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Test Bank for Medical Terminology for Health Professions 8th Edition by Ehrlich

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By: Ehrlich

Edition: 8th Edition

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Test Bank for Medical Terminology for Health Professions 8th Edition by Ehrlich

Match each definition with the correct word part.

a. ​abnormal condition
b. ​deficient
c. ​excessive
d. ​pain, suffering
e. ​surgical removal

 

1. ​-algia

ANSWER:   d

 

2. ​-ectomy

ANSWER:   e

 

3. ​hyper-

ANSWER:   c

 

4. ​hypo-

ANSWER:   b

 

5. ​-osis

ANSWER:   a

 

Match each definition with the correct word part.

a. ​excessive bleeding
b. ​flow or discharge
c. ​rupture
d. ​surgical repair
e. ​surgical suturing

 

6. ​-plasty

ANSWER:   d

 

7. ​-rrhage

ANSWER:   a

 

8. ​-rrhaphy

ANSWER:   e

 

9. ​-rrhea

ANSWER:   b

 

10. ​-rrhexis

ANSWER:   c

 

Match each definition with the correct word part.

a. abnormal hardening​
b. ​surgical incision
c. ​bad, difficult, painful
d. ​creation of an artificial opening
e. ​inflammation

 

11. ​dys-

ANSWER:   c

 

12. ​-itis

ANSWER:   e

 

13. ​-ostomy

ANSWER:   d

 

14. ​-otomy

ANSWER:   b

 

15. ​-sclerosis

ANSWER:   a

 

Match each definition with the correct term.

a. subjective evidence of disease​
b. ​objective evidence of disease
c. ​signs and symptoms that occur together
d. ​sudden onset of a disease
e. ​temporary disappearance of symptoms

 

16. ​acute

ANSWER:   d

 

17. ​remission

ANSWER:   e

 

18. ​sign

ANSWER:   b

 

19. ​symptom

ANSWER:   a

 

20. ​syndrome

ANSWER:   c

 

Match each definition with the correct term.

a. any disease of the stomach​
b. ​frequent watery stools
c. ​pertaining to the lining of an artery
d. ​swelling
e. ​formation of pus

 

21. ​diarrhea

ANSWER:   b

 

22. ​edema

ANSWER:   d

 

23. ​endarterial

ANSWER:   c

 

24. ​gastrosis

ANSWER:   a

 

25. ​suppuration

ANSWER:   e

 

Match each definition with the correct term.

a. ​torn and jagged wound
b. ​higher-than-normal blood pressure
c. ​localized response to a tissue injury
d. ​lower-than-normal blood pressure
e. ​pathologic tissue change caused by disease or injury

 

26. ​hypertension

ANSWER:   b

 

27. ​hypotension

ANSWER:   d

 

28. ​inflammation

ANSWER:   c

 

29. ​laceration

ANSWER:   a

 

30. ​lesion

ANSWER:   e

 

Match each definition with the correct term.

a. abnormal passage between organs
b. crack-like sore of the skin
c. identification of a disease
d. prediction of a disease outcome
e. the study of all aspects of diseases

 

31. ​diagnosis

ANSWER:   c

 

32. ​fissure

ANSWER:   b

 

33. ​fistula

ANSWER:   a

 

34. ​pathology

ANSWER:   e

 

35. ​prognosis

ANSWER:   d

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DescriptionBy: Ehrlich Edition: 8th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadEdition: 5th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadBy: Savage Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadBy: Varcarolis Edition: 3rd Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadBy: McWay Edition: 4th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadEdition: 8th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Solution manual Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant Download
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Test Bank for Medical Terminology for Health Professions 8th Edition by Ehrlich

Match each definition with the correct word part.
a. ​abnormal condition
b. ​deficient
c. ​excessive
d. ​pain, suffering
e. ​surgical removal
 
1. ​-algia
ANSWER:   d
 
2. ​-ectomy
ANSWER:   e
 
3. ​hyper-
ANSWER:   c
 
4. ​hypo-
ANSWER:   b
 
5. ​-osis
ANSWER:   a
 
Match each definition with the correct word part.
a. ​excessive bleeding
b. ​flow or discharge
c. ​rupture
d. ​surgical repair
e. ​surgical suturing
 
6. ​-plasty
ANSWER:   d
 
7. ​-rrhage
ANSWER:   a
 
8. ​-rrhaphy
ANSWER:   e
 
9. ​-rrhea
ANSWER:   b
 
10. ​-rrhexis
ANSWER:   c
 
Match each definition with the correct word part.
a. abnormal hardening​
b. ​surgical incision
c. ​bad, difficult, painful
d. ​creation of an artificial opening
e. ​inflammation
 
11. ​dys-
ANSWER:   c
 
12. ​-itis
ANSWER:   e
 
13. ​-ostomy
ANSWER:   d
 
14. ​-otomy
ANSWER:   b
 
15. ​-sclerosis
ANSWER:   a
 
Match each definition with the correct term.
a. subjective evidence of disease​
b. ​objective evidence of disease
c. ​signs and symptoms that occur together
d. ​sudden onset of a disease
e. ​temporary disappearance of symptoms
 
16. ​acute
ANSWER:   d
 
17. ​remission
ANSWER:   e
 
18. ​sign
ANSWER:   b
 
19. ​symptom
ANSWER:   a
 
20. ​syndrome
ANSWER:   c
 
Match each definition with the correct term.
a. any disease of the stomach​
b. ​frequent watery stools
c. ​pertaining to the lining of an artery
d. ​swelling
e. ​formation of pus
 
