Content | LeMone & Burke's Medical-Surgical Nursing, 7e (Bauldoff/Gubrud/Carno)
Chapter 1 Medical-Surgical Nursing in the 21st Century
1) A patient is instructed on the role of diet, exercise, and medication to control type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which core competency for healthcare professionals is the nurse implementing?
- Quality improvement
- Evidence-based practice
- Patient-centered care
- Teamwork and collaboration
Answer: 3
Explanation: 1. Identifying safety hazards and measuring quality is an example of the core competency quality improvement.
- Using best research when providing patient care is an example of the core competency evidence-based practice.
- Patient teaching is an example of the competency patient-centered care.
- The core competency teamwork and collaboration involves collaboration between disciplines to provide continuous and reliable care.
Page Ref: 5
Cognitive Level: Applying
Client Need & Sub: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
Standards: QSEN Competencies: I.A.1. Integrate understanding of multiple dimensions of patient-centered care | AACN Essentials Competencies: IX.7. Provide appropriate patient teaching that reflects developmental stage, age, culture, spirituality, patient preferences, and health literacy considerations to foster patient engagement in their care | NLN Competencies: Relationship-Centered Care; Practice-Know-How; Communicate information effectively; listen openly and cooperatively | Nursing/Integrated Concepts: Nursing Process: Implementation/Teaching/Learning
Learning Outcome: 1.1 Describe the core competencies for healthcare professionals: Patient-centered care, interprofessional teams, evidence-based practice, quality improvement, safety, and health information technology.
MNL Learning Outcome: 1. Demonstrate use of the core competencies for healthcare professionals in nursing practice.
2) The nurse is planning to utilize the core competency use informatics when providing patient care. Which action should the nurse perform when using this core competency?
- Change the sharps container in a patient's room.
- Document the effectiveness of pain medication for a patient.
- Discuss the effectiveness of bedside physical therapy with the therapist.
- Search through a database of articles to find current research on wound care.
Answer: 4
Explanation: 1. Changing the sharps container is an example of quality improvement.
- Documenting the effectiveness of pain medication for a patient is an example of patient-centered care.
- Discussing the effectiveness of bedside physical therapy with the therapist is an example of teamwork and collaboration.
- Searching through a database of articles to find current research on wound care is an example of use informatics.
Page Ref: 5
Cognitive Level: Applying
Client Need & Sub: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
Standards: QSEN Competencies: VI.B.2. Apply technology and information management tools to support safe processes of care | AACN Essentials Competencies: IV.1. Demonstrate skills in using patient care technologies, information systems, and communication devices that support safe nursing practice | NLN Competencies: Knowledge and Science: Practice-Know-How: Retrieve research findings and other sources of information | Nursing/Integrated Concepts: | Medical-Surgical Nursing: Making Connections to Practice 1st edition Hoffman, Sullivan Test Bank
Chapter 1: Foundations for Medical-Surgical Nursing
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. The medical-surgical nurse identifies a clinical practice issue and wants to determine if there is sufficient evidence to support a change in practice. Which type of study provides the strongest evidence to support a
practice change?
1) Randomized control study
2) Quasi-experimental study
3) Case-control study
4) Cohort study
____ 2. The medical-surgical unit recently implemented a patient-centered care model. Which action implemented by
the nurse supports this model?
1) Evaluating care
2) Assessing needs
3) Diagnosing problems
4) Providing compassion
____ 3. Which action should the nurse implement when providing patient care in order to support The Joint
Commission’s (TJC) National Patient Safety Goals (NPSG)?
1) Silencing a cardiorespiratory monitor
2) Identifying each patient using one source
3) Determining patient safety issues upon admission
4) Decreasing the amount of pain medication administered
____ 4. Which interprofessional role does the nurse often assume when providing patient care in an acute care
setting?
1) Social worker
2) Client advocate
3) Care coordinator
4) Massage therapist
____ 5. The medical-surgical nurse wants to determine if a policy change is needed for an identified clinical problem.
Which is the first action the nurse should implement?
1) Developing a question
2) Disseminating the findings
3) Conducting a review of the literature
4) Evaluating outcomes of practice change
____ 6. The nurse is evaluating the level of evidence found during a recent review of the literature. Which evidence
carries the lowest level of support for a practice change?
1) Level IV
2) Level V
3) Level VI
4) Level VII
____ 7. The nurse is reviewing evidence from a quasi-experimental research study. Which level of evidence should
the nurse identify for this research study?
1) Level ITestBankWorld.org
2) Level II
3) Level III
4) Level IV
____ 8. Which level of evidence should the nurse identify when reviewing evidence from a single descriptive research
study?
1) Level IV
2) Level V
3) Level VI
4) Level VII
____ 9. Which statement should the nurse make when communicating the “S” in the SBAR approach for effective
communication?
1) “The patient presented to the emergency department at 0200 with lower left abdominal
pain.”
2) “The patient rated the pain upon admission as a 9 on a 10-point numeric scale.”
3) “The patient has no significant issues in the medical history.”
4) “The patient was given a prescribed opioid analgesic at 0300.”
____ 10. The staff nurse is communicating with the change nurse about the change of status of the patient. The nurse
would begin her communication with which statement if correctly using the SBAR format?
1) “The patient’s heartrate is 110.”
2) “I think this patient needs to be transferred to the critical care unit.”
3) “The patient is a 68-year-old male patient admitted last night.”
4) “The patient is complaining of chest pain.”
____ 11. Which nursing action exemplifies the Quality and Safety Education for Nursing (QSEN) competency of
safety?
1) Advocating for a patient who is experiencing pain
2) Considering the patient’s culture when planning care
3) Evaluating patient learning style prior to implementing discharge instructions
4) Assessing the right drug prior to administering a prescribed patient medication
____ 12. Which type of nursing is the root of all other nursing practice areas?
1) Pediatric nursing
2) Geriatric nursing
3) Medical-surgical nursing
4) Mental health-psychiatric nursing
____ 13. Which did the Nursing Executive Center of The Advisory Board identify as an academic-practice gap for new
graduate nurses?
