| Content | Test Bank for Maternal Child Nursing Care 6th Edition Perry
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Chapter 01: 21st Century Maternity Nursing
Perry: Maternal Child Nursing Care, 6th Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. When providing care for a pregnant woman, the nurse should be aware that one of the most
frequently reported maternal medical risk factors is:
a. diabetes mellitus.
b. mitral valve prolapse (MVP).
c. chronic hypertension.
d. anemia.
ANS: A
The most frequently reported maternal medical risk factors are diabetes and hypertension
associated with pregnancy. Both of these conditions are associated with maternal obesity.
There are no studies that indicate MVP is among the most frequently reported maternal risk
factors. Hypertension associated with pregnancy, not chronic hypertension, is one of the most
frequently reported maternal medical risk factors. Although anemia is a concern in pregnancy,
it is not one of the most frequently reported maternal medical risk factors in pregnancy.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge
OBJ: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiologic Integrity
2. To ensure optimal outcomes for the patient, the contemporary maternity nurse must
incorporate both teamwork and communication with clinicians into her care delivery. The
SBAR technique of communication is an easy-to-remember mechanism for communication.
Which of the following correctly defines this acronym?
a. Situation, baseline assessment, response
b. Situation, background, assessment, recommendation
c. Subjective background, assessment, recommendation
d. Situation, background, anticipated recommendation
ANS: B
The situation, background, assessment, recommendation (SBAR) technique provides a
specific framework for communication among health care providers. Failure to communicate
is one of the major reasons for errors in health care. The SBAR technique has the potential to
serve as a means to reduce errors.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension
OBJ: Nursing Process: Assessment, Planning
MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
3. The role of the professional nurse caring for childbearing families has evolved to emphasize:
a. providing care to patients directly at the bedside.
b. primarily hospital care of maternity patients.
c. practice using an evidence-based approach.
d. planning patient care to cover longer hospital stays.
ANS: C
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Professional nurses are part of the team of health care providers who collaboratively care for
patients throughout the childbearing cycle. Providing care to patients directly at the bedside is
one of the nurse’s tasks; however, it does not encompass the concept of the evolved
professional nurse. Throughout the prenatal period, nurses care for women in clinics and
physician’s offices and teach classes to help families prepare for childbirth. Nurses also care
for childbearing families in birthing centers and in the home. Nurses have been critically
important in developing strategies to improve the well-being of women and their infants and
have led the efforts to implement clinical practice guidelines using an evidence-based
approach. Maternity patients have experienced a decreased, rather than an increased, length of
stay over the past two decades.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension
OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation
MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
4. A 23-year-old African-American woman is pregnant with her first child. Based on the
statistics for infant mortality, which plan is most important for the nurse to implement?
a. Perform a nutrition assessment.
b. Refer the woman to a social worker.
c. Advise the woman to see an obstetrician, not a midwife.
d. Explain to the woman the importance of keeping her prenatal care appointments.
ANS: D
Consistent prenatal care is the best method of preventing or controlling risk factors associated
with infant mortality. Nutritional status is an important modifiable risk factor, but a nutrition
assessment is not the most important action a nurse should take in this situation. The patient
may need assistance from a social worker at some time during her pregnancy, but a referral to
a social worker is not the most important aspect the nurse should address at this time. If the
woman has identifiable high risk problems, her health care may need to be provided by a
physician. However, it cannot be assumed that all African-American women have high risk
issues. In addition, advising the woman to see an obstetrician is not the most important aspect
on which the nurse should focus at this time, and it is not appropriate for a nurse to advise or
manage the type of care a patient is to receive.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application OBJ: Nursing Process: Planning
MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
5. During a prenatal intake interview, the nurse is in the process of obtaining an initial
assessment of a 21-year-old Hispanic patient with limited English proficiency. It is important
for the nurse to:
a. use maternity jargon in order for the patient to become familiar with these terms.
b. speak quickly and efficiently to expedite the visit.
c. provide the patient with handouts.
d. assess whether the patient understands the discussion.
ANS: D
Nurses contribute to health literacy by using simple, common words; avoiding jargon; and
evaluating whether the patient understands the discussion. Speaking slowly and clearly and
focusing on what is important increase understanding. Most patient education materials are
written at too high a level for the average adult and may not be useful for a patient with
limited English proficiency.
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PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application OBJ: Nursing Process: Evaluation
MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
6. When managing health care for pregnant women at a prenatal clinic, the nurse should
recognize that the most significant barrier to access to care is the pregnant woman’s:
a. age.
b. minority status.
c. educational level.
d. inability to pay.
ANS: D
The most significant barrier to health care access is the inability to pay for services; this is
compounded by the fact that many physicians refuse to care for women who cannot pay.
Although adolescent pregnant patients statistically receive less prenatal care, age is not the
most significant barrier. Significant disparities in morbidity and mortality rates exist for
minority women; however, minority status is not the most significant barrier to access of care.
Disparities in educational level are associated with morbidity and mortality rates; however,
educational level is not the most significant barrier to access of care.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge
OBJ: Nursing Process: Assessment
MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
7. When the nurse is unsure about how to perform a patient care procedure, the best action
would be to:
a. ask another nurse.
b. discuss the procedure with the patient’s physician.
c. look up the procedure in a nursing textbook.
d. consult the agency’s procedure manual and follow the guidelines for the
procedure.
ANS: D
It is always best to follow the agency’s policies and procedures manual when seeking
information on correct patient procedures. These policies should reflect the current standards
of care and state guidelines. Each nurse is responsible for her own practice. Relying on
another nurse may not always be safe practice. Each nurse is obligated to follow the standards
of care for safe patient care delivery. Physicians are responsible for their own patient care
activity. Nurses may follow safe orders from physicians, but they are also responsible for the
activities that they as nurses are to carry out. Information provided in a nursing textbook is
basic information for general knowledge. Furthermore, the information in a textbook may not
reflect the current standard of care or individual state or hospital policies.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application
OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Client Needs: Physiologic Integrity
8. From the nurse’s perspective, what measure should be the focus of the health care system to
reduce the rate of infant mortality further?
a. Implementing programs to ensure women’s early participation in ongoing prenatal
care.
b. Increasing the length of stay in a hospital after vaginal birth from 2 to 3 days.
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c. Expanding the number of neonatal intensive care units (NICUs).
d. Mandating that all pregnant women receive care from an obstetrician.
ANS: A
Early prenatal care allows for early diagnosis and appropriate interventions to reduce the rate
of infant mortality. An increased length of stay has been shown to foster improved self-care
and parental education. However, it does not prevent the incidence of leading causes of infant
mortality rates, such as low birth weight. Early prevention and diagnosis reduce the rate of
infant mortality. NICUs offer care to high risk infants after they are born. Expanding the
number of NICUs would offer better access for high risk care, but this factor is not the
primary focus for further reduction of infant mortality rates. A mandate that all pregnant
women receive obstetric care would be nearly impossible to enforce. Furthermore, certified
nurse-midwives (CNMs) have demonstrated reliable, safe care for pregnant women.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension
OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
9. Alternative and complementary therapies:
a. replace conventional Western modalities of treatment.
b. are used by only a small number of American adults.
c. recognize the value of patients’ input into their health care.
d. focus primarily on the disease an individual is experiencing.
ANS: C
Many popular alternative healing modalities offer human-centered care based on philosophies
that recognize the value of the patient’s input and honor the individual’s beliefs, values, and
desires. Alternative and complementary therapies are part of an integrative approach to health
care. An increasing number of American adults are seeking alternative and complementary
health care options. Alternative healing modalities offer a holistic approach to health, focusing
on the whole person, not just the disease.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension OBJ: Nursing Process: Planning
MSC: Client Needs: Physiologic Integrity
10. A 38-year-old Hispanic woman delivered a 9-pound, 6-ounce girl vaginally after being in
labor for 43 hours. The baby died 3 days later from sepsis. On what grounds would the
woman potentially have a legitimate legal case for negligence?
a. She is Hispanic.
b. She delivered a girl.
c. The standards of care were not met.
d. She refused fetal monitoring.
ANS: C
Not meeting the standards of care is a legitimate factor for a case of negligence. The patient’s
race is not a factor for a case of negligence. The infant’s gender is not a factor for a case of
negligence. Although fetal monitoring is the standard of care, the patient has the right to
refuse treatment. This refusal is not a case for negligence; however, informed consent should
be properly obtained, and the patient should sign an against medical advice form for refusal of
any treatment that is within the standard of care.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension OBJ: Nursing Process: Planning
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MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
11. A newly graduated nurse is attempting to understand the reason for increasing health care
spending in the United States. Her research finds that these costs are much higher compared
with other developed countries as a result of:
a. a higher rate of obesity among pregnant women.
b. limited access to technology.
c. increased usage of health care services along with lower prices.
d. homogeneity of the population.