21. ​diarrhea
ANSWER:   b
 
22. ​edema
ANSWER:   d
 
23. ​endarterial
ANSWER:   c
 
24. ​gastrosis
ANSWER:   a
 
25. ​suppuration
ANSWER:   e
 
Match each definition with the correct term.
a. ​torn and jagged wound
b. ​higher-than-normal blood pressure
c. ​localized response to a tissue injury
d. ​lower-than-normal blood pressure
e. ​pathologic tissue change caused by disease or injury
 
26. ​hypertension
ANSWER:   b
 
27. ​hypotension
ANSWER:   d
 
28. ​inflammation
ANSWER:   c
 
29. ​laceration
ANSWER:   a
 
30. ​lesion
ANSWER:   e
 
Match each definition with the correct term.
a. abnormal passage between organs
b. crack-like sore of the skin
c. identification of a disease
d. prediction of a disease outcome
e. the study of all aspects of diseases
 
31. ​diagnosis
ANSWER:   c
 
32. ​fissure
ANSWER:   b
 
33. ​fistula
ANSWER:   a
 
34. ​pathology
ANSWER:   e
 
35. ​prognosis
ANSWER:   d

Test Bank For Foundations for Population Health in Community Public Health Nursing 5th Edition Stanhope

Chapter 01: Community- and Prevention-Oriented Practice to Improve Population Health Stanhope: Foundations for Population Health in Community/Public Health Nursing,5th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following best describes community-based nursing? a. A practice in which care is provided for individuals and families b. Providing care with a focus on the group’s needs c. Giving care with a focus on the aggregate’s needs d. A value system in which all clients receive optimal care ANS: A By definition, community-based nursing is a setting-specific practice in which care is provided for “sick” individuals and families where they live, work, and attend school. The emphasis is on acute and chronic care and the provision of comprehensive, coordinated, and continuous care. These nurses may be generalists or specialists in maternal–infant, pediatric, adult, or psychiatric mental health nursing. Community-based nursing emphasizes acute and chronic care to individuals and families, rather than focusing on groups, aggregates, or systems. 2. Which of the following best describes community-oriented nursing? a. Focusing on the provision of care to individuals and families b. Providing care to manage acute or chronic conditions c. Giving direct care to ill individuals within their family setting d. Having the goal of health promotion and disease prevention ANS: D By definition, community-oriented nursing has the goal of preserving, protecting, or maintaining health and preventing disease to promote the quality of life. All nurses may focus on individuals and families, give direct care to ill persons within their family setting, and help manage acute or chronic conditions. These definitions are not specific to community-oriented nursing. 3. Which of the following is the primary focus of public health nursing? a. Families and groups b. Illness-oriented care c. Individuals within the family unit d. Health care of communities and populations ANS: D In public health nursing the primary focus is on the health care of communities and populations rather than on individuals, groups, and families. The goal is to prevent disease and preserve, promote, restore, and protect health for the community and the population within it. Community-based nurses deal primarily with illness-oriented care of individuals and families acorss the life span. The aim is to amanage acute and chronic health conditions in the community, and the focus of practice is on individual or family-centered illness care. Foundations for Population Health in Community Public Health Nursing 5th Edition Stanhope 4. Which of the following is responsible for the dramatic increase in life expectancy during the 20th century? a. Technology increases in the field of medical laboratory research b. Advances in surgical techniques and procedures c. Sanitation and other population-based prevention programs d. Use of antibiotics to fight infections ANS: C Improvements in control of infectious diseases through immunizations, sanitation, and other population-based prevention programs led to the increase in life expectancy from less than 50 years in 1900 to more than 78 years in 2013. Although people are excited when a new drug is discovered that cures a disease or when a new way to transplant organs is perfected, it is important to know about the significant gains in the health of populations that have come largely from public health accomplishments. 5. A nurse is developing a plan to decrease the number of premature deaths in the community. Which of the following interventions would most likely be implemented by the nurse? a. Increase the community’s knowledge about hospice care. b. Promote healthy lifestyle behavior choices among the community members. c. Encourage employers to have wellness centers at each industrial site. d. Ensure timely and effective medical intervention and treatment for community members. ANS: B Public health approaches could help prevent premature deaths by influencing the way people eat, drink, drive, engage in exercise, and treat the environment. Increasing knowledge of hospice care, encouraging on-site wellness centers, and ensuring timely treatment of medical conditions do not address the focus of improving overall health through health promotion strategies. This is the major method that is suggested to decrease the incidence of premature death. 6. Which of the following is a basic assumption of public health efforts? a. Health disparities among any groups are morally and legally wrong. b. Health care is the most important priority in government planning and funding. c. The health of individuals cannot be separated from the health of the community. d. The government is responsible for lengthening the life span of Americans. ANS: C Public health practice focuses on the community as a whole, and the effect of the community’s health status (resources) on the health of individuals, families, and groups. The goal is to prevent disease and disability and promote and protect the health of the community as a whole. Public health can be described as what society collectively does to ensure that conditions exist in which people can be healthy. The basic assumptions of public health do not judge the morality of health disparities. The focus is on prevention of illness not on spending more on illness care. Additionally, individual responsibility for making healthy choices is the directive for lengthening life span not the role of the government. 7. Which of the following actions would most likely be performed by a public health nurse? a. Asking community leaders what interventions should be chosen b. Assessing the community and deciding on appropriate interventions c. Using data from the main health care institutions in the community to determine Foundations for Population Health in Community Public Health Nursing 5th Edition Stanhope needed health services d. Working with community groups to create policies to improve the environment ANS: D Although the public health nurse might engage in any of the tasks listed, he or she works primarily with members of the community to carry out core public health functions, including assessment of the population as a whole and engaging in promoting health and improving the environment. The interventions of asking community leaders which interventions should be chosen, asessing the community and deciding on appropriate interventions, and using data from health care institutions do not demonstrate the engagement of the community when making decisions about what the community actually wants and needs. 8. Which of the following public health nurses most clearly fulfills the responsibilities of this role? a. The nurse who met with several groups to discuss community recreation issues b. The nurse who spent the day attending meetings of various health agencies c. The nurse who talked to several people about their particular health concerns d. The nurse who watched the city council meeting on local cable television ANS: B Any of these descriptions might represent a nurse communicating, cooperating, or collaborating with community residents or groups about health concerns. However, the nurse who spent the day attending meetings of various health agencies is the most representative, because in public health, concerns are addressed from a broader perspective. In public health, broad concerns of the community should be addressed. Concerns are broader than recreation, individual concerns are not as important as aggregate priorities, and watching television (a one-way form of communication) is less effective than interacting with others. 9. Which of the following best defines aggregate? a. A large group of persons b. A collection of individuals and families c. A collection of people who share one or more characteristics d. Another name for demographic group ANS: C An aggregate is defined a collection of people who share one or more personal or environmental characteristics. Members of a community can be defined in terms of either geography (e.g., a county, a group of counties, or a state) or a special interest (e.g., children attending a particular school). These members make up a population. The term population may be used interchangeably with the term aggregate. A large group of persons, a collection of individuals and families, and another name for demograhpic group are not accurate definitions of the term aggregate. 10. A registered nurse was just employed as a public health nurse. Which question would be the most relevant for the nurse to ask? a. “Which groups are at the greatest risk for problems?” b. “Which patients should I see first as I begin my day?” c. “With which physicians will I be most closely collaborating?” d. “With which nursing assistants will I partner the most?” ANS: A NURSINGTB.COM Foundations for Population Health in Community Public Health Nursing 5th Edition Stanhope Asking which groups are at greatest risk reflects a community-oriented perspective. The incorrect responses reflect a focus on individuals rather than a community-oriented perspective. 11. Making sure that essential community-oriented health services are available defines which of the core public health functions? a. Policy development b. Assessment c. Assurance d. Scientific knowledge-based care ANS: C Assurance includes making sure that essential community-oriented health services are available in the community. The definition does not fit the terms assessment, policy development. Scientific knowledge-based care is not a core function of public health. Assessment is systematic data collection on the population, monitoring the population’s health status, and making information available about the health of the community. Policy development refers to efforts to develop policies that support the health of the population, including using a scientific knowledge base to make policy decisions. 12. When talking to a women’s group at the senior citizens’ center, the nurse reminded them that the only way the center would be able to afford to provide transportation services for them would be for them to continue to write letters to their local city council representatives requesting funding for such a service. What was the nurse trying to accomplish through this action? a. Ensure that the women did not expect the nurse to solve their problem. b. Demonstrate that the nurse understood the women’s concerns and needs. c. Express empathy, support, and concern. d. Help the women engage in political action. ANS: D Public health nurses engage themselves and others in policy development and encourage and assist persons to communicate their needs to those with the power to take action. The nurse is demonstrating the role of advocate through this action, it goes beyond merely understanding the women’s concern, and instead mobilizes them to take action. This action does not demonstrate the nurse showing empathy rather the nurse is empowering these women.

