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Test Bank for Nursing Today 9th Edition by Zerwekh

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By: Zerwekh

Edition: 9th Edition

Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille

Resource Type: Test bank

Duration: Unlimited downloads

Delivery: Instant Download

Chapter 01: Role Transitions

Zerwekh: Evolve Resources for Nursing Today, 9th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

  1. A graduate nurse has been hired as a nurse at a local hospital. The new nurse is in the honeymoon phase of role transition when making which of the following statements?
a. “I am so nervous about being on my own as a nurse.”
b. “This will be a great learning experience.”
c. “I can’t wait to have a steady paycheck.”
d. “This job is perfect. I can finally do things my own way.”

ANS:  D

The honeymoon phase is when the student nurse sees the world of nursing as quite rosy. Often, the new graduate is fascinated with the thrill of arriving in the profession. Reality shock occurs when one moves into the workforce after several years of educational preparation. Recovery and resolution occur when the graduate nurse is able to laugh at encountered situations. During this time, tension decreases, perception increases, and the nurse is able to grow as a person.

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Application/Applying

REF:   Table 1.1        OBJ:   Identify the characteristics of reality shock.

TOP:   Reality shock                                  MSC:  NCLEX®: Safe and effective care environment

  1. Which of the following actions by the graduate nurse is an inappropriate methodology to recover from reality shock?
a. Networking
b. Obtaining a mentor
c. Returning to school
d. Joining a support group

ANS:  C

The transition period is successfully managed when the graduate is able to evaluate the work situation objectively and predict effectively the actions and reactions of other staff. Nurturing the ability to see humor in a situation may be a first step. Returning to school is a positive step after the graduate has worked through role transition, has some clinical experience, and is ready to focus on a new career objective. Networking, obtaining a mentor, and joining a support group would give the graduate nurse an opportunity to talk to others experiencing the stress associated with reality shock. The nurse would benefit from “talking through” issues and learning how to cope.

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Application/Applying

REF:   p. 9                OBJ:   Describe methods to promote a successful transition.

TOP:   Reality shock

MSC:  NCLEX®: Safe and effective care environment Not applicable

  1. A nurse is trying to avoid burnout. Which of the following actions is a valid way to achieve this?
a. Refusing to constantly work extra shifts
b. Withdrawing from peer support group
c. “Going native”
d. Changing jobs every 6 to 12 months

ANS:  A

One of the quickest ways to experience burnout is to “overwork the overtime.” Set priorities with your mental and physical health being the highest priority. Learning to say “no” to extra shifts is a positive means of coping of avoiding burnout. “Going native” is the term that describes how recent graduates begin to copy and identify the reality of their role-transition experience by rejecting the values from nursing school and functioning more like a team member at their place of employment. Withdrawing from peer support groups, “going native,” and changing jobs every 6 to 12 months would increase the chance of the nurse experiencing burnout. The nurse should instead focus on his/her practice and seek out support from other nurses.

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Application/Applying

REF:   p. 7                OBJ:   Describe methods to promote a successful transition.

TOP:   Reality shock

MSC:  NCLEX®: Safe and effective care environment Not applicable

  1. Which of the following statements by the graduate nurse shows an understanding of reality shock as it applies to nursing?
a. “Reality shock is the period when a person moves from school into the workforce.”
b. “Reality shock is the realization that practice and education are not the same.”
c. “Reality shock is the period from graduation to becoming an experienced nurse.”
d. “Reality shock is a transition phase that new graduates go through before changing jobs.”

ANS:  A

“Reality shock” is a term often used to describe the reaction experienced when one moves into the workforce after several years of educational preparation. The new graduate is caught in the situation of moving from a familiar, comfortable educational environment into a new role in the workforce where the expectations are not clearly defined or may not even be realistic. The realization that practice and nursing school are not the same is often associated with “going native.” When nurses move from one position to another, they have already experienced reality shock. Becoming an experienced nurse takes time and is not part of the definition of reality shock.