1) Patient advocacy
2) Patient education
3) Disease pathophysiology
4) Therapeutic communication
____ 14. Which statement regarding the use of the nursing process in clinical practice is accurate?
1) “The nursing process is closely related to clinical decision-making.”
2) “The nursing process is used by all members of the interprofessional team to plan care.”
3) “The nursing process has 4 basic steps: assessment, planning, implementation,
evaluation.”
4) “The nursing process is being replaced by the implementation of evidence-based practice.”TestBankWorld.org
____ 15. Which is the basis of nursing care practices and protocols?
1) Assessment
2) Evaluation
3) Diagnosis
4) Research
____ 16. Which is a common theme regarding patient dissatisfaction related to care provided in the hospital setting?
1) Space in hospital rooms
2) Medications received to treat pain
3) Time spent with the health-care team
4) Poor quality food received from dietary
____ 17. The nurse manager is preparing a medical-surgical unit for The Joint Commission (TJC) visit With the nurse
manager presenting staff education focusing on TJC benchmarks, which of the following topics would be
most appropriate?
1) Implementation of evidence-based practice
2) Implementation of patient-centered care
3) Implementation of medical asepsis practices
4) Implementation of interprofessional care
____ 18. Which aspect of patient-centered care should the nurse manager evaluate prior to The Joint Commission site
visit for accreditation?
1) Visitation rights
2) Education level of staff
3) Fall prevention protocol
4) Infection control practices
____ 19. The medical-surgical nurse is providing patient care. Which circumstance would necessitate the nurse
verifying the patient’s identification using at least two sources?
1) Prior to delivering a meal tray
2) Prior to passive range of motion
3) Prior to medication administration
4) Prior to documenting in the medical record
____ 20. The nurse is providing care to several patients on a medical-surgical unit. Which situation would necessitate
the nurse to use SBAR during the hand-off process?
1) Wound care
2) Discharge to home
3) Transfer to radiology
4) Medication education
Multiple Response
Identify one or more choices that best complete the statement or answer the question.
____ 21. The staff nurse is teaching a group of student nurses the situations that necessitate hand-off communication.
Which student responses indicate the need for further education related to this procedure? Select all that
apply.
1) “A hand-off is required prior to administering a medication.”
2) “A hand-off is required during change of shift.”
3) “A hand-off is required for a patient is transferred to the surgical suite.”TestBankWorld.org
4) “A hand-off is required whenever the nurse receives a new patient assignment.”
5) “A hand-off is required prior to family visitation.”
____ 22. Which actions by the nurse enhance patient safety during medication administration? Select all that apply.
1) Answering the call bell while transporting medications for a different patient
2) Identifying the patient using two sources prior to administering the medication
3) Holding a medication if the patient’s diagnosis does not support its use
4) Administering the medication two hours after the scheduled time
5) Having another nurse verify the prescribed dose of insulin the patient is to receive
____ 23. The medical-surgical nurse assumes care for a patient who is receiving continuous cardiopulmonary
monitoring. Which actions by the nurse enhance safety for this patient? Select all that apply.
1) Silencing the alarm during family visitation
2) Assessing the alarm parameters at the start of the shift
3) Responding to the alarm in a timely fashion
4) Decreasing the alarm volume to enhance restful sleep
5) Adjusting alarm parameters based on specified practitioner prescription
____ 24. The nurse is planning an interprofessional care conference for a patient who is approaching discharge from
the hospital. Which members of the interprofessional team should the nurse invite to attend? Select all that
apply.
1) Physician
2) Pharmacist
3) Unit secretary
4) Social worker
5) Home care aide
____ 25. The nurse manager wants to designate a member of the nursing team as the care coordinator for a patient who
will require significant care during the hospitalization. Which skills should this nurse possess in order to
assume this role? Select all that apply.
1) Effective clinical reasoning
2) Effective communication skills
3) Effective infection control procedures
4) Effective documentation
5) Effective intravenous skillsTestBankWorld.org
Chapter 1: Foundations for Medical-Surgical Nursing
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. ANS: 1
Chapter number and title: 1, Foundations for Medical Surgical Practice
Chapter learning objective: Discussing the incorporation of evidence-based practices into medical-surgical
nursing
Chapter page reference: 003-004
Heading: Evidence-Based Nursing Care
Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Planning
Client Need: Safe and Effective Care Environment/Management of Care
Cognitive level: Comprehension [Understanding]
Concept: Evidence-Based Practice
Difficulty: Easy
Feedback
1 Systematic reviews of randomized control studies (Level I) are the highest level of
evidence because they include data from selected studies that randomly assigned
participants to control and experimental groups. The lower the numerical rating of the
level of evidence indicates the highest level of evidence; therefore, this type of study
provides the strongest evidence to support a practice change.
2 Quasi-experimental studies are considered Level III; therefore, this study does not
provide the strongest evidence to support a practice change.
3 Case-control studies are considered Level IV; therefore, this study does not provide the
strongest evidence to support a practice change.
4 Cohort studies are considered Level IV; therefore, this study does not provide the
strongest evidence to support a practice change.
PTS: 1 CON: Evidence-Based Practice
2. ANS: 4
Chapter number and title: 1, Foundations of Medical-Surgical Practice
Chapter learning objective: Explaining the importance of patient-centered care in the management of
medical-surgical patients
Chapter page reference: 004-005
Heading: Patient-Centered Care in the Medical-Surgical Setting
Integrated Processes: Caring
Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
Cognitive level: Application [Applying]
Concept: Nursing Roles
Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
1 Evaluation is a step in the nursing process; however, this is not an action that supports
the patient-centered care model.
2 Assessment is a step in the nursing process; however, this is not an action that supports
the patient-centered care model.TestBankWorld.org
3 Diagnosis is a step in the nursing process; however, this is not an action that supports
the patient-centered care model.
4 Compassion is a competency closely associated with patient-centered care; therefore,
this action supports the patient-centered model of care.