Test Bank for Public Health Science and Nursing Practice Caring For Populations by Savage

Chapter 10: Mental Health MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1.According to Healthy People 2020, which of the following are characteristics of mental health? Select all that apply.
A. Engaging in productive activities
B. Having fulfilling relationships
C. Experiencing alterations in thinking
D. Adapting to change
E. Coping with challenges
ANS: A, B, D, E Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders. pp. 225-226 Heading: Introduction Integrated Processes: N/A Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Knowledge [Remembering] Concept: Promoting Health Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
1. Mental health is a state of successful performance of mental function, including engagement in productive activities.
2. Mental health is a state of successful performance of mental function, including being able to form fulfilling relationships with other people.
3. This is incorrect; it is an example of a mental disorder. Mental disorders are health conditions that are characterized by alterations in thinking, mood, or behavior that are associated with distress or impaired functioning.
4. Mental health is a state of successful performance of mental function, including the ability to adapt to change.
5. Mental health is a state of successful performance of mental function, including the ability to cope with challenges.
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health MULTIPLE CHOICE 2.In 2010, approximately how many people in the United States reported experiencing mental disorders in the previous year?
A. 15%
B. 50%
C. 30%
D. 25%
ANS: D Objective: 1. Define the burden of disease related to mental disorders using current epidemiological frameworks. pp. 226-227 Heading: Epidemiology of Mental Disorders Integrated Processes: N/A Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Comprehension [Understanding] Concept: Promoting Health Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A This is incorrect. In the United States in 2010 an estimated 25% of adults reported having mental disorders in the previous year.
B This is incorrect. In the United States in 2010 an estimated 25% of adults reported having mental disorders in the previous year.
C This is incorrect. In the United States in 2010 an estimated 25% of adults reported having mental disorders in the previous year.
D In the United States in 2010 an estimated 25% of adults reported having mental disorders in the previous year.
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health 3.A student nurse is studying stress and mental health. The student nurse learns that ____ is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events.
A. Intervention
B. Support
C. Resilience
D. Therapy
ANS: C Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders. pp. 229-231 Heading: Protective Factors: Building Resilience Integrated Processes: Teaching/Learning Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Trauma; Stress; Promoting Health; Nursing Roles Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A This is incorrect. Resilience is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events. Preventive and treatment interventions are useful tools to build on an individual’s natural resilience to promote positive outcomes.
B This is incorrect. Resilience is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events. Support from family, friends, and community is an important part of strengthening an individual’s resilience.
C Resilience is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events.
D This is incorrect. Resilience is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events. Therapy is an important part of an overall treatment plan, in conjunction with intervention, support, and an individual’s capacity for resilience.
PTS: 1 CON: Trauma | Stress | Promoting Health | Nursing Roles 4.____ addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder.
A. Indicated prevention
B. Selective prevention
C. Universal prevention
D. Both 1 and 2
ANS: A Objective: 4. Apply current evidence-based population level interventions to the prevention of mental disorders and the promotion of optimal mental health for communities and populations. pp. 232-233 Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Institute of Medicine Model of Prevention Integrated Processes: Nursing Process Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Comprehension [Understanding] Concept: Promoting Health Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A Indicated prevention addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder. The purpose of indicated techniques is to delay or reduce the severity of a mental disorder.
B Selective prevention includes interventions provided to specific subgroups that are known to be at high risk for mental disorders owing to biological, psychological, social, or environmental factors but that have not yet been diagnosed with mental disorders. High-risk subgroups include but are not limited to those with a family history of mental disorders, history of adverse childhood events, or victims of violence.
C Universal prevention refers to prevention interventions provided to the entire population, not just those who may be at risk. The interventions include but are not limited to public service announcements provided to the public at large through billboards, media messages (print and electronic), or general health education programs.
D Indicated prevention addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder. The purpose of indicated techniques is to delay or reduce the severity of a mental disorder. Selective prevention includes interventions provided to specific subgroups that are known to be at high risk for mental disorders owing to biological, psychological, social, or environmental factors but that have not yet been diagnosed with mental disorders. High-risk subgroups include but are not limited to those with a family history of mental disorders, history of adverse childhood events, or victims of violence.
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health 5.The public health nurse (PHN) recognizes that which of the following are used as screening tools for depression?
A. Patient Health Questionnaire 2
B. Center for Epidemiological Studies Depression Scale (CESD-10)
C. Brief Symptom Checklist-18 of the My Mood Monitor (M-3)
D. Both 1 and 2
ANS: D Objective: 5. Describe systems approaches to the promotion of mental health and the prevention and treatment of mental health disorders. p. 232 Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Measure of Mental Health: Health-Related Quality of Life Integrated Processes: Nursing Process Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Promoting Health; Mood; Assessment Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A Tools to screen for depression include the Patient Health Questionnaire 2 and the CESD-10.
B Tools to screen for depression include the Patient Health Questionnaire 2 and the CESD-10.
C This is incorrect. Tools to screen for depression include the Patient Health Questionnaire 2 and the CESD-10. Screening tools for anxiety disorders include the Brief Symptom Checklist-18 of the My Mood Monitor (M-3).