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Application/Applying

REF:   p. 5                OBJ:   Identify the characteristics of reality shock.

TOP:   Reality shock                                  MSC:  NCLEX®: Not applicable

  1. A student in the last semester of nursing school has established a goal of making a successful role transition to graduate nurse. Which statement by the student indicates his/her understanding of how to achieve this goal?
a. “I should care for increased numbers of patients to enhance work organization skills.”
b. “I will observe staff nurses as they perform nursing procedures to refine technique.”
c. “I should seek increasingly close guidance from the nursing instructor to reduce errors.”
d. “I will evaluate my progress every 7 weeks or more to allow time for growth.”

ANS:  A

It is important for the student to start taking care of increased numbers of patients to help with time management and work organization. The student should also be able to function without close guidance from the nursing instructor. Although it is good for students to observe staff, a student in the final semester should be able to perform tasks with minimal observation and should instead focus on implementing care and time management. Waiting 7 weeks to evaluate progress would not be helpful to the student. Although regular self-evaluation is an important process, it is the actual experience of taking realistic patient assignments and working typical shift hours that assists with successful role transition.

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Application/Applying

REF:   p. 13              OBJ:   Describe methods to promote a successful transition.

TOP:   Reality shock                                  MSC:  NCLEX®: Not applicable

  1. A new graduate of less than 1 year describes his/her perception of a staff nurse position, stating: “It feels great to be a nurse! In fact, it’s a snap! I can hardly believe there’s no instructor looking over my shoulder.” What phase of reality shock is the graduate experiencing?
a. Recovery
b. Shock and rejection
c. Honeymoon
d. Transition

ANS:  C

In the first phase of the role transition process (the honeymoon phase), the graduate nurse is thrilled with completing school and accepting the first job. Life is a bed of roses because everyone knows nursing school is much harder than nursing practice. Shock and rejection occur as the nurse tries to understand how nursing school and the “real world” come together. Transition occurs as the nurse begins the move from student to nurse and refers to the entire process, not just a particular phase. The recovery phase is when the nurse can laugh at situations that he/she is in and is able to cope with the situations that are being faced.

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Application/Applying

REF:   p. 7                OBJ:   Compare and contrast the phases of reality shock.

TOP:   Reality shock                                  MSC:  NCLEX®: Not applicable

  1. A new graduate has worked on a busy unit for 6 months since graduating from nursing school. The graduate tells a friend, “I’ve never been so upset in all my life! The care that some of the staff give our patients is outrageously bad. There’s practically no attention to the principles of asepsis the way I learned them! The staff tell me that we have to cut corners if we’re going to get all the work done. I can’t stand it!” What phase of reality shock is this graduate experiencing?
a. Honeymoon
b. Shock and rejection
c. Recovery
d. Role transformation

ANS:  B

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DescriptionBy: Zerwekh Edition: 9th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadBy: Savage Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadBy: Bauldoff Edition: 7th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadBy: Willihnganz Edition: 18th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadEdition: 8th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadBy: Ackley Edition: 11th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Solution manual Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant Download
ContentChapter 01: Role Transitions