PTS: 1 CON: Nursing Roles
3. ANS: 3
Chapter number and title: 1, Foundations of Medical-Surgical Nursing Practice
Chapter learning objective: Discussing implications to medical-surgical nurses of Quality and Safety
Education for Nurses (QSEN) competencies
Chapter page reference: 005-006
Heading: Patient Safety Outcomes
Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Implementation
Client Need: Safe and Effective Care Environment/Management of Care
Cognitive level: Application [Applying]
Concept: Safety
Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
1 Safely using alarms is a NPSG identified by TJC. Silencing a cardiorespiratory monitor
is not nursing action that supports this NPSG.
2 Patient identification using two separate resources is a NPSG identified by TJC.
Identifying a patient using only one source does not support this NPSG.
3 Identification of patient safety risks is a NPSG identified by the TJC. Determining
patient safety issues upon admission supports this NPSG.
4 Safe use of medication is a NPSG identified by the TJC. Decreasing the amount of pain
medication administered does not support this NPSG.
PTS: 1 CON: Safety
4. ANS: 3
Chapter number and title: 1, Foundations of Medical-Surgical Nursing Practice
Chapter learning objective: Describing the role and competencies of medical-surgical nursing
Chapter page reference: 006-007
Heading: Interprofessional Collaboration and Communication
Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Implementation
Client Need: Safe and Effective Care Environment/Management of Care
Cognitive level: Comprehension [Understanding]
Concept: Nursing Roles
Difficulty: Easy
Feedback
1 The nurse does not often assume the interprofessional role of social worker when
providing patient care in an acute care setting.
2 The nurse does not often assume the interprofessional role of client advocate role when
providing patient care in an acute care setting.
3 The nurse often assumes the interprofessional role of care coordinator when providing
patient care in an acute care setting.
4 The nurse does not often assume the interprofessional role of massage therapist when
providing patient care in an acute care setting.TestBankWorld.org
PTS: 1 CON: Nursing Roles
5. ANS: 1
Chapter number and title: 1, Foundations of Medical-Surgical Practice
Chapter learning objective: Discussing the incorporation of evidence-based practices into medical-surgical
nursing
Chapter page reference: 003
Heading: Box 1.3 Steps of Evidence-Based Practice
Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Implementation
Client Need: Safe and Effective Care Environment/Management of Care
Cognitive level: Analysis [Analyzing]
Concept: Evidence-Based Practice
Difficulty: Difficult
Feedback
1 The first step of evidence-based practice is to develop a question based on the clinical
issue.
2 The last step of evidence-based practice is to disseminate findings.
3 The second step of evidence-based practice is to conduct a review of the literature, or
current evidence, available.
4 The fifth step of evidence-based practice is to evaluate the outcomes associated with the
practice change.
PTS: 1 CON: Evidence-Based Practice
6. ANS: 4
Chapter number and title: 1, Foundations of Medical-Surgical Nursing Practice
Chapter learning objective: Discussing the incorporation of evidence-based practices into medical-surgical
nursing
Chapter page reference: 004
Heading: Box 1.4 Evaluating Levels of Evidence
Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Planning
Client Need: Safe and Effective Care Environment/Management of Care
Cognitive level: Comprehension [Understanding]
Concept: Evidence-Based Practice
Difficulty: Easy
Feedback
1 The lower the numeric value of the evidence the greater the support for a change in
practice. Level IV evidence does not carry the lowest level of support for a practice
change.
2 The lower the numeric value of the evidence the greater the support for a change in
practice. Level V evidence does not carry the lowest level of support for a practice
change.
3 The lower the numeric value of the evidence the greater the support for a change in
practice. Level VI evidence does not carry the lowest level of support for a practice
change.
4 The lower the numeric value of the evidence the greater the support for a change in
practice. Level VII evidence carries the lowest level of support for a practice change.
| Test Bank for Wongs Nursing Care of Infants and Children 11th Edition by Hockenberry
ISBN-10: 032354939X, ISBN-13: 9780323549394
Table of Contents
Section I: Children, Their Families, and the Nurse
1. Perspectives of Pediatric Nursing
2. Social, Cultural, Religious, and Family Influences on Child Health Promotion
3. Hereditary Influences on Health Promotion of the Child and Family
Section II: Childhood and Family Assessment
4. Communication, Physical, and Developmental Assessment of the Child and Family
5. Pain in Children: Significance, Assessment, and Management Strategies
6. Childhood Communicable and Infectious Diseases
Section III: Family-Centered Care of the Newborn
7. Health Promotion of the Newborn and Family
8. Health Problems of the Newborn
9. The High-Risk Newborn and Family
Section IV: Family-Centered Care of the Infant
10. Health Promotion of the Infant and Family
11. Health Problems of the Infant
Section V: Family-Centered Care of the Toddler and Preschooler
12. Health Promotion of the Toddler and Family
13. Health Promotion of the Preschooler and Family
14. Health Problems of Early Childhood
Section VI: Family-Centered Care of the School-Age Child
15. Health Promotion of the School-Age Child and Family
16. Health Problems of the School-Age Child
Section VII: Family-Centered Care of the Adolescent
17. Health Promotion of the Adolescent and Family
18. Health Problems of the Adolescent
Section VIII: Family-Centered Care of the Child with Special Needs
19. Impact of Chronic Illness, Disability, or End of Life Care for the Child and Family
20. The Child with Cognitive, Sensory, or Communication Impairment
Section IX: The Child Who is Hospitalized
21. Family-Centered Care of the Child During Illness and Hospitalization
22. Pediatric Nursing Interventions and Skills
Section X: Childhood Nutrition and Elimination Problems
23. The Child with Fluid and Electrolyte Imbalance
24. The Child with Renal Dysfunction
25. The Child with Gastrointestinal Dysfunction
Section XI: Childhood Oxygenation Problems
26. The Child with Respiratory Dysfunction
Section XII: Childhood Blood Production and Circulation Problems
27. The Child with Cardiovascular Dysfunction
28. The Child with Hematologic or Immunologic Dysfunction
Section XIII: Childhood Regulatory Problems
29. The Child with Cancer
30. The Child with Cerebral Dysfunction
31. The Child with Endocrine Dysfunction
Section XIV: Childhood Physical Mobility Problems
32. The Child with Integumentary Dysfunction
33. The Child with Musculoskeletal or Articular Dysfunction
34. The Child with Neuromuscular or Muscular Dysfunction | Old’s Maternal-Newborn Nursing and Women’s Health, 11e (Davidson/London/Ladewig)
Chapter 1 Contemporary Maternal-Newborn Nursing
- The nurse is speaking to students about changes in maternal-newborn care. One change is that self-care has gained wide acceptance with clients and the healthcare community due to research findings that suggest that it has which effect?