D Tools to screen for depression include the Patient Health Questionnaire 2 and the CESD-10.
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health | Mood | Assessment 6.During a course on mental disorders, a PHN learns that the term serious mental illness (SMI) refers to diagnosable mental disorders that may disrupt a person’s ability to function and may qualify that person for support services. The PHN also notes that the mental disorders that can lead to SMI include:
A. Mild depression
B. Panic disorder
C. Schizophrenia
D. Both 2 and 3
ANS: D Objective: 1. Define the burden of disease related to mental disorders using current epidemiological frameworks. pp. 225-226 Heading: Introduction Integrated Processes: Teaching/Learning Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Cognition; Mood; Stress; Promoting Health; Nursing Roles Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A This is incorrect. Major depression, however, is one of the mental disorders that can lead to SMI.
B Both panic disorder and schizophrenia, among other mental disorders, can lead to SMI.
C Both schizophrenia and panic disorder, among other mental disorders, can lead to SMI.
D The mental disorders that can lead to SMI include major depression, panic disorder, schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD), post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), and borderline personality disorder.
PTS: 1 CON: Cognition | Mood | Stress | Promoting Health | Nursing Roles 7.While studying the prevalence of mental health disorders worldwide, a PHN learns about the World Mental Health Survey, which is used to determine estimates of human capital costs and prevalence of mental disorders in a wide range of countries. The survey was developed by
A. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
B. The World Health Organization (WHO)
C. The Institute of Medicine (IOM)
D. The World Health Assembly
ANS: B Objective: 1. Define the burden of disease related to mental disorders using current epidemiological frameworks. p. 227 Heading: Epidemiology of Mental Disorders > Surveillance of Mental Health Disorders Integrated Processes: Teaching/Learning Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Promoting Health; Nursing Roles Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A This is incorrect. WHO developed the World Mental Health Survey to estimate human capital costs and mental disorders prevalence on a global scale. The CDC conducts many types of surveys on the prevalence of mental disorders but the organization did not develop the World Mental Health Survey.
B The WHO developed the World Mental Health Survey to estimate human capital costs and mental disorders prevalence on a global scale.
C This is incorrect. WHO developed the World Mental Health Survey to estimate human capital costs and mental disorders prevalence on a global scale. The IOM is involved in screening for mental health disorders and addresses the need for appropriate behavioral health treatment in its report, Improving the Quality of Health Care for Mental and Substance-Use Conditions: Quality Chasm Series.
D This is incorrect. WHO developed the World Mental Health Survey to estimate human capital costs and mental disorders prevalence on a global scale. The World Health Assembly issued a resolution on mental health that aims to reduce the global burden of mental disorders and improve overall mental health worldwide.
PTS: 1 CON: Promoting Health | Nursing Roles 8.Which ethnic group has the highest 12-month prevalence of a mental disorder?
A. Hispanics
B. African Americans
C. Asian Americans
D. Non-Hispanic whites
ANS: D Objective: 1. Define the burden of disease related to mental disorders using current epidemiological frameworks. pp. 227-228 Heading: Epidemiology of Mental Disorders > Prevalence of Mental Health Disorders Integrated Processes: N/A Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Knowledge [Remembering] Concept: Promoting Health Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A This is incorrect. Non-Hispanic whites have the highest 12-month prevalence rate for mental disorders at 21% compared with 16% for Hispanics.
B This is incorrect. Non-Hispanic whites have the highest 12-month prevalence rate for mental disorders at 21% compared with 15% for African Americans.
C This is incorrect. Non-Hispanic whites have the highest 12-month prevalence rate for mental disorders at 21% compared with 9% for Asian Americans.
D Non-Hispanic whites have the highest 12-month prevalence rate for mental disorders at 21%.
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health 9.A PHN learns in a behavioral health class that the relationship between physiology and mental health plays an important role in mental disorders. Which of the following physiological factors may contribute to the development of mental disorders?
A. Conditions that affect brain chemistry, such as medication side effects or toxins
B. Physical trauma
C. 1 and 2
D. Unstable family life
ANS: C Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders. pp. 228-229 Heading: Behavioral, Biological, Environmental, and Socioeconomic Risk Factors > Individual Level Risk Factors for Mental Disorders Integrated Processes: Teaching/Learning Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Application] Concept: Cognition; Trauma; Promoting Health Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A Both conditions that affect brain chemistry and physical trauma are the physiological factors that may contribute to the development of mental disorders.
B Both physical trauma and conditions that affect brain chemistry are physiological factors that may contribute to the development of mental disorders.
C Conditions that affect brain chemistry and physical trauma are two of the physiological factors that may contribute to the development of mental disorders.
D This is incorrect. Conditions that affect brain chemistry and physical trauma are two of the physiological factors that may contribute to the development of mental disorders. An unstable family life is not a physiological factor, although it may also contribute to the development of mental disorders.
PTS:1CON:Cognition | Trauma | Promoting Health 10.Which of the following community environment factors play a role in the development of mental disorders?
A. Living in high crime areas
B. Poverty
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Family instability
ANS: C Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders. p. 229 Heading: Behavioral, Biological, Environmental, and Socioeconomic Risk Factors > Community-Level Risk Factors for Mental Disorders Integrated Processes: N/A Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Comprehension [Understanding] Concept: Promoting Health Difficulty: Easy
Feedback
A Living in high crime areas is a factor, along with poverty.
B Both poverty and living in high crime areas play a role in the development of mental disorders.
C Both poverty and living in high crime areas play a role in the development of mental disorders.