ANS: A
Health care is one of the fastest growing sectors of the U.S. economy. Currently, 17.5% of the
gross domestic product is spent on health care. Higher spending in the United States compared
with 12 other industrialized countries is related to higher prices and readily accessible
technology along with greater obesity rates among women. More than one third of women in
the United States are obese. Of the U.S. population, 16% is uninsured and has limited access
to health care. Maternal morbidity and mortality are directly related to racial disparities.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis OBJ: Nursing Process: Planning
MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
12. The term used to describe legal and professional responsibility for practice for maternity
nurses is:
a. collegiality.
b. ethics.
c. evaluation.
d. accountability.
ANS: D
Accountability refers to legal and professional responsibility for practice. Collegiality refers to
a working relationship with one’s colleagues. Ethics refers to a code to guide practice.
Evaluation refers to examination of the effectiveness of interventions in relation to expected
outcomes.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Understanding OBJ: Nursing Process: Evaluation
MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
13. Through the use of social media technology, nurses can link with other nurses who may share
similar interests, insights about practice, and advocate for patients. The most concerning
pitfall for nurses using this technology is:
a. violation of patient privacy and confidentiality.
b. institutions and colleagues may be cast in an unfavorable light.
c. unintended negative consequences for using social media.
d. lack of institutional policy governing online contact.
ANS: A
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The most significant pitfall for nurses using this technology is the violation of patient privacy
and confidentiality. Furthermore, institutions and colleagues can be cast in unfavorable lights
with negative consequences for those posting information. Nursing students have been
expelled from school and nurses have been fired or reprimanded by their Board of Nursing for
injudicious posts. The American Nurses Association has published six principles for social
networking and nurses. All institutions should have policies guiding the use of social media,
and nurses should be familiar with these guidelines.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis
OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation
MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
14. An important development that affects maternity nursing is integrative health care, which:
a. seeks to provide the same health care for all racial and ethnic groups.
b. blends complementary and alternative therapies with conventional Western
treatment.
c. focuses on the disease or condition rather than the background of the patient.
d. has been mandated by Congress.
ANS: B
Integrative health care tries to mix the old with the new at the discretion of the patient and
health care providers. Integrative health care is a blending of new and traditional practices.
Integrative health care focuses on the whole person, not just the disease or condition. U.S. law
supports complementary and alternative therapies but does not mandate them.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Understanding
OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
15. The nurse caring for a pregnant patient should be aware that the U.S. birth rate shows which
trend?
a. Births to unmarried women are more likely to have less favorable outcomes.
b. Birth rates for women 40 to 44 years old are beginning to decline.
c. Cigarette smoking among pregnant women continues to increase.
d. The rates of maternal death owing to racial disparity are elevated in the United
States.
ANS: A
Low-birth-weight infants and preterm birth are more likely because of the large number of
teenagers in the unmarried group. Birth rates for women in their early 40s continue to
increase. Fewer pregnant women smoke. In the United States, there is significant racial
disparity in the rates of maternal death.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension
OBJ: Nursing Process: Assessment
MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
16. Maternity nursing care that is based on knowledge gained through research and clinical
trials is:
a. derived from the Nursing Intervention Classification.
b. known as evidence-based practice.
c. at odds with the Cochrane School of traditional nursing.
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d. an outgrowth of telemedicine.
ANS: B
Evidence-based practice is based on knowledge gained from research and clinical trials. The
Nursing Intervention Classification is a method of standardizing language and categorizing
care. Dr. Cochrane systematically reviewed research trials and is part of the evidence-based
practice movement. Telemedicine uses communication technologies to support health care.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension
OBJ: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity
17. The level of practice a reasonably prudent nurse provides is called:
a. the standard of care.
b. risk management.
c. a sentinel event.
d. failure to rescue.
ANS: A
Guidelines for standards of care are published by various professional nursing organizations.
Risk management identifies risks and establishes preventive practices, but it does not define
the standard of care. Sentinel events are unexpected negative occurrences. They do not
establish the standard of care. Failure to rescue is an evaluative process for nursing, but it does
not define the standard of care.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension OBJ: Nursing Process: Diagnosis
MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
18. While obtaining a detailed history from a woman who has recently emigrated from Somalia,
the nurse realizes that the patient has undergone female genital mutilation (FGM). The nurse’s
best response to this patient is:
a. “this is a very abnormal practice and rarely seen in the United States.”
b. “do you know who performed this so that it can be reported to the authorities?”
c. “we will be able to restore your circumcision fully after delivery.”
d. “the extent of your circumcision will affect the potential for complications.”
ANS: D
“The extent of your circumcision will affect the potential for complications” is the most
appropriate response. The patient may experience pain, bleeding, scarring, or infection and
may require surgery before childbirth. With the growing number of immigrants from countries
where FGM is practiced, nurses will increasingly encounter women who have undergone the
procedure. Although this practice is not prevalent in the United States, it is very common in
many African and Middle Eastern countries for religious reasons. Responding with, “This is a
very abnormal practice and rarely seen in the United States” is culturally insensitive. The
infibulation may have occurred during infancy or childhood. The patient will have little to no
recollection of the event. She would have considered this to be a normal milestone during her
growth and development. The International Council of Nurses has spoken out against this
procedure as harmful to a woman’s health.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application OBJ: Nursing Process: Planning
MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
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19. To ensure patient safety, the practicing nurse must have knowledge of the current Joint
Commission’s “Do Not Use” list of abbreviations. Which of the following is acceptable for
use?
a. q.o.d. or Q.O.D.
b. MSO4 or MgSO4
c. International Unit
d. Lack of a leading zero
ANS: C
The abbreviations “i.u.” and “I.U.” are no longer acceptable because they could be misread as
“I.V.” or the number “10.” The abbreviation “q.o.d. or Q.O.D.” should be written out as
“every other day.” The period after the “Q” could be mistaken for an “I”; the “o” could also
be mistaken for an “i.” With MSO4 or MgSO4, it is too easy to confuse one medication for
another. These medications are used for very different purposes and could put a patient at risk
for an adverse outcome. They should be written as morphine sulfate and magnesium sulfate.
The decimal point should never be missed before a number to avoid confusion (i.e., 0.4 rather
than .4).
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application
OBJ: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity
20. Healthy People 2020 has established national health priorities that focus on a number of
maternal-child health indicators. Nurses are assuming greater roles in assessing family health
and providing care across the perinatal continuum. Therefore, it is important for the nurse to
be aware that significant progress has been made in:
a. the reduction of fetal deaths and use of prenatal care.
b. low birth weight and preterm birth.
c. elimination of health disparities based on race.
d. infant mortality and the prevention of birth defects.
ANS: A
Trends in maternal child health indicate that progress has been made in relation to reduced
infant and fetal deaths and increased prenatal care. Notable gaps remain in the rates of low
birth weight and preterm births. According to the March of Dimes, persistent disparities still
exist between African-Americans and non-Hispanic Caucasians. Many of these negative
outcomes are preventable through access to prenatal care and the use of preventive health
practices. This demonstrates the need for comprehensive community-based care for all
mothers, infants, and families.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge
OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation
MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
1. Which interventions would help alleviate the problems associated with access to health care
for maternity patients? (Select all that apply.)
a. Provide transportation to prenatal visits.
b. Provide child care so that a pregnant woman may keep prenatal visits.
c. Mandate that physicians make house calls.
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d. Provide low-cost or no-cost health care insurance.
e. Provide job training.
ANS: A, B, D
Lack of transportation to visits, lack of child care, and lack of affordable health insurance are
prohibitive factors associated with lack of prenatal care. House calls are not a cost-effective
approach to health care. Although job training may result in employment and income, the
likelihood of significant changes during the time frame of the pregnancy is remote.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Implementation OBJ: Nursing Process: Planning
MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
MATCHING
Medical errors are a leading cause of death in the United States. The National Quality Forum
has recommended numerous safe practices that nursing can promote to reduce errors. Match
each safe practice with the correct statement.
a. Ask the patient to “teach back.”
b. Comply with CDC guidelines.
c. Ensure that information is documented in a timely manner.
d. Promote interventions that will reduce patient risk.
e. Reduce exposure to radiation.
1. Hand hygiene
2. Informed consent
3. Culture measurement, feedback, and intervention
4. Pediatric imaging
5. Patient care information
1. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application
OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation
MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
NOT: The National Quality Forum updated its publication Safe Practices for Better Healthcare in
2010, outlining 24 safe practices that should be used in all health care settings to reduce the risk of
harm from the environment of care, processes, and systems. These are only a few of the recommended
practices; however, nurses should be familiar with these guidelines.
2. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application
OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation
MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
NOT: The National Quality Forum updated its publication Safe Practices for Better Healthcare in
2010, outlining 24 safe practices that should be used in all health care settings to reduce the risk of
harm from the environment of care, processes, and systems. These are only a few of the recommended
practices; however, nurses should be familiar with these guidelines.
3. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application
OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation
MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
NOT: The National Quality Forum updated its publication Safe Practices for Better Healthcare in
2010, outlining 24 safe practices that should be used in all health care settings to reduce the risk of
harm from the environment of care, processes, and systems. These are only a few of the recommended
practices; however, nurses should be familiar with these guidelines.
4. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application
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OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation
MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
NOT: The National Quality Forum updated its publication Safe Practices for Better Healthcare in
2010, outlining 24 safe practices that should be used in all health care settings to reduce the risk of
harm from the environment of care, processes, and systems. These are only a few of the recommended
practices; however, nurses should be familiar with these guidelines.
5. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application
OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation
MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
NOT: The National Quality Forum updated its publication Safe Practices for Better Healthcare in
2010, outlining 24 safe practices that should be used in all health care settings to reduce the risk of
harm from the environment of care, processes, and systems. These are only a few of the recommended
practices; however, nurses should be familiar with these guidelines.
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| Medical-Surgical Nursing: Making Connections to Practice 1st edition Hoffman, Sullivan Test Bank
Chapter 1: Foundations for Medical-Surgical Nursing
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. The medical-surgical nurse identifies a clinical practice issue and wants to determine if there is sufficient evidence to support a change in practice. Which type of study provides the strongest evidence to support a
practice change?
1) Randomized control study
2) Quasi-experimental study
3) Case-control study
4) Cohort study
____ 2. The medical-surgical unit recently implemented a patient-centered care model. Which action implemented by
the nurse supports this model?
1) Evaluating care
2) Assessing needs
3) Diagnosing problems
4) Providing compassion
____ 3. Which action should the nurse implement when providing patient care in order to support The Joint
Commission’s (TJC) National Patient Safety Goals (NPSG)?
1) Silencing a cardiorespiratory monitor
2) Identifying each patient using one source
3) Determining patient safety issues upon admission
4) Decreasing the amount of pain medication administered
____ 4. Which interprofessional role does the nurse often assume when providing patient care in an acute care
setting?
1) Social worker
2) Client advocate
3) Care coordinator
4) Massage therapist
____ 5. The medical-surgical nurse wants to determine if a policy change is needed for an identified clinical problem.
Which is the first action the nurse should implement?
1) Developing a question
2) Disseminating the findings
3) Conducting a review of the literature
4) Evaluating outcomes of practice change
____ 6. The nurse is evaluating the level of evidence found during a recent review of the literature. Which evidence
carries the lowest level of support for a practice change?
1) Level IV
2) Level V
3) Level VI
4) Level VII
____ 7. The nurse is reviewing evidence from a quasi-experimental research study. Which level of evidence should
the nurse identify for this research study?
1) Level ITestBankWorld.org
2) Level II
3) Level III
4) Level IV
____ 8. Which level of evidence should the nurse identify when reviewing evidence from a single descriptive research
study?
1) Level IV
2) Level V
3) Level VI
4) Level VII
____ 9. Which statement should the nurse make when communicating the “S” in the SBAR approach for effective
communication?
1) “The patient presented to the emergency department at 0200 with lower left abdominal
pain.”
2) “The patient rated the pain upon admission as a 9 on a 10-point numeric scale.”
3) “The patient has no significant issues in the medical history.”
4) “The patient was given a prescribed opioid analgesic at 0300.”
____ 10. The staff nurse is communicating with the change nurse about the change of status of the patient. The nurse
would begin her communication with which statement if correctly using the SBAR format?
1) “The patient’s heartrate is 110.”
2) “I think this patient needs to be transferred to the critical care unit.”
3) “The patient is a 68-year-old male patient admitted last night.”
4) “The patient is complaining of chest pain.”
____ 11. Which nursing action exemplifies the Quality and Safety Education for Nursing (QSEN) competency of
safety?
1) Advocating for a patient who is experiencing pain
2) Considering the patient’s culture when planning care
3) Evaluating patient learning style prior to implementing discharge instructions
4) Assessing the right drug prior to administering a prescribed patient medication
____ 12. Which type of nursing is the root of all other nursing practice areas?
1) Pediatric nursing
2) Geriatric nursing
3) Medical-surgical nursing
4) Mental health-psychiatric nursing
____ 13. Which did the Nursing Executive Center of The Advisory Board identify as an academic-practice gap for new
graduate nurses?
1) Patient advocacy
2) Patient education
3) Disease pathophysiology
4) Therapeutic communication
____ 14. Which statement regarding the use of the nursing process in clinical practice is accurate?
1) “The nursing process is closely related to clinical decision-making.”
2) “The nursing process is used by all members of the interprofessional team to plan care.”
3) “The nursing process has 4 basic steps: assessment, planning, implementation,
evaluation.”
4) “The nursing process is being replaced by the implementation of evidence-based practice.”TestBankWorld.org
____ 15. Which is the basis of nursing care practices and protocols?
1) Assessment
2) Evaluation
3) Diagnosis
4) Research
____ 16. Which is a common theme regarding patient dissatisfaction related to care provided in the hospital setting?
1) Space in hospital rooms
2) Medications received to treat pain
3) Time spent with the health-care team
4) Poor quality food received from dietary
____ 17. The nurse manager is preparing a medical-surgical unit for The Joint Commission (TJC) visit With the nurse
manager presenting staff education focusing on TJC benchmarks, which of the following topics would be
most appropriate?
1) Implementation of evidence-based practice
2) Implementation of patient-centered care
3) Implementation of medical asepsis practices
4) Implementation of interprofessional care
____ 18. Which aspect of patient-centered care should the nurse manager evaluate prior to The Joint Commission site
visit for accreditation?
1) Visitation rights
2) Education level of staff
3) Fall prevention protocol
4) Infection control practices
____ 19. The medical-surgical nurse is providing patient care. Which circumstance would necessitate the nurse
verifying the patient’s identification using at least two sources?
1) Prior to delivering a meal tray
2) Prior to passive range of motion
3) Prior to medication administration
4) Prior to documenting in the medical record
____ 20. The nurse is providing care to several patients on a medical-surgical unit. Which situation would necessitate
the nurse to use SBAR during the hand-off process?
1) Wound care
2) Discharge to home
3) Transfer to radiology
4) Medication education
Multiple Response
Identify one or more choices that best complete the statement or answer the question.
____ 21. The staff nurse is teaching a group of student nurses the situations that necessitate hand-off communication.
Which student responses indicate the need for further education related to this procedure? Select all that
apply.
1) “A hand-off is required prior to administering a medication.”
2) “A hand-off is required during change of shift.”
3) “A hand-off is required for a patient is transferred to the surgical suite.”TestBankWorld.org
4) “A hand-off is required whenever the nurse receives a new patient assignment.”
5) “A hand-off is required prior to family visitation.”
____ 22. Which actions by the nurse enhance patient safety during medication administration? Select all that apply.
1) Answering the call bell while transporting medications for a different patient
2) Identifying the patient using two sources prior to administering the medication
3) Holding a medication if the patient’s diagnosis does not support its use
4) Administering the medication two hours after the scheduled time
5) Having another nurse verify the prescribed dose of insulin the patient is to receive
____ 23. The medical-surgical nurse assumes care for a patient who is receiving continuous cardiopulmonary
monitoring. Which actions by the nurse enhance safety for this patient? Select all that apply.
1) Silencing the alarm during family visitation
2) Assessing the alarm parameters at the start of the shift
3) Responding to the alarm in a timely fashion
4) Decreasing the alarm volume to enhance restful sleep
5) Adjusting alarm parameters based on specified practitioner prescription
____ 24. The nurse is planning an interprofessional care conference for a patient who is approaching discharge from
the hospital. Which members of the interprofessional team should the nurse invite to attend? Select all that
apply.
1) Physician
2) Pharmacist
3) Unit secretary
4) Social worker
5) Home care aide
____ 25. The nurse manager wants to designate a member of the nursing team as the care coordinator for a patient who
will require significant care during the hospitalization. Which skills should this nurse possess in order to
assume this role? Select all that apply.
1) Effective clinical reasoning
2) Effective communication skills
3) Effective infection control procedures
4) Effective documentation
5) Effective intravenous skillsTestBankWorld.org
Chapter 1: Foundations for Medical-Surgical Nursing
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. ANS: 1
Chapter number and title: 1, Foundations for Medical Surgical Practice
Chapter learning objective: Discussing the incorporation of evidence-based practices into medical-surgical
nursing
Chapter page reference: 003-004
Heading: Evidence-Based Nursing Care
Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Planning
Client Need: Safe and Effective Care Environment/Management of Care
Cognitive level: Comprehension [Understanding]
Concept: Evidence-Based Practice
Difficulty: Easy
Feedback
1 Systematic reviews of randomized control studies (Level I) are the highest level of
evidence because they include data from selected studies that randomly assigned
participants to control and experimental groups. The lower the numerical rating of the
level of evidence indicates the highest level of evidence; therefore, this type of study
provides the strongest evidence to support a practice change.
2 Quasi-experimental studies are considered Level III; therefore, this study does not
provide the strongest evidence to support a practice change.
3 Case-control studies are considered Level IV; therefore, this study does not provide the
strongest evidence to support a practice change.