- Shortens newborn length of stay
- Decreases use of home health agencies
- Decreases healthcare costs
- Decreases the number of emergency department visits
Answer:C
Explanation:
- Length of stay is often determined by third-party payer (insurance company) policies as well as the physiologic stability of the mother and newborn. Home healthcare agencies often are involved in client care to decrease hospital stay time.
- Home healthcare agencies often are involved in client care to decrease hospital stay time.
- Research indicates that self-care significantly decreases healthcare costs.
- Acute emergencies are addressed by emergency departments, and are not delayed by those practicing self-care.
Page Ref: 3
Cognitive Level:Understanding
Client Need/Sub:Health Promotion and Maintenance: Self-Care
Standards: QSEN Competencies: Ⅰ.A.2. Describe strategies to empower patients or families in all aspects of the healthcare process. | AACN Essentials Competencies: Ⅸ.7. Provide appropriate patient teaching that reflects developmental stage, age, culture, spirituality, patient preferences, and health literacy considerations to foster patient engagement in their care. | NLN Competencies: Context and Environment: Health care economic policy; reimbursement structures; accreditation standards; staffing models and productivity; supply chain models | Nursing/Integrated Concepts: Nursing Process: Planning.
Learning Outcome:1 Discuss the impact of the self-care movement on contemporary childbirth.
MNL LO:Recognize contemporary issues related to care of the childbearing family.
- Care delivered by nurse-midwives can be safe and effective and can represent a positive response to the healthcare provider shortage. Nurse-midwives tend to use less technology, which often results in which of the following?
- There is less trauma to the mother.
- More childbirth education classes are available.
- They are instrumental in providing change in the birth environment at work.
- They advocate for more home healthcare agencies.
Answer:A
Explanation:
- Nurse-midwife models of care can be one way to ensure that mothers receive excellent prenatal and intrapartum care.
- It is appropriate for nurse-midwives, in conjunction with doctors and hospitals, to provide childbirth classes for expectant families.
- By working with other staff members and doctors, the nurse-midwife is able to implement changes as needed within the birthing unit.
- Clients are increasingly going home sooner, so there needs to be more follow-up in the home.
Page Ref: 3
Cognitive Level:Understanding
Client Need/Sub:Health Promotion and Maintenance: Health Promotion/Disease Prevention
Standards: QSEN Competencies: Ⅲ.A.6. Describe how the strength and relevance of available evidence influences the choice of interventions in provision of patient-centered care. | AACN Essentials Competencies: Ⅸ. 5. Deliver compassionate, patient-centered, evidence-based care that respects patient and family preferences. | NLN Competencies: Context and Environment: Read and interpret data; apply health promotion/disease prevention strategies; apply health policy; conduct population-based transcultural health assessments and interventions. | Nursing/Integrated Concepts: Nursing Process: Planning.
Learning Outcome:2 Compare the nursing roles available to the maternal-newborn nurse.
MNL LO:Recognize contemporary issues related to care of the childbearing family.
- The nurse is telling a new client how advanced technology has permitted the physician to do which of the following?
- Treat the fetus and monitor fetal development.
- Deliver at home with a nurse-midwife and doula.
- Have the father act as the coach and cut the umbilical cord.
- Breastfeed a new baby on the delivery table.
Answer:A
Explanation:
- The fetus is increasingly viewed as a patient separate from the mother, although treatment of the fetus necessarily involves the mother.
- A nurse-midwife and a doula are not examples of technological care.
- Fathers being present during labor and coaching their partners represents nontechnological care during childbirth.
- Breastfeeding is not an example of technology impacting care.
Page Ref: 2—3
Cognitive Level:Understanding
Client Need/Sub:Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
Standards:QSEN Competencies: Ⅰ.B.10. Engage patients or designated surrogates in active partnerships that promote health, safety and well-being, and self-care management. | AACN Essentials Competencies: Ⅸ.5. Deliver compassionate, patient-centered, evidence-based care that respects patient and family preferences. | NLN Competencies: Teamwork: Scope of practice, roles, and responsibilities of health care team members, including overlaps. | Nursing/Integrated Concepts: Nursing Process: Implementation.
Learning Outcome:6 Evaluate the potential impact of some of the special situations in contemporary maternity care.
MNL LO:Recognize contemporary issues related to care of the childbearing family.
- A nurse is examining different nursing roles. Which example best illustrates an advanced practice nursing role?
- A registered nurse who is the manager of a large obstetrical unit
- A registered nurse who is the circulating nurse during surgical deliveries (cesarean sections)
- A clinical nurse specialist working as a staff nurse on a mother-baby unit
- A clinical nurse specialist with whom other nurses consult for her expertise in caring for high-risk infants
Answer:D
Explanation:
- A registered nurse who is the manager of a large obstetrical unit is a professional nurse who has graduated from an accredited program in nursing and completed the licensure examination.
- A registered nurse who is a circulating nurse at surgical deliveries (cesarean sections) is a professional nurse who has graduated from an accredited program in nursing and completed the licensure examination.
- A clinical nurse specialist working as a staff nurse on a mother-baby unit might have the qualifications for an advanced practice nursing staff member but is not working in that capacity.
- A clinical nurse specialist with whom other nurses consult for expertise in caring for high-risk infants is working in an advanced practice nursing role. This nurse has specialized knowledge and competence in a specific clinical area, and is master’s prepared.