D This is incorrect. Although family instability often contributes to the development of mental disorders, it is not considered a community environment factor.
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health 11.____ is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable.
A. Indicated prevention
B. Stigma
C. Risk factors
D. Transinstitutionalization
ANS: B Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders. pp. 231-232 Heading: Culture, Stigma, and Mental Health Disorders Integrated Processes: N/A Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Comprehension [Understanding] Concept: Promoting Health Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A This is incorrect. Stigma is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable. Indicated prevention addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder.
B Stigma is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable.
C This is incorrect. Stigma is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable. Risk factors increase an individual’s chance of developing a mental disorder.
D This is incorrect. Stigma is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable. Transinstitutionalization refers to the growing number of mentally ill persons who are homeless, in jail, in shelters, or in other facilities instead of being home or in a hospital.
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health 12.A nurse interested in working with persons with mental disorders who live in poverty understands that the most effective treatment involves multiple sectors of society, such as government agencies, grass roots groups, nonprofits, and businesses, working in tandem. This interrelationship is called:
A. Indicated prevention
B. Intersectoral strategies
C. Health-Related Quality of Life
D. Institute of Medicine Model of Prevention
ANS: B Objective: 4. Apply current evidence-based population level interventions to the prevention of mental disorders and the promotion of optimal mental health for communities and populations. p. 233 Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Promotion of Mental Health and Policy Integrated Processes: Nursing Process Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Promoting Health; Collaboration Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A This is incorrect. Intersectoral strategies engage more than one sector of society with a shared interest such as government agencies, grass roots citizens groups, nonprofits, and businesses. Indicated prevention addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder.
B Intersectoral strategies engage more than one sector of society with a shared interest such as government agencies, grass roots citizens groups, nonprofits, and businesses.
C This is incorrect. Intersectoral strategies engage more than one sector of society with a shared interest such as government agencies, grass roots citizens groups, nonprofits, and businesses. Health-Related Quality of Life is the self-perceived impact of physical and emotional health on overall quality of life.
D This is incorrect. Intersectoral strategies engage more than one sector of society with a shared interest such as government agencies, grass roots citizens groups, nonprofits, and businesses. The Institute of Medicine Model of Prevention is a framework for mental disorders that clearly separates prevention into three categories with specific interventions at each level.
PTS: 1 CON: Promoting Health | Collaboration 13.A recent graduate nurse working in an urban labor and delivery unit had a patient who experienced a difficult labor. The mother, suffering from postpartum depression (PPD), committed suicide a year after giving birth. Although the nurse knew the basics about PPD, the nurse immediately studied the condition in depth and learned that PPD:
A. Can be triggered by a massive hormone drop following delivery
B. Can intensify to cause delusions
C. Occurs soon after delivery
D. All of the above
ANS: D Objective: 4. Apply current evidence-based population level interventions to the prevention of mental disorders and the promotion of optimal mental health for communities and populations. pp. 233-235 Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Secondary Prevention: Screening for Mental Disorders Integrated Processes: Nursing Process Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Pregnancy; Mood; Violence; Promoting Health; Nursing Roles Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A PPD can be triggered by a massive post-delivery hormone drop, intensify enough to cause delusions, and occur soon after delivery.
B PPD can be triggered by a massive post-delivery hormone drop, intensify enough to cause delusions, and occur soon after delivery.
C PPD can be triggered by a massive post-delivery hormone drop, intensify enough to cause delusions, and occur soon after delivery.
D PPD can be triggered by a massive post-delivery hormone drop, intensify enough to cause delusions, and occur soon after delivery.
PTS: 1 CON: Pregnancy | Mood | Violence | Promoting Health | Nursing Roles 14.A nurse working in labor and delivery requested permission from the nurse manager to conduct a quality improvement project to screen patients that might be susceptible to PPD. After completing the project, which of the following screening guidelines did the unit incorporate?
A. All patients will be screened for PPD when they are admitted to the labor and delivery unit.
B. Patients at high risk are referred to the attending obstetrician.
C. Before being discharged, all new mothers will complete a questionnaire specific to PPD symptoms.
D. All of the above
ANS: D Objective: Apply current evidence-based population level interventions to the prevention of mental disorders and the promotion of optimal mental health for communities and populations. pp. 233-235 Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Secondary Prevention: Screening for Mental Disorders Integrated Processes: Nursing Process Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Pregnancy; Mood; Promoting Health; Assessment; Quality Improvement Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A This is incorrect. Screening, high-risk referrals to the attending obstetrician and completion of a PPD symptom questionnaire were all incorporated.
B This is incorrect. Screening, high-risk referrals to the attending obstetrician and completion of a PPD symptom questionnaire were all incorporated.
C This is incorrect. Screening, high-risk referrals to the attending obstetrician and completion of a PPD symptom questionnaire were all incorporated.
D Screening, high-risk referrals to the attending obstetrician and completion of a PPD symptom questionnaire were all incorporated.
PTS:1 CON: Pregnancy | Mood | Promoting Health | Assessment | Quality Improvement 15.A PHN treats a patient who may be depressed. To verify suspicions, the PHN checks ____, the definitive clinical guide for diagnosing mental disorders and providing consistency and accuracy in the screening for mental disorders.
A. The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5)
B. The Center for Epidemiological Studies Depression Scale (CESD-10)
C. Patient Health Questionnaire 2
D. Brief System Checklist-18 of the My Mood Monitor
ANS: A