4 Cohort studies are considered Level IV; therefore, this study does not provide the
strongest evidence to support a practice change.
PTS: 1 CON: Evidence-Based Practice
2. ANS: 4
Chapter number and title: 1, Foundations of Medical-Surgical Practice
Chapter learning objective: Explaining the importance of patient-centered care in the management of
medical-surgical patients
Chapter page reference: 004-005
Heading: Patient-Centered Care in the Medical-Surgical Setting
Integrated Processes: Caring
Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
Cognitive level: Application [Applying]
Concept: Nursing Roles
Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
1 Evaluation is a step in the nursing process; however, this is not an action that supports
the patient-centered care model.
2 Assessment is a step in the nursing process; however, this is not an action that supports
the patient-centered care model.TestBankWorld.org
3 Diagnosis is a step in the nursing process; however, this is not an action that supports
the patient-centered care model.
4 Compassion is a competency closely associated with patient-centered care; therefore,
this action supports the patient-centered model of care.
PTS: 1 CON: Nursing Roles
3. ANS: 3
Chapter number and title: 1, Foundations of Medical-Surgical Nursing Practice
Chapter learning objective: Discussing implications to medical-surgical nurses of Quality and Safety
Education for Nurses (QSEN) competencies
Chapter page reference: 005-006
Heading: Patient Safety Outcomes
Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Implementation
Client Need: Safe and Effective Care Environment/Management of Care
Cognitive level: Application [Applying]
Concept: Safety
Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
1 Safely using alarms is a NPSG identified by TJC. Silencing a cardiorespiratory monitor
is not nursing action that supports this NPSG.
2 Patient identification using two separate resources is a NPSG identified by TJC.
Identifying a patient using only one source does not support this NPSG.
3 Identification of patient safety risks is a NPSG identified by the TJC. Determining
patient safety issues upon admission supports this NPSG.
4 Safe use of medication is a NPSG identified by the TJC. Decreasing the amount of pain
medication administered does not support this NPSG.
PTS: 1 CON: Safety
4. ANS: 3
Chapter number and title: 1, Foundations of Medical-Surgical Nursing Practice
Chapter learning objective: Describing the role and competencies of medical-surgical nursing
Chapter page reference: 006-007
Heading: Interprofessional Collaboration and Communication
Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Implementation
Client Need: Safe and Effective Care Environment/Management of Care
Cognitive level: Comprehension [Understanding]
Concept: Nursing Roles
Difficulty: Easy
Feedback
1 The nurse does not often assume the interprofessional role of social worker when
providing patient care in an acute care setting.
2 The nurse does not often assume the interprofessional role of client advocate role when
providing patient care in an acute care setting.
3 The nurse often assumes the interprofessional role of care coordinator when providing
patient care in an acute care setting.
4 The nurse does not often assume the interprofessional role of massage therapist when
providing patient care in an acute care setting.TestBankWorld.org
PTS: 1 CON: Nursing Roles
5. ANS: 1
Chapter number and title: 1, Foundations of Medical-Surgical Practice
Chapter learning objective: Discussing the incorporation of evidence-based practices into medical-surgical
nursing
Chapter page reference: 003
Heading: Box 1.3 Steps of Evidence-Based Practice
Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Implementation
Client Need: Safe and Effective Care Environment/Management of Care
Cognitive level: Analysis [Analyzing]
Concept: Evidence-Based Practice
Difficulty: Difficult
Feedback
1 The first step of evidence-based practice is to develop a question based on the clinical
issue.
2 The last step of evidence-based practice is to disseminate findings.
3 The second step of evidence-based practice is to conduct a review of the literature, or
current evidence, available.
4 The fifth step of evidence-based practice is to evaluate the outcomes associated with the
practice change.
PTS: 1 CON: Evidence-Based Practice
6. ANS: 4
Chapter number and title: 1, Foundations of Medical-Surgical Nursing Practice
Chapter learning objective: Discussing the incorporation of evidence-based practices into medical-surgical
nursing
Chapter page reference: 004
Heading: Box 1.4 Evaluating Levels of Evidence
Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Planning
Client Need: Safe and Effective Care Environment/Management of Care
Cognitive level: Comprehension [Understanding]
Concept: Evidence-Based Practice
Difficulty: Easy
Feedback
1 The lower the numeric value of the evidence the greater the support for a change in
practice. Level IV evidence does not carry the lowest level of support for a practice
change.
2 The lower the numeric value of the evidence the greater the support for a change in
practice. Level V evidence does not carry the lowest level of support for a practice
change.
3 The lower the numeric value of the evidence the greater the support for a change in
practice. Level VI evidence does not carry the lowest level of support for a practice
change.
4 The lower the numeric value of the evidence the greater the support for a change in
practice. Level VII evidence carries the lowest level of support for a practice change.
| Chapter 01: Foundations of Maternity, Women’s Health, and Child Health Nursing
MULTIPLE CHOICE
- Which factor significantly contributed to the shift from home births to hospital births in the early 20th century?
| a. |
Puerperal sepsis was identified as a risk factor in labor and delivery. |
| b. |
Forceps were developed to facilitate difficult births. |
| c. |
The importance of early parental-infant contact was identified. |
| d. |
Technologic developments became available to physicians. |
ANS: D
Technologic developments were available to physicians, not lay midwives. So in-hospital births increased in order to take advantage of these advancements. Puerperal sepsis has been a known problem for generations. In the late 19th century, Semmelweis discovered how it could be prevented with improved hygienic practices. The development of forceps is an example of a technology advance made in the early 20th century but is not the only reason birthplaces moved. Unlike home births, early hospital births hindered bonding between parents and their infants.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remembering
REF: p. 1 OBJ: Integrated Process: Teaching-Learning
MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
- Family-centered maternity care developed in response to
| a. |
demands by physicians for family involvement in childbirth. |
| b. |
the Sheppard-Towner Act of 1921. |
| c. |
parental requests that infants be allowed to remain with them rather than in a nursery. |
| d. |
changes in pharmacologic management of labor. |
ANS: C
As research began to identify the benefits of early extended parent-infant contact, parents began to insist that the infant remain with them. This gradually developed into the practice of rooming-in and finally to family-centered maternity care. Family-centered care was a request by parents, not physicians. The Sheppard-Towner Act of 1921 provided funds for state-managed programs for mothers and children. The changes in pharmacologic management of labor were not a factor in family-centered maternity care.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remembering
REF: p. 2 OBJ: Integrated Process: Teaching-Learning
MSC: Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity
- Which setting for childbirth allows the least amount of parent-infant contact?
| a. |
Labor/delivery/recovery/postpartum room |
| b. |
Birth center |
| c. |
Traditional hospital birth |
| d. |
Home birth |
ANS: C
In the traditional hospital setting, the mother may see the infant for only short feeding periods, and the infant is cared for in a separate nursery. The labor/delivery/recovery/postpartum room setting allows increased parent-infant contact. Birth centers are set up to allow an increase in parent-infant contact. Home births allow an increase in parent-infant contact.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remembering
REF: p. 2 OBJ: Nursing Process: Planning
MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
- As a result of changes in health care delivery and funding, a current trend seen in the pediatric setting is
| a. |
increased hospitalization of children. |
| b. |
decreased number of children living in poverty. |
| c. |
an increase in ambulatory care. |
| d. |
decreased use of managed care. |
ANS: C
One effect of managed care has been that pediatric health care delivery has shifted dramatically from the acute care setting to the ambulatory setting in order to provide more cost-efficient care. The number of hospital beds being used has decreased as more care is given in outpatient settings and in the home. The number of children living in poverty has increased over the past decade. One of the biggest changes in health care has been the growth of managed care.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remembering
REF: p. 5 OBJ: Nursing Process: Planning
MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
- The Women, Infants, and Children (WIC) program provides
| a. |
well-child examinations for infants and children living at the poverty level. |
| b. |
immunizations for high-risk infants and children. |
| c. |
screening for infants with developmental disorders. |
| d. |
supplemental food supplies to low-income pregnant or breastfeeding women. |
ANS: D
WIC is a federal program that provides supplemental food supplies to low-income women who are pregnant or breastfeeding and to their children until age 5 years. Medicaid’s Early and Periodic Screening, Diagnosis, and Treatment Program provides for well-child examinations and for treatment of any medical problems diagnosed during such checkups. Children in the WIC program are often referred for immunizations, but that is not the primary focus of the program. Public Law 99-457 is part of the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act that provides financial incentives to states to establish comprehensive early intervention services for infants and toddlers with, or at risk for, developmental disabilities.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 8
OBJ: Integrated Process: Teaching-Learning
MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
- In most states, adolescents who are not emancipated minors must have the permission of their parents before
| a. |
treatment for drug abuse. |
| b. |
treatment for sexually transmitted diseases (STDs). |
| c. |
accessing birth control. |
| d. |
surgery. |
ANS: D
Minors are not considered capable of giving informed consent, so a surgical procedure would require consent of the parent or guardian. Exceptions exist for obtaining treatment for drug abuse or STDs or for getting birth control in most states.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remembering
REF: p. 17 OBJ: Nursing Process: Planning
MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
- The maternity nurse should have a clear understanding of the correct use of a clinical pathway. One characteristic of clinical pathways is that they
| a. |
are developed and implemented by nurses. |
| b. |
are used primarily in the pediatric setting. |
| c. |
set specific time lines for sequencing interventions. |
| d. |
are part of the nursing process. |
ANS: C
Clinical pathways are standardized, interdisciplinary plans of care devised for patients with a particular health problem. They are used to identify patient outcomes, specify time lines to achieve those outcomes, direct appropriate interventions and sequencing of interventions, include interventions from a variety of disciplines, promote collaboration, and involve a comprehensive approach to care. They are developed by multiple health care professionals and reflect interdisciplinary care. They can be used in multiple settings and for patients throughout the life span. They are not part of the nursing process but can be used in conjunction with the nursing process to provide care to patients.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remembering
REF: p. 7 OBJ: Nursing Process: Planning
MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
- The fastest growing group of homeless people is
| a. |
men and women preparing for retirement. |
| b. |
migrant workers. |
| c. |
single women and their children. |
| d. |
intravenous (IV) substance abusers. |
ANS: C
Pregnancy and birth, especially for a teenager, are important contributing factors for becoming homeless. People preparing for retirement, migrant workers, and IV substance abusers are not among the fastest growing groups of homeless people.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remembering
REF: p. 14 OBJ: Nursing Process: Assessment
MSC: Client Needs: Physiologic Integrity
- A nurse wishes to work to reduce infant mortality in the United States. Which activity would this nurse most likely participate in?