Zerwekh: Evolve Resources for Nursing Today, 9th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE
  1. A graduate nurse has been hired as a nurse at a local hospital. The new nurse is in the honeymoon phase of role transition when making which of the following statements?
a. “I am so nervous about being on my own as a nurse.”
b. “This will be a great learning experience.”
c. “I can’t wait to have a steady paycheck.”
d. “This job is perfect. I can finally do things my own way.”
ANS:  D The honeymoon phase is when the student nurse sees the world of nursing as quite rosy. Often, the new graduate is fascinated with the thrill of arriving in the profession. Reality shock occurs when one moves into the workforce after several years of educational preparation. Recovery and resolution occur when the graduate nurse is able to laugh at encountered situations. During this time, tension decreases, perception increases, and the nurse is able to grow as a person. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Application/Applying REF:   Table 1.1        OBJ:   Identify the characteristics of reality shock. TOP:   Reality shock                                  MSC:  NCLEX®: Safe and effective care environment
  1. Which of the following actions by the graduate nurse is an inappropriate methodology to recover from reality shock?
a. Networking
b. Obtaining a mentor
c. Returning to school
d. Joining a support group
ANS:  C The transition period is successfully managed when the graduate is able to evaluate the work situation objectively and predict effectively the actions and reactions of other staff. Nurturing the ability to see humor in a situation may be a first step. Returning to school is a positive step after the graduate has worked through role transition, has some clinical experience, and is ready to focus on a new career objective. Networking, obtaining a mentor, and joining a support group would give the graduate nurse an opportunity to talk to others experiencing the stress associated with reality shock. The nurse would benefit from “talking through” issues and learning how to cope. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Application/Applying REF:   p. 9                OBJ:   Describe methods to promote a successful transition. TOP:   Reality shock MSC:  NCLEX®: Safe and effective care environment Not applicable
  1. A nurse is trying to avoid burnout. Which of the following actions is a valid way to achieve this?
a. Refusing to constantly work extra shifts
b. Withdrawing from peer support group
c. “Going native”
d. Changing jobs every 6 to 12 months
ANS:  A One of the quickest ways to experience burnout is to “overwork the overtime.” Set priorities with your mental and physical health being the highest priority. Learning to say “no” to extra shifts is a positive means of coping of avoiding burnout. “Going native” is the term that describes how recent graduates begin to copy and identify the reality of their role-transition experience by rejecting the values from nursing school and functioning more like a team member at their place of employment. Withdrawing from peer support groups, “going native,” and changing jobs every 6 to 12 months would increase the chance of the nurse experiencing burnout. The nurse should instead focus on his/her practice and seek out support from other nurses. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Application/Applying REF:   p. 7                OBJ:   Describe methods to promote a successful transition. TOP:   Reality shock MSC:  NCLEX®: Safe and effective care environment Not applicable
  1. Which of the following statements by the graduate nurse shows an understanding of reality shock as it applies to nursing?
a. “Reality shock is the period when a person moves from school into the workforce.”
b. “Reality shock is the realization that practice and education are not the same.”
c. “Reality shock is the period from graduation to becoming an experienced nurse.”
d. “Reality shock is a transition phase that new graduates go through before changing jobs.”