Test Bank for Essentials of Psychiatric Mental Health Nursing 3rd Edition by Varcarolis

Table of Contents

Unit I: Essential Theoretical Concepts for Practice 1. Practicing the Science and the Art of Psychiatric Nursing 2. Mental Health and Mental Illness 3. Theories and Therapies 4. Biological Basis for Understanding Psychopharmacology 5. Settings for Psychiatric Care 6. Legal and Ethical Basis for Practice Unit II: Tools for Practice of the Art 7. Nursing Process and QSEN: The Foundation for Safe and Effective Care 8. Skills: Medium for All Nursing Practice 9. Therapeutic Relationships and the Clinical Interview Unit III: Caring for Patients with Psychobiological Disorders 10. Stress and Stress-Related Disorders 11. Anxiety, Anxiety Disorders, and Obsessive-Compulsive Disorders 12. Somatic Symptom Disorders and Related Disorders 13. Personality Disorders 14. Eating Disorders 15. Mood Disorders: Depression 16. Bipolar Spectrum Disorders 17. Schizophrenia Spectrum Disorders and Other Psychotic Disorders 18. Neurocognitive Disorders 19. Substance-Related and Addictive Disorders Unit IV: Caring for Patients Experiencing Psychiatric Emergencies 20. Crisis and Mass Disaster 21. Child, Partner, and Elder Violence 22. Sexual Violence 23. Suicidal Thoughts and Behaviors 24. Anger, Aggression, and Violence 25. Care for the Dying and Those Who Grieve Unit V: Age-Related Mental Health Disorders 26. Children and Adolescents 27. Adults 28. Older Adults  

Test Bank for Legal and Ethical Aspects of Health Information Management 4th Edition by McWay

