion of optimal mental health for communities and populations. pp. 233-235 Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Secondary Prevention: Screening for Mental Disorders Integrated Processes: Nursing Process Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Pregnancy; Mood; Violence; Promoting Health; Nursing Roles Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A PPD can be triggered by a massive post-delivery hormone drop, intensify enough to cause delusions, and occur soon after delivery.
B PPD can be triggered by a massive post-delivery hormone drop, intensify enough to cause delusions, and occur soon after delivery.
C PPD can be triggered by a massive post-delivery hormone drop, intensify enough to cause delusions, and occur soon after delivery.
D PPD can be triggered by a massive post-delivery hormone drop, intensify enough to cause delusions, and occur soon after delivery.
PTS: 1 CON: Pregnancy | Mood | Violence | Promoting Health | Nursing Roles 14.A nurse working in labor and delivery requested permission from the nurse manager to conduct a quality improvement project to screen patients that might be susceptible to PPD. After completing the project, which of the following screening guidelines did the unit incorporate?
A. All patients will be screened for PPD when they are admitted to the labor and delivery unit.
B. Patients at high risk are referred to the attending obstetrician.
C. Before being discharged, all new mothers will complete a questionnaire specific to PPD symptoms.
D. All of the above
ANS: D Objective: Apply current evidence-based population level interventions to the prevention of mental disorders and the promotion of optimal mental health for communities and populations. pp. 233-235 Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Secondary Prevention: Screening for Mental Disorders Integrated Processes: Nursing Process Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Pregnancy; Mood; Promoting Health; Assessment; Quality Improvement Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A This is incorrect. Screening, high-risk referrals to the attending obstetrician and completion of a PPD symptom questionnaire were all incorporated.
B This is incorrect. Screening, high-risk referrals to the attending obstetrician and completion of a PPD symptom questionnaire were all incorporated.
C This is incorrect. Screening, high-risk referrals to the attending obstetrician and completion of a PPD symptom questionnaire were all incorporated.
D Screening, high-risk referrals to the attending obstetrician and completion of a PPD symptom questionnaire were all incorporated.
PTS:1 CON: Pregnancy | Mood | Promoting Health | Assessment | Quality Improvement 15.A PHN treats a patient who may be depressed. To verify suspicions, the PHN checks ____, the definitive clinical guide for diagnosing mental disorders and providing consistency and accuracy in the screening for mental disorders.
A. The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5)
B. The Center for Epidemiological Studies Depression Scale (CESD-10)
C. Patient Health Questionnaire 2
D. Brief System Checklist-18 of the My Mood Monitor
ANS: A
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