ANS:  A “Reality shock” is a term often used to describe the reaction experienced when one moves into the workforce after several years of educational preparation. The new graduate is caught in the situation of moving from a familiar, comfortable educational environment into a new role in the workforce where the expectations are not clearly defined or may not even be realistic. The realization that practice and nursing school are not the same is often associated with “going native.” When nurses move from one position to another, they have already experienced reality shock. Becoming an experienced nurse takes time and is not part of the definition of reality shock. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Application/Applying REF:   p. 5                OBJ:   Identify the characteristics of reality shock. TOP:   Reality shock                                  MSC:  NCLEX®: Not applicable
  1. A student in the last semester of nursing school has established a goal of making a successful role transition to graduate nurse. Which statement by the student indicates his/her understanding of how to achieve this goal?
a. “I should care for increased numbers of patients to enhance work organization skills.”
b. “I will observe staff nurses as they perform nursing procedures to refine technique.”
c. “I should seek increasingly close guidance from the nursing instructor to reduce errors.”
d. “I will evaluate my progress every 7 weeks or more to allow time for growth.”
ANS:  A It is important for the student to start taking care of increased numbers of patients to help with time management and work organization. The student should also be able to function without close guidance from the nursing instructor. Although it is good for students to observe staff, a student in the final semester should be able to perform tasks with minimal observation and should instead focus on implementing care and time management. Waiting 7 weeks to evaluate progress would not be helpful to the student. Although regular self-evaluation is an important process, it is the actual experience of taking realistic patient assignments and working typical shift hours that assists with successful role transition. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Application/Applying REF:   p. 13              OBJ:   Describe methods to promote a successful transition. TOP:   Reality shock                                  MSC:  NCLEX®: Not applicable
  1. A new graduate of less than 1 year describes his/her perception of a staff nurse position, stating: “It feels great to be a nurse! In fact, it’s a snap! I can hardly believe there’s no instructor looking over my shoulder.” What phase of reality shock is the graduate experiencing?
a. Recovery
b. Shock and rejection
c. Honeymoon
d. Transition
ANS:  C In the first phase of the role transition process (the honeymoon phase), the graduate nurse is thrilled with completing school and accepting the first job. Life is a bed of roses because everyone knows nursing school is much harder than nursing practice. Shock and rejection occur as the nurse tries to understand how nursing school and the “real world” come together. Transition occurs as the nurse begins the move from student to nurse and refers to the entire process, not just a particular phase. The recovery phase is when the nurse can laugh at situations that he/she is in and is able to cope with the situations that are being faced. PTS:   1                    DIF:    Cognitive Level: Application/Applying REF:   p. 7                OBJ:   Compare and contrast the phases of reality shock. TOP:   Reality shock                                  MSC:  NCLEX®: Not applicable
  1. A new graduate has worked on a busy unit for 6 months since graduating from nursing school. The graduate tells a friend, “I’ve never been so upset in all my life! The care that some of the staff give our patients is outrageously bad. There’s practically no attention to the principles of asepsis the way I learned them! The staff tell me that we have to cut corners if we’re going to get all the work done. I can’t stand it!” What phase of reality shock is this graduate experiencing?
a. Honeymoon
b. Shock and rejection
c. Recovery
d. Role transformation
ANS:  B