DESCRIPTION - CHAPTER SAMPLE

McWay_Chapter01_Exam MULTIPLE CHOICE
  1. Standards for human behavior are established through _____.
a. concepts c. moral principles
b. laws d. societal ideals
ANS:  B                    PTS:   1  
  1. Under civil law, the burden of proof is described as a _____.
a. determination to be met by the presiding judge at the trial
b. meeting of the minds where at least two persons or entities must reach an agreement
c. preponderance of the evidence, which is defined as “more likely than not”
d. requirement that something be proven beyond a reasonable doubt
ANS:  C                    PTS:   1
  1. Which statement is associated with civil law?
a. Defendants who do not pay court-assessed damages are imprisoned.
b. It is an area of law and justice that attempts to settle disputes among individuals.
c. Its body of law involves the state versus individuals and relies on statutory law.
d. Either plaintiff or defendant can be found partially right or wrong, but not both.
ANS:  B                    PTS:   1
  1. The plaintiff is always the state or federal government in _____ law.
a. contract c. criminal
b. Civil d. private
ANS:  C                    PTS:   1
  1. Which statement is associated with criminal law?
a. The defendant is always the state or federal government.
b. Only the plaintiff may appeal a decision.
c. Punishment may be a fine or imprisonment.
d. Federal statutes alone establish criminal law.
ANS:  C                    PTS:   1
  1. The burden of proof is “beyond a reasonable doubt” during a _____ trial?
a. civil c. contract
b. conflict d. criminal
ANS:  D                    PTS:   1
  1. Which statement is associated with a criminal trial?
a. Only the defendant may appeal a guilty verdict in a criminal case.
b. Each defendant is initially assigned a court-appointed lawyer.
c. State and federal statutes establish civil laws (or private laws).
d. The burden of proof is on the defendant named in the case.
ANS:  A                    PTS:   1
  1. Consensus ad idem is Latin for the element of a contract associated with _____.
a. obligation c. consideration
b. acceptance d. meeting of the minds
ANS:  D                    PTS:   1
  1. Consideration is an element of contract law that refers to _____.
a. business etiquette
b. exchange from one party in return for performing contractual obligations
c. one party’s agreement to a promise
d. an entity’s decision to enter into a contract
ANS:  B                    PTS:   1
  1. In Mordecai vs. Blue Cross/Blue Shield of Alabama, the court determined that _____.
a. a patient cannot sue their health insurance company for breach of contract because that is prohibited by statutory law
b. terms of an insurance policy cannot be altered after inception because the patient pays a monthly premium for insurance coverage and signing the contract protects the insurance company
c. the insurance company had the right to deny payment for major medical expenses regardless of whether procedures and services performed were medically necessary.
d. the insured had the right to proceed against the insurance company for breach of contract to determine whether it had correctly determined that patient care was not medically necessary
ANS:  D                    PTS:   1
  1. The first 10 amendments to the U.S. Constitution are called _____.
a. Judicial Declarations c. Executive Orders
b. The Bill of Rights d. Titles of Nobility
ANS:  B                    PTS:   1
  1. Which of the following is associated with the Bill of Rights?
a. protects the rights to freedom of speech and religion.
b. provides the right to vote for those age 18 and above.
c. allows unlimited rights to sue states in federal court.
d. includes equality of rights under the law regardless of gender.
ANS:  A                    PTS:   1
  1. Which constitutional amendment prohibits double jeopardy?
a. First c. Second
b. Fifth d. Sixth
ANS:  B                    PTS:   1
  1. Which is associated with the Fifth Amendment of the Constitution?
a. Accused person may not be compelled to testify against himself.
b. Guards against searches, arrests, and seizures of property without a specific warrant or a "probable cause."
c. Guarantees a speedy public trial for criminal offenses.
d. Forbids excessive bail or fines, and cruel and unusual punishment.
ANS:  A                    PTS:   1
  1. Laws passed at the local level are called _____.
a. bills c. precedence
b. ordinances d. statutes
ANS:  B                    PTS:   1
  1. From a statutory perspective, CFR is an abbreviation for _____.
a. Campaign Finance Reform c. Code of Federal Regulations
b. Case Fatality Rate d. Council of Foreign Relations
ANS:  C                    PTS:   1
  1. HIPAA is the abbreviation for the _____.
a. Healthcare Information and Payer Accessibility Act
b. Health Information Provider and Accessibility Act
c. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
d. Healthcare Insurance and Payer Accountability Act
ANS:  C                    PTS:   1
  1. Criminal law is subdivided into _____ categories.
a. felony and misdemeanor c. procedural and administrative
b. ordinal and substantive d. substantive and procedural
ANS:  D                    PTS:   1
  1. A felony is defined as a crime _____.
a. for which probation is always assigned
b. involving civil or private law
c. of grave or serious nature
d. that is punishable by a term of less than 1 year
ANS:  C                    PTS:   1
  1. Which subcategory of criminal law defines specific offenses?
a. misdemeanor c. statute
b. procedural d. substantive
ANS:  D                    PTS:   1
  1. Primary sources of public law include _____.
a. law of contracts or torts c. policies and procedures
b. law of obligations d. statutes and penal law
ANS:  D                    PTS:   1
  1. A constitution is a set of fundamental principles or established precedents according to which a state or other organization is governed. Thus, it _____.
a. defines principles for individuals, not the nation or state in which it is based
b. delineates procedures by which a court awards the defendant monetary damages
c. is considered the fundamental law of a nation or state
d. undergoes interpretation according to modern day statutes and regulations
ANS:  C                    PTS:   1
  1. Under stare decisis, _____.
a. U.S. Courts of Appeal are bound by trial court decisions of U.S. district courts in other jurisdictions
b. U.S. district courts are bound by decisions of both the U.S. Courts of Appeal and U.S. Supreme Court within the same geographic area
c. U.S. Supreme Court is bound by decisions of all U.S. courts of appeal within different jurisdictions
d. U.S. Supreme Court is obligated to follow precedent, regardless of decisions in Courts of Appeal or district courts
ANS:  B                    PTS:   1
  1. Which describes the doctrine of res judicata?
a. Appeals to a court decision are prohibited, and a plaintiff would be required to stand before the Supreme Court.
b. Final judgment of a competent court is conclusive upon the parties in any subsequent litigation involving the same cause of action.
c. Parties of a lawsuit have the option of bringing a subsequent action raising the same claim or demand.
d. Plaintiff can re-prosecute the defendant if a valid final judgment was administered by the court.
ANS:  B                    PTS:   1
  1. An electronic case filing system (ECFS) is an automated system that _____.
a. allows the general public to search pleadings and testimony
b. eliminates the need to charge a fee for the search
c. is rarely a component for case management
d. prohibits the processing and exchange of information
ANS:  A                    PTS:   1
  1. The government’s separation of powers include _____.
a. division of power that allows one branch to dominate another when deemed necessary
b. judicial, legislative and congressional branches headed by Congress
c. a provision that each branch may exercise powers involving other branches
d. a system of checks and balances that is referred to as the separation of powers
ANS:  D                    PTS:   1
  1. GINA _____.
a. addresses perceived areas of discrimination in employment and insurance
b. is the abbreviation for Genetic Insurance Nondiscrimination Act
c. prohibits the interaction of all three branches of government for enforcement
d. replaces the HIPAA statute regarding implementation of the privacy rule
ANS:  A                    PTS:   1
  1. The legislative branch of government _____.
a. enforces and administers laws (statutes)
b. includes the Senate and the House of Representatives
c. interprets laws through adjudication and resolution of disputes
d. promulgates rules and regulations within specialized subject matter
ANS:  B                    PTS:   1
  1. The chief executive branch of government issues executive orders that interprets _____.
a. and implements and/or gives administrative effect to provisions of the constitution or laws
b. individual rules or regulations, which were written by administrative agencies
c. laws (statutes) through the adjudication and resolution of disputes
d. relevant constitutional provisions, federal/state statutes, regulations, and court decisions
ANS:  A                    PTS:   1
  1. In deciding a dispute, the court or judicial branch _____.
a. applies laws that were enacted by a majority vote only
b. considers irrelevant statutes and unconstitutional provisions
c. does not have the authority to settle disputes
d. may apply the doctrines of stare decisis and res judicata
ANS:  D                    PTS:   1
  1. Quasi-legal requirements may involve which of the following?
a. morals c. licensure
b. federal regulations d. statutes
ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