Page Ref: 5
Cognitive Level:Understanding
Client Need/Sub:Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
Standards:QSEN Competencies: Ⅱ.A.2. Describe scopes of practice and roles of healthcare team members. | AACN Essentials Competencies: Ⅵ. 6. Compare/contrast the roles and perspectives of the nursing profession with other care professionals on the healthcare team (i.e. scope of discipline, education, and licensure requirements). | NLN Competencies: Teamwork: Scope of practice, roles, and responsibilities of health care team members, including overlaps. | Nursing/Integrated Concepts: Nursing Process: Assessment.
Learning Outcome:2 Compare the nursing roles available to the maternal-newborn nurse.
MNL LO:Recognize contemporary issues related to care of the childbearing family.
|
Chapter 1. Evolution of Nursing Thought & Action
MULTIPLE CHOICE
- Which of the following is an example of an illness prevention activity?
a. |
Encouraging the use of a food diary |
b. |
Joining a cancer support group |
c. |
Administering immunization for HPV |
d. |
Teaching a diabetic patient about his diet |
ANS: C
Administering immunization for HPV is an example of illness prevention. Although cancer is a disease, it is assumed that a person joining a support group would already have the disease; therefore, it would be treatment and not disease prevention. Illness prevention activities focus on avoiding a specific disease. A food diary is a health promotion activity. Teaching a diabetic patient about diet is a treatment for diabetes; the patient already has diabetes, so the teaching cannot prevent diabetes.
Difficulty: Moderate
Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Cognitive Level: Application
Page 15
PTS: 1
- Which organization can require nurses to take continuing education courses as a condition of licensure renewal?
a. |
American Nurses Association |
b. |
National League for Nursing |
c. |
Sigma Theta Tau |
d. |
State Board of Nursing |
ANS: D
Continuing education is a professional strategy designed to ensure that nurses remain current in their clinical knowledge. Many states require nurses to engage in a certain number of continuing-education requirements to renew their license. The knowledge gained in the nursing curriculum is sufficient for nursing school graduates to obtain their initial license. Requirements for renewal of a nurse’s license can be found in the state’s nurse practice act (state board of nursing).
Difficulty: Difficult
Cognitive Level: Analysis
Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Cognitive Level: Application
Page 11
PTS: 1
- An experienced seasoned nurse uses her knowledge of patient medical conditions and intuition to identify patient problems. She is often the resource for other nurses on the unit. What stage of proficiency has this nurse achieved?
a. |
Novice |
b. |
Advanced beginner |
c. |
Competent |
d. |
Expert |
ANS: D
The nurse who has reached the expert stage of proficiency has a deep understanding of the clinical situation based on knowledge and experience. The nurse often senses a potential problem in the absence of classic signs and symptoms. The novice nurse is inexperienced and relies on rules and processes. The advanced beginner focuses on aspects of a situation and is unable to see the comprehensive perspective. A nurse functioning at the competent level is able to prioritize to meet the patient needs but does not fully grasp the total situation.
Difficulty: Moderate
Cognitive Level: Comprehension
Pages 11-12
PTS: 1
- Which of the following best explains the importance of standards of practice?
a. |
Nurses and other healthcare providers have the same standards of practice. |
b. |
Standard of practice only apply to nurses who work in hospital settings. |
c. |
Standards of practice identify the knowledge, skills, and attitudes nurses need to provide safe care. |
d. |
Standards of practice differ among registered nurses because the roles are different based on the population they serve. |
ANS: C
Standards of practice are authoritative statements of the duties that all registered nurses, regardless of role, population, or specialty, are expected to perform competently. Standards are derived from several sources, including professional organizations and healthcare facilities’ policies and procedures.
Difficulty: Moderate
Cognitive Level: Application
Pages 12-13
PTS: 1
- What is the primary goal of the National League for Nursing?
a. |
Advocate for the needs of registered nurses to promote patient safety |
b. |
Establish and maintain standards for nursing education |
c. |
Support global health policies and improve health worldwide |
d. |
Foster nursing scholarship, leadership, and service to improve health worldwide |
ANS: B
The National League for Nursing (NLN) was founded to establish and maintain a universal standard of nursing education. The NLN focuses on faculty development in nursing education programs and is the voice for nursing education.
Difficulty: Moderate
Cognitive Level: Application
Page 14
PTS: 1
- A patient who requires long-term rehabilitation needs which type of care?
a. |
Primary care |
b. |
Secondary care |
c. |
Tertiary care |
d. |
Preventive care |
ANS: C
Tertiary care is required for individuals who need long-term care or for those who are dying.
Difficulty: Easy
Cognitive Level: Knowledge
Page 18
PTS: 1
- An elderly patient is covered under Medicare. She is scheduled for discharge and tells the nursing student that several therapists will come to her home to help her regain functional abilities. The patient then asks, “Why can’t I just stay in the hospital and receive this type of care?” What is the nursing student’s best response?
a. |
“You should be able to stay in the hospital. I will ask the nurse to call your doctor.” |
b. |
“Once you have reached your reimbursable length of stay and your condition is stable, it is more cost effective to provide you with home healthcare.” |
c. |
“Medicare is a type of managed care, which mean that you are only allowed to stay in the hospital for a certain number of days before being discharged, regardless of your condition.” |
d. |
“You should be glad to be in your own home. You will recover in no time.” |
ANS: B
Home healthcare services are provided to patients who still require skilled care but are discharged from the hospital because the reimbursable length-of-stay has expired. The patient is stable and can receive provider services at home. It would be incorrect and misleading to tell the patient she “should be able to stay in the hospital.” It would be incorrect to tell the patient she is allowed only “a certain number of days before being discharged,” because the patient’s condition is a factor in determining whether the patient can be discharged from the hospital. Telling the patient that she should be glad to be going home is a form of closed communication and does not address her question.
Difficulty: Moderate | Test Bank for Public Health Science and Nursing Practice Caring For Populations by Savage
Chapter 10: Mental Health
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
1.According to Healthy People 2020, which of the following are characteristics of mental health?