| a. |
Creating pamphlets in several different languages using an interpreter. |
| b. |
Assisting women to enroll in Medicaid by their third trimester. |
| c. |
Volunteering to provide prenatal care at community centers. |
| d. |
Working as an intake counselor at a women’s shelter. |
ANS: C
Prenatal care is vital to reducing infant mortality and medical costs. This nurse would most likely participate in community service providing prenatal care outreach activities in community centers, particularly in low-income areas. Pamphlets in other languages, enrolling in Medicaid, and working at a women’s shelter all might impact infant mortality, but the greatest effect would be from assisting women to get consistent prenatal care.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application/Applying
REF: p. 14 OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation
MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
- The intrapartum woman sees no need for a routine admission fetal monitoring strip. If she continues to refuse, what is the first action the nurse should take?
| a. |
Consult the family of the woman. |
| b. |
Notify the provider of the situation. |
| c. |
Document the woman’s refusal in the nurse’s notes. |
| d. |
Make a referral to the hospital ethics committee. |
ANS: B
Patients must be allowed to make choices voluntarily without undue influence or coercion from others. The physician, especially if unaware of the patient’s decision, should be notified immediately. Both professionals can work to ensure the mother understands the rationale for the action and the possible consequences of refusal. The woman herself is the decision-maker, unless incapacitated. Documentation should occur but is not the first action. This situation does not rise to the level of an ethical issue so there is no reason to call the ethics committee.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application/Applying
REF: p. 18 OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation
MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
- Which statement is true regarding the “quality assurance” or “incident” report?
| a. |
The report assures the legal department that no problem exists. |
| b. |
Reports are a permanent part of the patient’s chart. |
| c. |
The nurse’s notes should contain, “Incident report filed, and copy placed in chart.” |
| d. |
This report is a form of documentation of an event that may result in legal action. |
ANS: D
An incident report is used when something occurs that might result in legal action, such as a patient fall or medication error. It warns the legal department that there may be a problem in a particular patient’s care. Incident reports are not part of the patient’s chart; thus the nurses’ notes should not contain any reference to them.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remembering
REF: p. 18 OBJ: Integrated Process: Communication and Documentation
MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
- Elective abortion is considered an ethical issue because
| a. |
abortion law is unclear about a woman’s constitutional rights. |
| b. |
the Supreme Court ruled that life begins at conception. |
| c. |
a conflict exists between the rights of the woman and the rights of the fetus. |
| d. |
it requires third-party consent. |
ANS: C |
Chapter 01: Community Health Nursing
Stanhope: Community Health Nursing in Canada, 3rd Canadian Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which of the following best describes community health nursing?
| a. |
Giving care with a focus on the aggregate’s needs |
| b. |
Giving care with a focus on the group’s needs |
| c. |
Focusing on the health care of individual clients in the community |
| d. |
Working with an approach of unique client care |
ANS: C
By definition, community health nursing is the health care of individual clients in the community.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remember REF: p. 3
OBJ: 1.6
TOP: Client Need: Safe and Effective Care Environment - Management of Care
2. Which of the following best describes primary health care?
| a. |
A comprehensive way to address issues of social justice |
| b. |
Giving the care to manage acute or chronic conditions |
| c. |
Giving direct care to ill individuals within their family setting |
| d. |
Having the goal of health promotion and disease prevention |
ANS: A
By definition, primary health care is comprehensive and addresses issues of social justice and equity. Social justice in the context of health refers to ensuring fairness and equality in health services so that vulnerable individuals in society have easy access to health care.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remember REF: p. 10
OBJ: 1.4 TOP: Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance
3. The health of which of the following is the primary focus of public health nurses (PHNs)?
| a. |
Families |
| b. |
Groups |
| c. |
Individuals |
| d. |
Populations |
ANS: D
PHNs use knowledge of nursing, social sciences, and public health sciences for the promotion and protection of health and for the prevention of disease among populations.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remember REF: p. 13, Table 1-4 | p. 20
OBJ: 1.5 TOP: Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance
4. Which change is the primary explanation for life expectancy increasing so notably since the early 1900s?
| a. |
An increase in findings from medical laboratory research |
| b. |
Incredible advances in surgical techniques and procedures |
| c. |
Improved sanitation and other public health activities |
| d. |
Increased use of antibiotics to fight infections |
ANS: C
Improvement in control of infectious diseases through immunizations, sanitation, and other public health activities led to the increase in life expectancy since the early 1900s.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remember REF: pp. 12-13
OBJ: 1.5 TOP: Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance
5. Which community health nursing practice area receives funding from the private sector?
| a. |
Telenurses |
| b. |
Corrections nurses |
| c. |
Nurse entrepreneurs |
| d. |
Street or outreach nurses |
ANS: C
The nurse entrepreneur receives private funding, whereas all of the other community health nurse (CHN) roles are with provincially or federally funded positions.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remember REF: p. 22, Table 1-4 Examples
OBJ: 1.6
TOP: Client Need: Safe and Effective Care Environment - Management of Care
6. A PHN strives to prevent disease and disability, often in partnership with other community groups. Which statement is an appropriate summary of the PHN’s role?
| a. |
The PHN asks the political leaders what interventions should be chosen. |
| b. |
The PHN assesses the community and decides on appropriate interventions. |
| c. |
The PHN uses data from the main health care institutions in the community to determine needed health services. |
| d. |
The PHN works with community members to carry out public health functions. |
ANS: D
It is crucial that the PHN work with members of the community to carry out core public health functions.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application/Apply REF: p. 13, How To box
OBJ: 1.5 TOP: Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance
7. Which of the following is used as a measurement of population health?
| a. |
Health status indicators |
| b. |
The levels of prevention |
| c. |
The number of memberships at the local fitness centre |
| d. |
Reported provincial alcohol and tobacco sales in any given month |
ANS: A
Population health refers to the health outcomes of a population as measured by determinants of health and health outcomes.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remember REF: p. 16
OBJ: 1.2 TOP: Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance
8. A registered nurse (RN), has just been employed as a CHN. Which question would be most relevant to her practice as she begins her position?
| a. |
“Which community groups are at greatest risk for problems?” |
| b. |
“Which patients should I see first as I begin my day?” |
| c. |
“With which physicians will I be collaborating most closely?” |
| d. |
“Who is the nursing assistant to whom I can refer patients?” |
ANS: A
CHNs apply the nursing process to the entire community; asking which groups are at greatest risk reflects a community-oriented perspective. The other possible responses focus on particular individuals.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application/Apply REF: p. 15
OBJ: 1.6 TOP: Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance
9. The CHN working with women at the senior citizens’ centre reminds them that the only way the centre will be able to afford a driver and a van service for those who cannot drive themselves is to continue to write letters to their local city council representatives, requesting funding for such a service. What is the CHN doing?