Solution Manual for Spreadsheet Modeling and Decision Analysis 8th Edition by Ragsdale

Chapter 1 Introduction to Modeling & Problem Solving  
  1. Solution Manual for Spreadsheet Modeling and Decision Analysis  Decision Analysis - Identifying and evaluating the different possible courses of action that might be chosen to address a decision problem.
 
  1. Solution Manual for Spreadsheet Modeling and Decision Analysis  Computer Model - A set of mathematical relationships and logical assumptions implemented in a computer as a representation of some real-world object or phenomenon.
 
  1. A spreadsheet model is a type (or special case) of a computer model where a spreadsheet is used to implement the model.
 
  1. Solution Manual for Spreadsheet Modeling and Decision Analysis  Business Analytics - A field of study that uses computers, statistics and mathematics to solve business problems.
 
  1. Many of the tools and techniques from the field of business analytics can be implemented and used in spreadsheets.
 
  1. Solution Manual for Spreadsheet Modeling and Decision Analysis  Spreadsheets are sometimes used to store lists of data; such as the grades of students in a class, or names addresses and phone numbers of friends and family. These types of "data base" applications of spreadsheets do not fall into the area of business analytics unless they data is being “mined” with a specific objective in mind.
 
  1. Spreadsheets facilitate the decision-making process by making it easier to play out various what-if scenarios.
 
  1. A modeling approach to decision making is beneficial in that the decision maker can analyze the probable impact of numerous alternative before selecting an alternative for implementation.
 
  1. Dependent Variable - A bottom-line performance measure of interest to the decision maker that is influenced by other variables in the model; denoted by the symbol Y in the expression Y=(X1, X2, ... X3).
 
  1. Solution Manual for Spreadsheet Modeling and Decision Analysis  Independent Variable - A variable that influences (or plays a role in determining) the value of some bottom-line performance measure (dependent variable); denoted by the symbols Xiin the expression Y=(X1, X2, ... X3).
 
  1. Yes, a model can have more than one dependent variable. In some decision problems a manager might be interested in evaluating various alternatives on the basis of profit, probable number of injuries, resulting amount of toxic waste produced, etc.  Each of the variables represents a bottom-line performance measure that the manager might be interested in that should be included in the model.
 
  1. Yes. See the answer to the previous question.
 
  1. The solution to prescriptive models tell managers what actions to take while descriptive models simply describe the operation of a system. In descriptive models, the values to be assumed by one or more independent variables are uncertain and not under the decision maker's control.
 
  1. The solution to prescriptive models tell managers what actions to take while predictive models provide forecasts of what will happen in the future. In predictive models, the functional form () describing the nature of the relationship between the dependent and independent variable is ill-defined or not precisely known.
 
  1. Descriptive models have a well-defined functional form, but the values of one or more of the independent variables are unknown or uncertain. In predictive models, the values of the independent variables are known or under the decision maker's control, but the functional form () describing the nature of the relationship between the dependent and independent variables is ill-defined or not precisely known.
 
  1. Description - To report on or summarize the features, characteristics or behavior of some object or phenomenon.
Prediction - An estimate or forecast of what will occur in the future. Prescription - Directions, orders, or advise on how to solve a problem.  
  1. Consider the problem of determining how to travel from your home to school or work. There are probably many different routes that could be taken that might influence the total distance (or total length of time) required for the trip.  Most people would be interested in determining the route that requires the least distance (or least amount of time).  In this sort of problem (also known as a shortest path problem) the different routes that can be chosen represent independent variables and the dependent variable would be the total distance (or total travel time).
 
  1. The spreadsheet in Figure 1.2 most closely resembles a prescriptive model because the function form () relating the dependent and independent variables is well-defined and the values of the independent variables are known, or are under the decision maker's control.
 
  1. “Probortunity” is the combination of the words problem and opportunity and denotes the fact that every problem can also be viewed as an opportunity.
 
  1. The steps in the problem solving process are:
  1) Identify the problem 2) Formulate and implement a model 3) Analyze the model 4) Test the result of the model 5) Implement the solution
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