Select all that apply.
A. |
Engaging in productive activities |
B. |
Having fulfilling relationships |
C. |
Experiencing alterations in thinking |
D. |
Adapting to change |
E. |
Coping with challenges |
ANS: A, B, D, E
Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders.
pp. 225-226
Heading: Introduction
Integrated Processes: N/A
Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
Cognitive Level: Knowledge [Remembering]
Concept: Promoting Health
Difficulty: Moderate
|
Feedback |
1. |
Mental health is a state of successful performance of mental function, including engagement in productive activities. |
2. |
Mental health is a state of successful performance of mental function, including being able to form fulfilling relationships with other people. |
3. |
This is incorrect; it is an example of a mental disorder. Mental disorders are health conditions that are characterized by alterations in thinking, mood, or behavior that are associated with distress or impaired functioning. |
4. |
Mental health is a state of successful performance of mental function, including the ability to adapt to change. |
5. |
Mental health is a state of successful performance of mental function, including the ability to cope with challenges. |
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health
MULTIPLE CHOICE
2.In 2010, approximately how many people in the United States reported experiencing mental disorders in the previous year?
A. |
15% |
B. |
50% |
C. |
30% |
D. |
25% |
ANS: D
Objective: 1. Define the burden of disease related to mental disorders using current epidemiological frameworks.
pp. 226-227
Heading: Epidemiology of Mental Disorders
Integrated Processes: N/A
Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
Cognitive Level: Comprehension [Understanding]
Concept: Promoting Health
Difficulty: Moderate
|
Feedback |
A |
This is incorrect. In the United States in 2010 an estimated 25% of adults reported having mental disorders in the previous year. |
B |
This is incorrect. In the United States in 2010 an estimated 25% of adults reported having mental disorders in the previous year. |
C |
This is incorrect. In the United States in 2010 an estimated 25% of adults reported having mental disorders in the previous year. |
D |
In the United States in 2010 an estimated 25% of adults reported having mental disorders in the previous year. |
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health
3.A student nurse is studying stress and mental health. The student nurse learns that ____ is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events.
A. |
Intervention |
B. |
Support |
C. |
Resilience |
D. |
Therapy |
ANS: C
Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders.
pp. 229-231
Heading: Protective Factors: Building Resilience
Integrated Processes: Teaching/Learning
Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
Cognitive Level: Application [Applying]
Concept: Trauma; Stress; Promoting Health; Nursing Roles
Difficulty: Moderate
|
Feedback |
A |
This is incorrect. Resilience is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events. Preventive and treatment interventions are useful tools to build on an individual’s natural resilience to promote positive outcomes. |
B |
This is incorrect. Resilience is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events. Support from family, friends, and community is an important part of strengthening an individual’s resilience. |
C |
Resilience is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events. |
D |
This is incorrect. Resilience is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events. Therapy is an important part of an overall treatment plan, in conjunction with intervention, support, and an individual’s capacity for resilience. |
PTS: 1 CON: Trauma | Stress | Promoting Health | Nursing Roles
4.____ addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder.
A. |
Indicated prevention |
B. |
Selective prevention |
C. |
Universal prevention |
D. |
Both 1 and 2 |
ANS: A
Objective: 4. Apply current evidence-based population level interventions to the prevention of mental disorders and the promotion of optimal mental health for communities and populations.
pp. 232-233
Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Institute of Medicine Model of Prevention
Integrated Processes: Nursing Process
Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
Cognitive Level: Comprehension [Understanding]
Concept: Promoting Health
Difficulty: Moderate
|
Feedback |
A |
Indicated prevention addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder. The purpose of indicated techniques is to delay or reduce the severity of a mental disorder. |
B |
Selective prevention includes interventions provided to specific subgroups that are known to be at high risk for mental disorders owing to biological, psychological, social, or environmental factors but that have not yet been diagnosed with mental disorders. High-risk subgroups include but are not limited to those with a family history of mental disorders, history of adverse childhood events, or victims of violence. |
C |
Universal prevention refers to prevention interventions provided to the entire population, not just those who may be at risk. The interventions include but are not limited to public service announcements provided to the public at large through billboards, media messages (print and electronic), or general health education programs. |
D |
Indicated prevention addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder. The purpose of indicated techniques is to delay or reduce the severity of a mental disorder. Selective prevention includes interventions provided to specific subgroups that are known to be at high risk for mental disorders owing to biological, psychological, social, or environmental factors but that have not yet been diagnosed with mental disorders. High-risk subgroups include but are not limited to those with a family history of mental disorders, history of adverse childhood events, or victims of violence. |
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health
5.The public health nurse (PHN) recognizes that which of the following are used as screening tools for depression?
A. |
Patient Health Questionnaire 2 |
B. |
Center for Epidemiological Studies Depression Scale (CESD-10) |
C. |
Brief Symptom Checklist-18 of the My Mood Monitor (M-3) |
D. |
Both 1 and 2 |
ANS: D
Objective: 5. Describe systems approaches to the promotion of mental health and the prevention and treatment of mental health disorders.
p. 232
Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Measure of Mental Health: Health-Related Quality of Life
Integrated Processes: Nursing Process
Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
Cognitive Level: Application [Applying]
Concept: Promoting Health; Mood; Assessment
Difficulty: Moderate
|
Feedback |
A |
Tools to screen for depression include the Patient Health Questionnaire 2 and the CESD-10. |
B |
Tools to screen for depression include the Patient Health Questionnaire 2 and the CESD-10. |
C |
This is incorrect. Tools to screen for depression include the Patient Health Questionnaire 2 and the CESD-10. Screening tools for anxiety disorders include the Brief Symptom Checklist-18 of the My Mood Monitor (M-3). |
D |
Tools to screen for depression include the Patient Health Questionnaire 2 and the CESD-10. |
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health | Mood | Assessment
6.During a course on mental disorders, a PHN learns that the term serious mental illness (SMI) refers to diagnosable mental disorders that may disrupt a person’s ability to function and may qualify that person for support services. The PHN also notes that the mental disorders that can lead to SMI include:
A. |
Mild depression |
B. |
Panic disorder |
C. |
Schizophrenia |
D. |
Both 2 and 3 |
ANS: D
Objective: 1. Define the burden of disease related to mental disorders using current epidemiological frameworks.