| a. |
Ensuring that the women do not expect the CHN herself to do anything about their problem |
| b. |
Demonstrating that she understands the women’s concerns and needs |
| c. |
Expressing empathy, support, and concern |
| d. |
Helping the women engage in political action locally |
ANS: D
CHNs have an imperative to work with the members of the community to carry out public health functions such as political action.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application/Apply REF: p. 13, How To box
OBJ: 1.5 | 1.6
TOP: Client Need: Safe and Effective Care Environment - Management of Care
10. Which activity is an example of the “advocate” role of the CHN?
| a. |
Organizing home care support for a newly discharged older adult client |
| b. |
Acting as a member of a community action group for provision of accessible transit choices |
| c. |
Doing prenatal assessments |
| d. |
Facilitating a self-help group for smoking cessation |
ANS: B
An advocate provides a voice to client concerns when acting as a member of a community action group for provision of accessible transit choices.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application/Apply REF: p. 19, Table 1-3
OBJ: 1.6
TOP: Client Need: Safe and Effective Care Environment - Management of Care
11. In which scenario is the PHN most comprehensively fulfilling collaborative practice responsibilities?
| a. |
The PHN meets with several groups about community recreation issues. |
| b. |
The PHN spends the day attending meetings at various health agencies. |
| c. |
The PHN talks to several people about their particular health concerns. |
| d. |
The PHN watches television, including a telecast of a city council meeting on the local cable station. |
ANS: B
Any of these might represent a PHN communicating, cooperating, or collaborating with community residents or groups about health concerns. However, the PHN who spends the day attending meetings at various health agencies is most comprehensively fulfilling requirements effectively, since health is broader than recreation, individual concerns are not as important as aggregate priorities, and watching television is only one-way communication.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Synthesis/Synthesize REF: pp. 15-16
OBJ: 1.5
TOP: Client Need: Safe and Effective Care Environment - Management of Care
12. A CHN often has to make resource allocation decisions. In such cases, which approach will most help the CHN to arrive at the decision?
| a. |
Choosing a moral or ethical principle |
| b. |
Choosing the cheapest, most economical approach |
| c. |
Choosing the most rational outcome |
| d. |
Choosing the needs of the aggregate, rather than the needs of a few individuals |
ANS: D
Although all of the answers represent components of the CHN’s decision-making process, the predominant needs of the population outweigh the expressed needs of one person or a few people.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application/Apply REF: pp. 7-8
OBJ: 1.3
TOP: Client Need: Safe and Effective Care Environment - Management of Care
13. Which situation most closely represents the focus of public health nursing?
| a. |
Assessing the services and effectiveness of the school health clinic |
| b. |
Caring for patients after their outpatient surgeries |
| c. |
Giving care to schoolchildren at the school clinic and to the children’s families |
| d. |
Treating paediatric patients at an outpatient clinic |
ANS: A
A public health or population-focused approach would consider the entire group of children receiving care, to see if services are effective in achieving the goal of improving the health of the school population.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application/Apply REF: p. 13, How To box
OBJ: 1.5 TOP: Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance
14. Which public health service best represents primary prevention?
| a. |
Developing a health education program about the dangers of smoking |
| b. |
Providing a diabetes clinic for adults in low-income neighbourhoods |
| c. |
Providing an influenza vaccination program in a community retirement village |
| d. |
Teaching school-aged children about the positive effects of exercise |
ANS: C
Although all the services listed are appropriate and valuable, providing influenza vaccines to healthy adults represents the primary level of health prevention.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application/Apply REF: p. 14
OBJ: 1.5 TOP: Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance
15. What term is used interchangeably with the term subpopulations?
| a. |
Groups |
| b. |
Aggregates |
| c. |
Clients |
| d. |
Communities |
ANS: B
Generally, subpopulations are referred to as aggregates within the larger community population.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remember REF: p. 16
OBJ: 1.2 TOP: Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance
|
Chapter 1
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. A nurse is educating a nursing student about nursing history. The nurse explains that throughout ancient history, nursing care was provided by family members and
| 1. |
Nurses. |
| 2. |
Physicians. |
| 3. |
Male priests. |
| 4. |
Female priests. |
____ 2. A nurse is teaching a student about the history of nursing. The nurse informs the student that in 1836, the first school of nursing was established in Kaiserworth, Germany, by
| 1. |
Jean Watson. |
| 2. |
Clara Barton. |
| 3. |
Theodor Fliedner. |
| 4. |
Florence Nightingale. |
____ 3. A nurse teaches a student nurse that in 1897, the Nurses Associated Alumnae of the United States was formed in an effort to
| 1. |
Set standards and rules in nursing education. |
| 2. |
Keep nurses aware of the newest medical information. |
| 3. |
Oversee training to protect patients from incompetent nurses. |
| 4. |
Keep nurses updated on the newest information about nursing education. |
____ 4. The purpose of the National League for Nursing is to
| 1. |
Set standards and rules in nursing education. |
| 2. |
Keep nurses aware of the newest medical information. |
| 3. |
Oversee training to protect patients from incompetent nurses. |
| 4. |
Keep nurses updated on the newest information about nursing education. |
____ 5. All states required practical nurses to be licensed in the year
| 1. |
1940. |
| 2. |
1945. |
| 3. |
1950. |
| 4. |
1955. |
____ 6. The title licensed practical nurse (LPN) is used in all states except California and
| 1. |
Texas. |
| 2. |
Maine. |
| 3. |
Alaska. |
| 4. |
Arizona. |
____ 7. The National Council Licensure Examination for Practical Nursing (NCLEX-PN) is
| 1. |
Taken in order to practice as a nurse. |
| 2. |
Given as an entrance examination for nursing school. |
| 3. |
Individualized based on where an examinee resides. |
| 4. |
Taken in order to practice as a certified nursing assistant (CNA). |
____ 8. A nurse recruiter is seeking a graduate nurse who has been educated more extensively on management and leadership. The graduate nurse who most likely fits this description is the
| 1. |
Diploma nurse. |
| 2. |
Associate degree nurse (ADN). |
| 3. |
Licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN). |
| 4. |
Baccalaureate degree nurse (BSN). |
____ 9. Which statement about the Nurse Practice Act is accurate?
| 1. |
The Nurse Practice Act clarifies who can supervise a physician. |
| 2. |
The Nurse Practice Act is the law that governs the actions of nurses. |
| 3. |
The Nurse Practice Act is determined by the National League of Nursing. |
| 4. |
The Nurse Practice Act specifies the tasks of the unlicensed assistive personnel. |
____ 10. A nurse educates a nursing student about the Nurse Practice Act. The nursing student demonstrates understanding when he or she states:
| 1. |
“The Nurse Practice Act is the same in every state.” |
| 2. |
“The Nurse Practice Act does not specify who can supervise a nurse.” |
| 3. |
“The Nurse Practice Act is determined by the American Nurses Association.” |
| 4. |
“The Nurse Practice Act establishes the scope of practice for each level of nurse.” |
____ 11. While caring for a patient, a nurse performs a nursing action that is not within his or her scope of practice. The nurse has violated the
| 1. |
Ethics Committee. |
| 2. |
Nurse Practice Act. |
| 3. |
State Department of Health. |
| 4. |
National League for Nursing Education. |
____ 12. The Nurse Practice Act is enforced by the
| 1. |
State Board of Nursing. |
| 2. |
County Health Department. |
| 3. |
State Department of Health. |
| 4. |
National League for Nursing. |
____ 13. A nurse is caring for a resident in a long-term setting. The nurse best demonstrates a caring approach when
| 1. |
Performing all activities of daily living for the resident. |
| 2. |
Asking the resident’s spouse to bring a family picture for the resident’s room. |
| 3. |
Answering the resident’s questions quickly without allowing time for clarification. |
| 4. |
Encouraging the resident’s spouse to decide which activities the resident should do. |
____ 14. A nurse is caring for multiple patients on a medical unit. The nurse can best practice the art of nursing with an emphasis on caring by
| 1. |
Providing identical care to each patient. |
| 2. |
Individualizing care provided to each patient. |
| 3. |
Viewing the patients in terms of a cellular disorder. |
| 4. |
Viewing the patients as seriously ill and needing a cure. |
____ 15. A nurse is educating a student nurse about the responsibilities of a student nurse. The nurse recognizes that additional teaching is needed when the student nurse states:
| 1. |
“I will check laboratory results for my patients often.” |
| 2. |
“I am responsible for noting abnormal assessment findings.” |
| 3. |
“I will frequently check the patient’s chart for diagnostic test results.” |
| 4. |
“It is not within my scope of practice to notify someone of abnormal findings.” |
____ 16. A nursing instructor teaches a student nurse about the importance of joining a professional organization. The nursing instructor recognizes that further instruction is necessary when the student nurse states,
| 1. |
“Professional organizations allow me to have a collective voice.” |
| 2. |
“Professional organizations limit my ability to influence laws and policies.” |
| 3. |
“Professional behavior is demonstrated by joining a professional organization.” |
| 4. |
“By joining a professional organization, I will have opportunities for leadership.” |
| Test Bank for Public Health Science and Nursing Practice Caring For Populations by Savage
Chapter 10: Mental Health
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
1.According to Healthy People 2020, which of the following are characteristics of mental health?