pp. 225-226
Heading: Introduction
Integrated Processes: Teaching/Learning
Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
Cognitive Level: Application [Applying]
Concept: Cognition; Mood; Stress; Promoting Health; Nursing Roles
Difficulty: Moderate
|
Feedback |
A |
This is incorrect. Major depression, however, is one of the mental disorders that can lead to SMI. |
B |
Both panic disorder and schizophrenia, among other mental disorders, can lead to SMI. |
C |
Both schizophrenia and panic disorder, among other mental disorders, can lead to SMI. |
D |
The mental disorders that can lead to SMI include major depression, panic disorder, schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD), post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), and borderline personality disorder. |
PTS: 1 CON: Cognition | Mood | Stress | Promoting Health | Nursing Roles
7.While studying the prevalence of mental health disorders worldwide, a PHN learns about the World Mental Health Survey, which is used to determine estimates of human capital costs and prevalence of mental disorders in a wide range of countries. The survey was developed by
A. |
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) |
B. |
The World Health Organization (WHO) |
C. |
The Institute of Medicine (IOM) |
D. |
The World Health Assembly |
ANS: B
Objective: 1. Define the burden of disease related to mental disorders using current epidemiological frameworks.
p. 227
Heading: Epidemiology of Mental Disorders > Surveillance of Mental Health Disorders
Integrated Processes: Teaching/Learning
Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
Cognitive Level: Application [Applying]
Concept: Promoting Health; Nursing Roles
Difficulty: Moderate
|
Feedback |
A |
This is incorrect. WHO developed the World Mental Health Survey to estimate human capital costs and mental disorders prevalence on a global scale. The CDC conducts many types of surveys on the prevalence of mental disorders but the organization did not develop the World Mental Health Survey. |
B |
The WHO developed the World Mental Health Survey to estimate human capital costs and mental disorders prevalence on a global scale. |
C |
This is incorrect. WHO developed the World Mental Health Survey to estimate human capital costs and mental disorders prevalence on a global scale. The IOM is involved in screening for mental health disorders and addresses the need for appropriate behavioral health treatment in its report, Improving the Quality of Health Care for Mental and Substance-Use Conditions: Quality Chasm Series. |
D |
This is incorrect. WHO developed the World Mental Health Survey to estimate human capital costs and mental disorders prevalence on a global scale. The World Health Assembly issued a resolution on mental health that aims to reduce the global burden of mental disorders and improve overall mental health worldwide. |
PTS: 1 CON: Promoting Health | Nursing Roles
8.Which ethnic group has the highest 12-month prevalence of a mental disorder?
A. |
Hispanics |
B. |
African Americans |
C. |
Asian Americans |
D. |
Non-Hispanic whites |
ANS: D
Objective: 1. Define the burden of disease related to mental disorders using current epidemiological frameworks.
pp. 227-228
Heading: Epidemiology of Mental Disorders > Prevalence of Mental Health Disorders
Integrated Processes: N/A
Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
Cognitive Level: Knowledge [Remembering]
Concept: Promoting Health
Difficulty: Moderate
|
Feedback |
A |
This is incorrect. Non-Hispanic whites have the highest 12-month prevalence rate for mental disorders at 21% compared with 16% for Hispanics. |
B |
This is incorrect. Non-Hispanic whites have the highest 12-month prevalence rate for mental disorders at 21% compared with 15% for African Americans. |
C |
This is incorrect. Non-Hispanic whites have the highest 12-month prevalence rate for mental disorders at 21% compared with 9% for Asian Americans. |
D |
Non-Hispanic whites have the highest 12-month prevalence rate for mental disorders at 21%. |
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health
9.A PHN learns in a behavioral health class that the relationship between physiology and mental health plays an important role in mental disorders. Which of the following physiological factors may contribute to the development of mental disorders?
A. |
Conditions that affect brain chemistry, such as medication side effects or toxins |
B. |
Physical trauma |
C. |
1 and 2 |
D. |
Unstable family life |
ANS: C
Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders.
pp. 228-229
Heading: Behavioral, Biological, Environmental, and Socioeconomic Risk Factors > Individual Level Risk Factors for Mental Disorders
Integrated Processes: Teaching/Learning
Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
Cognitive Level: Application [Application]
Concept: Cognition; Trauma; Promoting Health
Difficulty: Moderate
|
Feedback |
A |
Both conditions that affect brain chemistry and physical trauma are the physiological factors that may contribute to the development of mental disorders. |
B |
Both physical trauma and conditions that affect brain chemistry are physiological factors that may contribute to the development of mental disorders. |
C |
Conditions that affect brain chemistry and physical trauma are two of the physiological factors that may contribute to the development of mental disorders. |
D |
This is incorrect. Conditions that affect brain chemistry and physical trauma are two of the physiological factors that may contribute to the development of mental disorders. An unstable family life is not a physiological factor, although it may also contribute to the development of mental disorders. |
PTS:1CON:Cognition | Trauma | Promoting Health
10.Which of the following community environment factors play a role in the development of mental disorders?
A. |
Living in high crime areas |
B. |
Poverty |
C. |
Both 1 and 2 |
D. |
Family instability |
ANS: C
Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders.
p. 229
Heading: Behavioral, Biological, Environmental, and Socioeconomic Risk Factors > Community-Level Risk Factors for Mental Disorders
Integrated Processes: N/A
Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
Cognitive Level: Comprehension [Understanding]
Concept: Promoting Health
Difficulty: Easy
|
Feedback |
A |
Living in high crime areas is a factor, along with poverty. |
B |
Both poverty and living in high crime areas play a role in the development of mental disorders. |
C |
Both poverty and living in high crime areas play a role in the development of mental disorders. |
D |
This is incorrect. Although family instability often contributes to the development of mental disorders, it is not considered a community environment factor. |
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health
11.____ is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable.