Select all that apply.
| A. |
Engaging in productive activities |
| B. |
Having fulfilling relationships |
| C. |
Experiencing alterations in thinking |
| D. |
Adapting to change |
| E. |
Coping with challenges |
ANS: A, B, D, E
Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders.
pp. 225-226
Heading: Introduction
Integrated Processes: N/A
Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
Cognitive Level: Knowledge [Remembering]
Concept: Promoting Health
Difficulty: Moderate
|
Feedback |
| 1. |
Mental health is a state of successful performance of mental function, including engagement in productive activities. |
| 2. |
Mental health is a state of successful performance of mental function, including being able to form fulfilling relationships with other people. |
| 3. |
This is incorrect; it is an example of a mental disorder. Mental disorders are health conditions that are characterized by alterations in thinking, mood, or behavior that are associated with distress or impaired functioning. |
| 4. |
Mental health is a state of successful performance of mental function, including the ability to adapt to change. |
| 5. |
Mental health is a state of successful performance of mental function, including the ability to cope with challenges. |
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health
MULTIPLE CHOICE
2.In 2010, approximately how many people in the United States reported experiencing mental disorders in the previous year?
| A. |
15% |
| B. |
50% |
| C. |
30% |
| D. |
25% |
ANS: D
Objective: 1. Define the burden of disease related to mental disorders using current epidemiological frameworks.
pp. 226-227
Heading: Epidemiology of Mental Disorders
Integrated Processes: N/A
Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
Cognitive Level: Comprehension [Understanding]
Concept: Promoting Health
Difficulty: Moderate
|
Feedback |
| A |
This is incorrect. In the United States in 2010 an estimated 25% of adults reported having mental disorders in the previous year. |
| B |
This is incorrect. In the United States in 2010 an estimated 25% of adults reported having mental disorders in the previous year. |
| C |
This is incorrect. In the United States in 2010 an estimated 25% of adults reported having mental disorders in the previous year. |
| D |
In the United States in 2010 an estimated 25% of adults reported having mental disorders in the previous year. |
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health
3.A student nurse is studying stress and mental health. The student nurse learns that ____ is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events.
| A. |
Intervention |
| B. |
Support |
| C. |
Resilience |
| D. |
Therapy |
ANS: C
Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders.
pp. 229-231
Heading: Protective Factors: Building Resilience
Integrated Processes: Teaching/Learning
Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
Cognitive Level: Application [Applying]
Concept: Trauma; Stress; Promoting Health; Nursing Roles
Difficulty: Moderate
|
Feedback |
| A |
This is incorrect. Resilience is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events. Preventive and treatment interventions are useful tools to build on an individual’s natural resilience to promote positive outcomes. |
| B |
This is incorrect. Resilience is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events. Support from family, friends, and community is an important part of strengthening an individual’s resilience. |
| C |
Resilience is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events. |
| D |
This is incorrect. Resilience is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events. Therapy is an important part of an overall treatment plan, in conjunction with intervention, support, and an individual’s capacity for resilience. |
PTS: 1 CON: Trauma | Stress | Promoting Health | Nursing Roles
4.____ addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder.
| A. |
Indicated prevention |
| B. |
Selective prevention |
| C. |
Universal prevention |
| D. |
Both 1 and 2 |
ANS: A
Objective: 4. Apply current evidence-based population level interventions to the prevention of mental disorders and the promotion of optimal mental health for communities and populations.
pp. 232-233
Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Institute of Medicine Model of Prevention
Integrated Processes: Nursing Process
Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
Cognitive Level: Comprehension [Understanding]
Concept: Promoting Health
Difficulty: Moderate
|
Feedback |
| A |
Indicated prevention addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder. The purpose of indicated techniques is to delay or reduce the severity of a mental disorder. |
| B |
Selective prevention includes interventions provided to specific subgroups that are known to be at high risk for mental disorders owing to biological, psychological, social, or environmental factors but that have not yet been diagnosed with mental disorders. High-risk subgroups include but are not limited to those with a family history of mental disorders, history of adverse childhood events, or victims of violence. |
| C |
Universal prevention refers to prevention interventions provided to the entire population, not just those who may be at risk. The interventions include but are not limited to public service announcements provided to the public at large through billboards, media messages (print and electronic), or general health education programs. |
| D |
Indicated prevention addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder. The purpose of indicated techniques is to delay or reduce the severity of a mental disorder. Selective prevention includes interventions provided to specific subgroups that are known to be at high risk for mental disorders owing to biological, psychological, social, or environmental factors but that have not yet been diagnosed with mental disorders. High-risk subgroups include but are not limited to those with a family history of mental disorders, history of adverse childhood events, or victims of violence. |
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health
5.The public health nurse (PHN) recognizes that which of the following are used as screening tools for depression?
| A. |
Patient Health Questionnaire 2 |
| B. |
Center for Epidemiological Studies Depression Scale (CESD-10) |
| C. |
Brief Symptom Checklist-18 of the My Mood Monitor (M-3) |
| D. |
Both 1 and 2 |
ANS: D
Objective: 5. Describe systems approaches to the promotion of mental health and the prevention and treatment of mental health disorders.
p. 232
Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Measure of Mental Health: Health-Related Quality of Life
Integrated Processes: Nursing Process
Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
Cognitive Level: Application [Applying]
Concept: Promoting Health; Mood; Assessment
Difficulty: Moderate
|
Feedback |
| A |
Tools to screen for depression include the Patient Health Questionnaire 2 and the CESD-10. |
| B |
Tools to screen for depression include the Patient Health Questionnaire 2 and the CESD-10. |
| C |
This is incorrect. Tools to screen for depression include the Patient Health Questionnaire 2 and the CESD-10. Screening tools for anxiety disorders include the Brief Symptom Checklist-18 of the My Mood Monitor (M-3). |
| D |
Tools to screen for depression include the Patient Health Questionnaire 2 and the CESD-10. |
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health | Mood | Assessment
6.During a course on mental disorders, a PHN learns that the term serious mental illness (SMI) refers to diagnosable mental disorders that may disrupt a person’s ability to function and may qualify that person for support services. The PHN also notes that the mental disorders that can lead to SMI include:
| A. |
Mild depression |
| B. |
Panic disorder |
| C. |
Schizophrenia |
| D. |
Both 2 and 3 |
ANS: D
Objective: 1. Define the burden of disease related to mental disorders using current epidemiological frameworks.
pp. 225-226
Heading: Introduction
Integrated Processes: Teaching/Learning
Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
Cognitive Level: Application [Applying]
Concept: Cognition; Mood; Stress; Promoting Health; Nursing Roles
Difficulty: Moderate
|
Feedback |
| A |
This is incorrect. Major depression, however, is one of the mental disorders that can lead to SMI. |
| B |
Both panic disorder and schizophrenia, among other mental disorders, can lead to SMI. |
| C |
Both schizophrenia and panic disorder, among other mental disorders, can lead to SMI. |
| D |
The mental disorders that can lead to SMI include major depression, panic disorder, schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD), post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), and borderline personality disorder. |
PTS: 1 CON: Cognition | Mood | Stress | Promoting Health | Nursing Roles
7.While studying the prevalence of mental health disorders worldwide, a PHN learns about the World Mental Health Survey, which is used to determine estimates of human capital costs and prevalence of mental disorders in a wide range of countries. The survey was developed by
| A. |
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) |
| B. |
The World Health Organization (WHO) |
| C. |
The Institute of Medicine (IOM) |
| D. |
The World Health Assembly |
ANS: B
Objective: 1. Define the burden of disease related to mental disorders using current epidemiological frameworks.
p. 227
Heading: Epidemiology of Mental Disorders > Surveillance of Mental Health Disorders
Integrated Processes: Teaching/Learning
Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
Cognitive Level: Application [Applying]
Concept: Promoting Health; Nursing Roles
Difficulty: Moderate
|
Feedback |
| A |
This is incorrect. WHO developed the World Mental Health Survey to estimate human capital costs and mental disorders prevalence on a global scale. The CDC conducts many types of surveys on the prevalence of mental disorders but the organization did not develop the World Mental Health Survey. |
| B |
The WHO developed the World Mental Health Survey to estimate human capital costs and mental disorders prevalence on a global scale. |
| C |
This is incorrect. WHO developed the World Mental Health Survey to estimate human capital costs and mental disorders prevalence on a global scale. The IOM is involved in screening for mental health disorders and addresses the need for appropriate behavioral health treatment in its report, Improving the Quality of Health Care for Mental and Substance-Use Conditions: Quality Chasm Series. |
| D |
This is incorrect. WHO developed the World Mental Health Survey to estimate human capital costs and mental disorders prevalence on a global scale. The World Health Assembly issued a resolution on mental health that aims to reduce the global burden of mental disorders and improve overall mental health worldwide. |
PTS: 1 CON: Promoting Health | Nursing Roles
8.Which ethnic group has the highest 12-month prevalence of a mental disorder?
| A. |
Hispanics |
| B. |
African Americans |
| C. |
Asian Americans |
| D. |
Non-Hispanic whites |
ANS: D
Objective: 1. Define the burden of disease related to mental disorders using current epidemiological frameworks.