A. |
Indicated prevention |
B. |
Stigma |
C. |
Risk factors |
D. |
Transinstitutionalization |
ANS: B
Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders.
pp. 231-232
Heading: Culture, Stigma, and Mental Health Disorders
Integrated Processes: N/A
Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
Cognitive Level: Comprehension [Understanding]
Concept: Promoting Health
Difficulty: Moderate
|
Feedback |
A |
This is incorrect. Stigma is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable. Indicated prevention addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder. |
B |
Stigma is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable. |
C |
This is incorrect. Stigma is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable. Risk factors increase an individual’s chance of developing a mental disorder. |
D |
This is incorrect. Stigma is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable. Transinstitutionalization refers to the growing number of mentally ill persons who are homeless, in jail, in shelters, or in other facilities instead of being home or in a hospital. |
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health
12.A nurse interested in working with persons with mental disorders who live in poverty understands that the most effective treatment involves multiple sectors of society, such as government agencies, grass roots groups, nonprofits, and businesses, working in tandem. This interrelationship is called:
A. |
Indicated prevention |
B. |
Intersectoral strategies |
C. |
Health-Related Quality of Life |
D. |
Institute of Medicine Model of Prevention |
ANS: B
Objective: 4. Apply current evidence-based population level interventions to the prevention of mental disorders and the promotion of optimal mental health for communities and populations.
p. 233
Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Promotion of Mental Health and Policy
Integrated Processes: Nursing Process
Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
Cognitive Level: Application [Applying]
Concept: Promoting Health; Collaboration
Difficulty: Moderate
|
Feedback |
A |
This is incorrect. Intersectoral strategies engage more than one sector of society with a shared interest such as government agencies, grass roots citizens groups, nonprofits, and businesses. Indicated prevention addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder. |
B |
Intersectoral strategies engage more than one sector of society with a shared interest such as government agencies, grass roots citizens groups, nonprofits, and businesses. |
C |
This is incorrect. Intersectoral strategies engage more than one sector of society with a shared interest such as government agencies, grass roots citizens groups, nonprofits, and businesses. Health-Related Quality of Life is the self-perceived impact of physical and emotional health on overall quality of life. |
D |
This is incorrect. Intersectoral strategies engage more than one sector of society with a shared interest such as government agencies, grass roots citizens groups, nonprofits, and businesses. The Institute of Medicine Model of Prevention is a framework for mental disorders that clearly separates prevention into three categories with specific interventions at each level. |
PTS: 1 CON: Promoting Health | Collaboration
13.A recent graduate nurse working in an urban labor and delivery unit had a patient who experienced a difficult labor. The mother, suffering from postpartum depression (PPD), committed suicide a year after giving birth. Although the nurse knew the basics about PPD, the nurse immediately studied the condition in depth and learned that PPD:
A. |
Can be triggered by a massive hormone drop following delivery |
B. |
Can intensify to cause delusions |
C. |
Occurs soon after delivery |
D. |
All of the above |
ANS: D
Objective: 4. Apply current evidence-based population level interventions to the prevention of mental disorders and the promotion of optimal mental health for communities and populations.
pp. 233-235
Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Secondary Prevention: Screening for Mental Disorders
Integrated Processes: Nursing Process
Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
Cognitive Level: Application [Applying]
Concept: Pregnancy; Mood; Violence; Promoting Health; Nursing Roles
Difficulty: Moderate
|
Feedback |
A |
PPD can be triggered by a massive post-delivery hormone drop, intensify enough to cause delusions, and occur soon after delivery. |
B |
PPD can be triggered by a massive post-delivery hormone drop, intensify enough to cause delusions, and occur soon after delivery. |
C |
PPD can be triggered by a massive post-delivery hormone drop, intensify enough to cause delusions, and occur soon after delivery. |
D |
PPD can be triggered by a massive post-delivery hormone drop, intensify enough to cause delusions, and occur soon after delivery. |
PTS: 1 CON: Pregnancy | Mood | Violence | Promoting Health | Nursing Roles
14.A nurse working in labor and delivery requested permission from the nurse manager to conduct a quality improvement project to screen patients that might be susceptible to PPD. After completing the project, which of the following screening guidelines did the unit incorporate?
A. |
All patients will be screened for PPD when they are admitted to the labor and delivery unit. |
B. |
Patients at high risk are referred to the attending obstetrician. |
C. |
Before being discharged, all new mothers will complete a questionnaire specific to PPD symptoms. |
D. |
All of the above |
ANS: D
Objective: Apply current evidence-based population level interventions to the prevention of mental disorders and the promotion of optimal mental health for communities and populations.
pp. 233-235
Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Secondary Prevention: Screening for Mental Disorders
Integrated Processes: Nursing Process
Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
Cognitive Level: Application [Applying]
Concept: Pregnancy; Mood; Promoting Health; Assessment; Quality Improvement
Difficulty: Moderate
|
Feedback |
A |
This is incorrect. Screening, high-risk referrals to the attending obstetrician and completion of a PPD symptom questionnaire were all incorporated. |
B |
This is incorrect. Screening, high-risk referrals to the attending obstetrician and completion of a PPD symptom questionnaire were all incorporated. |
C |
This is incorrect. Screening, high-risk referrals to the attending obstetrician and completion of a PPD symptom questionnaire were all incorporated. |
D |
Screening, high-risk referrals to the attending obstetrician and completion of a PPD symptom questionnaire were all incorporated. |
PTS:1
CON: Pregnancy | Mood | Promoting Health | Assessment | Quality Improvement
15.A PHN treats a patient who may be depressed. To verify suspicions, the PHN checks ____, the definitive clinical guide for diagnosing mental disorders and providing consistency and accuracy in the screening for mental disorders.
A. |
The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5) |
B. |
The Center for Epidemiological Studies Depression Scale (CESD-10) |
C. |
Patient Health Questionnaire 2 |
D. |
Brief System Checklist-18 of the My Mood Monitor |
ANS: A |