pp. 227-228
Heading: Epidemiology of Mental Disorders > Prevalence of Mental Health Disorders
Integrated Processes: N/A
Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
Cognitive Level: Knowledge [Remembering]
Concept: Promoting Health
Difficulty: Moderate
|
Feedback |
| A |
This is incorrect. Non-Hispanic whites have the highest 12-month prevalence rate for mental disorders at 21% compared with 16% for Hispanics. |
| B |
This is incorrect. Non-Hispanic whites have the highest 12-month prevalence rate for mental disorders at 21% compared with 15% for African Americans. |
| C |
This is incorrect. Non-Hispanic whites have the highest 12-month prevalence rate for mental disorders at 21% compared with 9% for Asian Americans. |
| D |
Non-Hispanic whites have the highest 12-month prevalence rate for mental disorders at 21%. |
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health
9.A PHN learns in a behavioral health class that the relationship between physiology and mental health plays an important role in mental disorders. Which of the following physiological factors may contribute to the development of mental disorders?
| A. |
Conditions that affect brain chemistry, such as medication side effects or toxins |
| B. |
Physical trauma |
| C. |
1 and 2 |
| D. |
Unstable family life |
ANS: C
Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders.
pp. 228-229
Heading: Behavioral, Biological, Environmental, and Socioeconomic Risk Factors > Individual Level Risk Factors for Mental Disorders
Integrated Processes: Teaching/Learning
Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
Cognitive Level: Application [Application]
Concept: Cognition; Trauma; Promoting Health
Difficulty: Moderate
|
Feedback |
| A |
Both conditions that affect brain chemistry and physical trauma are the physiological factors that may contribute to the development of mental disorders. |
| B |
Both physical trauma and conditions that affect brain chemistry are physiological factors that may contribute to the development of mental disorders. |
| C |
Conditions that affect brain chemistry and physical trauma are two of the physiological factors that may contribute to the development of mental disorders. |
| D |
This is incorrect. Conditions that affect brain chemistry and physical trauma are two of the physiological factors that may contribute to the development of mental disorders. An unstable family life is not a physiological factor, although it may also contribute to the development of mental disorders. |
PTS:1CON:Cognition | Trauma | Promoting Health
10.Which of the following community environment factors play a role in the development of mental disorders?
| A. |
Living in high crime areas |
| B. |
Poverty |
| C. |
Both 1 and 2 |
| D. |
Family instability |
ANS: C
Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders.
p. 229
Heading: Behavioral, Biological, Environmental, and Socioeconomic Risk Factors > Community-Level Risk Factors for Mental Disorders
Integrated Processes: N/A
Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
Cognitive Level: Comprehension [Understanding]
Concept: Promoting Health
Difficulty: Easy
|
Feedback |
| A |
Living in high crime areas is a factor, along with poverty. |
| B |
Both poverty and living in high crime areas play a role in the development of mental disorders. |
| C |
Both poverty and living in high crime areas play a role in the development of mental disorders. |
| D |
This is incorrect. Although family instability often contributes to the development of mental disorders, it is not considered a community environment factor. |
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health
11.____ is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable.
| A. |
Indicated prevention |
| B. |
Stigma |
| C. |
Risk factors |
| D. |
Transinstitutionalization |
ANS: B
Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders.
pp. 231-232
Heading: Culture, Stigma, and Mental Health Disorders
Integrated Processes: N/A
Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
Cognitive Level: Comprehension [Understanding]
Concept: Promoting Health
Difficulty: Moderate
|
Feedback |
| A |
This is incorrect. Stigma is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable. Indicated prevention addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder. |
| B |
Stigma is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable. |
| C |
This is incorrect. Stigma is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable. Risk factors increase an individual’s chance of developing a mental disorder. |
| D |
This is incorrect. Stigma is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable. Transinstitutionalization refers to the growing number of mentally ill persons who are homeless, in jail, in shelters, or in other facilities instead of being home or in a hospital. |
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health
12.A nurse interested in working with persons with mental disorders who live in poverty understands that the most effective treatment involves multiple sectors of society, such as government agencies, grass roots groups, nonprofits, and businesses, working in tandem. This interrelationship is called:
| A. |
Indicated prevention |
| B. |
Intersectoral strategies |
| C. |
Health-Related Quality of Life |
| D. |
Institute of Medicine Model of Prevention |
ANS: B
Objective: 4. Apply current evidence-based population level interventions to the prevention of mental disorders and the promotion of optimal mental health for communities and populations.
p. 233
Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Promotion of Mental Health and Policy
Integrated Processes: Nursing Process
Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
Cognitive Level: Application [Applying]
Concept: Promoting Health; Collaboration
Difficulty: Moderate
|
Feedback |
| A |
This is incorrect. Intersectoral strategies engage more than one sector of society with a shared interest such as government agencies, grass roots citizens groups, nonprofits, and businesses. Indicated prevention addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder. |
| B |
Intersectoral strategies engage more than one sector of society with a shared interest such as government agencies, grass roots citizens groups, nonprofits, and businesses. |
| C |
This is incorrect. Intersectoral strategies engage more than one sector of society with a shared interest such as government agencies, grass roots citizens groups, nonprofits, and businesses. Health-Related Quality of Life is the self-perceived impact of physical and emotional health on overall quality of life. |
| D |
This is incorrect. Intersectoral strategies engage more than one sector of society with a shared interest such as government agencies, grass roots citizens groups, nonprofits, and businesses. The Institute of Medicine Model of Prevention is a framework for mental disorders that clearly separates prevention into three categories with specific interventions at each level. |
PTS: 1 CON: Promoting Health | Collaboration
13.A recent graduate nurse working in an urban labor and delivery unit had a patient who experienced a difficult labor. The mother, suffering from postpartum depression (PPD), committed suicide a year after giving birth. Although the nurse knew the basics about PPD, the nurse immediately studied the condition in depth and learned that PPD:
| A. |
Can be triggered by a massive hormone drop following delivery |
| B. |
Can intensify to cause delusions |
| C. |
Occurs soon after delivery |
| D. |
All of the above |
ANS: D
Objective: 4. Apply current evidence-based population level interventions to the prevention of mental disorders and the promotion of optimal mental health for communities and populations.
pp. 233-235
Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Secondary Prevention: Screening for Mental Disorders
Integrated Processes: Nursing Process
Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
Cognitive Level: Application [Applying]
Concept: Pregnancy; Mood; Violence; Promoting Health; Nursing Roles
Difficulty: Moderate
|
Feedback |
| A |
PPD can be triggered by a massive post-delivery hormone drop, intensify enough to cause delusions, and occur soon after delivery. |
| B |
PPD can be triggered by a massive post-delivery hormone drop, intensify enough to cause delusions, and occur soon after delivery. |
| C |
PPD can be triggered by a massive post-delivery hormone drop, intensify enough to cause delusions, and occur soon after delivery. |
| D |
PPD can be triggered by a massive post-delivery hormone drop, intensify enough to cause delusions, and occur soon after delivery. |
PTS: 1 CON: Pregnancy | Mood | Violence | Promoting Health | Nursing Roles
14.A nurse working in labor and delivery requested permission from the nurse manager to conduct a quality improvement project to screen patients that might be susceptible to PPD. After completing the project, which of the following screening guidelines did the unit incorporate?
| A. |
All patients will be screened for PPD when they are admitted to the labor and delivery unit. |
| B. |
Patients at high risk are referred to the attending obstetrician. |
| C. |
Before being discharged, all new mothers will complete a questionnaire specific to PPD symptoms. |
| D. |
All of the above |
ANS: D
Objective: Apply current evidence-based population level interventions to the prevention of mental disorders and the promotion of optimal mental health for communities and populations.
pp. 233-235
Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Secondary Prevention: Screening for Mental Disorders
Integrated Processes: Nursing Process
Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
Cognitive Level: Application [Applying]
Concept: Pregnancy; Mood; Promoting Health; Assessment; Quality Improvement
Difficulty: Moderate
|
Feedback |
| A |
This is incorrect. Screening, high-risk referrals to the attending obstetrician and completion of a PPD symptom questionnaire were all incorporated. |
| B |
This is incorrect. Screening, high-risk referrals to the attending obstetrician and completion of a PPD symptom questionnaire were all incorporated. |
| C |
This is incorrect. Screening, high-risk referrals to the attending obstetrician and completion of a PPD symptom questionnaire were all incorporated. |
| D |
Screening, high-risk referrals to the attending obstetrician and completion of a PPD symptom questionnaire were all incorporated. |
PTS:1
CON: Pregnancy | Mood | Promoting Health | Assessment | Quality Improvement
15.A PHN treats a patient who may be depressed. To verify suspicions, the PHN checks ____, the definitive clinical guide for diagnosing mental disorders and providing consistency and accuracy in the screening for mental disorders.
| A. |
The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5) |
| B. |
The Center for Epidemiological Studies Depression Scale (CESD-10) |
| C. |
Patient Health Questionnaire 2 |
| D. |
Brief System Checklist-18 of the My Mood Monitor |
ANS: A |