Test Bank for Public Health Science and Nursing Practice Caring For Populations by Savage

Chapter 10: Mental Health MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1.According to Healthy People 2020, which of the following are characteristics of mental health? Select all that apply.
A. Engaging in productive activities
B. Having fulfilling relationships
C. Experiencing alterations in thinking
D. Adapting to change
E. Coping with challenges
ANS: A, B, D, E Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders. pp. 225-226 Heading: Introduction Integrated Processes: N/A Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Knowledge [Remembering] Concept: Promoting Health Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
1. Mental health is a state of successful performance of mental function, including engagement in productive activities.
2. Mental health is a state of successful performance of mental function, including being able to form fulfilling relationships with other people.
3. This is incorrect; it is an example of a mental disorder. Mental disorders are health conditions that are characterized by alterations in thinking, mood, or behavior that are associated with distress or impaired functioning.
4. Mental health is a state of successful performance of mental function, including the ability to adapt to change.
5. Mental health is a state of successful performance of mental function, including the ability to cope with challenges.
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health MULTIPLE CHOICE 2.In 2010, approximately how many people in the United States reported experiencing mental disorders in the previous year?
A. 15%
B. 50%
C. 30%
D. 25%
ANS: D Objective: 1. Define the burden of disease related to mental disorders using current epidemiological frameworks. pp. 226-227 Heading: Epidemiology of Mental Disorders Integrated Processes: N/A Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Comprehension [Understanding] Concept: Promoting Health Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A This is incorrect. In the United States in 2010 an estimated 25% of adults reported having mental disorders in the previous year.
B This is incorrect. In the United States in 2010 an estimated 25% of adults reported having mental disorders in the previous year.
C This is incorrect. In the United States in 2010 an estimated 25% of adults reported having mental disorders in the previous year.
D In the United States in 2010 an estimated 25% of adults reported having mental disorders in the previous year.
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health 3.A student nurse is studying stress and mental health. The student nurse learns that ____ is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events.
A. Intervention
B. Support
C. Resilience
D. Therapy
ANS: C Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders. pp. 229-231 Heading: Protective Factors: Building Resilience Integrated Processes: Teaching/Learning Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Trauma; Stress; Promoting Health; Nursing Roles Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A This is incorrect. Resilience is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events. Preventive and treatment interventions are useful tools to build on an individual’s natural resilience to promote positive outcomes.
B This is incorrect. Resilience is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events. Support from family, friends, and community is an important part of strengthening an individual’s resilience.
C Resilience is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events.
D This is incorrect. Resilience is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events. Therapy is an important part of an overall treatment plan, in conjunction with intervention, support, and an individual’s capacity for resilience.
PTS: 1 CON: Trauma | Stress | Promoting Health | Nursing Roles 4.____ addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder.
A. Indicated prevention
B. Selective prevention
C. Universal prevention
D. Both 1 and 2
ANS: A Objective: 4. Apply current evidence-based population level interventions to the prevention of mental disorders and the promotion of optimal mental health for communities and populations. pp. 232-233 Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Institute of Medicine Model of Prevention Integrated Processes: Nursing Process Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Comprehension [Understanding] Concept: Promoting Health Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A Indicated prevention addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder. The purpose of indicated techniques is to delay or reduce the severity of a mental disorder.
B Selective prevention includes interventions provided to specific subgroups that are known to be at high risk for mental disorders owing to biological, psychological, social, or environmental factors but that have not yet been diagnosed with mental disorders. High-risk subgroups include but are not limited to those with a family history of mental disorders, history of adverse childhood events, or victims of violence.
C Universal prevention refers to prevention interventions provided to the entire population, not just those who may be at risk. The interventions include but are not limited to public service announcements provided to the public at large through billboards, media messages (print and electronic), or general health education programs.
D Indicated prevention addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder. The purpose of indicated techniques is to delay or reduce the severity of a mental disorder. Selective prevention includes interventions provided to specific subgroups that are known to be at high risk for mental disorders owing to biological, psychological, social, or environmental factors but that have not yet been diagnosed with mental disorders. High-risk subgroups include but are not limited to those with a family history of mental disorders, history of adverse childhood events, or victims of violence.
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health 5.The public health nurse (PHN) recognizes that which of the following are used as screening tools for depression?
A. Patient Health Questionnaire 2
B. Center for Epidemiological Studies Depression Scale (CESD-10)
C. Brief Symptom Checklist-18 of the My Mood Monitor (M-3)
D. Both 1 and 2
ANS: D Objective: 5. Describe systems approaches to the promotion of mental health and the prevention and treatment of mental health disorders. p. 232 Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Measure of Mental Health: Health-Related Quality of Life Integrated Processes: Nursing Process Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Promoting Health; Mood; Assessment Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A Tools to screen for depression include the Patient Health Questionnaire 2 and the CESD-10.
B Tools to screen for depression include the Patient Health Questionnaire 2 and the CESD-10.
C This is incorrect. Tools to screen for depression include the Patient Health Questionnaire 2 and the CESD-10. Screening tools for anxiety disorders include the Brief Symptom Checklist-18 of the My Mood Monitor (M-3).
D Tools to screen for depression include the Patient Health Questionnaire 2 and the CESD-10.
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health | Mood | Assessment 6.During a course on mental disorders, a PHN learns that the term serious mental illness (SMI) refers to diagnosable mental disorders that may disrupt a person’s ability to function and may qualify that person for support services. The PHN also notes that the mental disorders that can lead to SMI include:
A. Mild depression
B. Panic disorder
C. Schizophrenia
D. Both 2 and 3
ANS: D Objective: 1. Define the burden of disease related to mental disorders using current epidemiological frameworks. pp. 225-226 Heading: Introduction Integrated Processes: Teaching/Learning Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Cognition; Mood; Stress; Promoting Health; Nursing Roles Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A This is incorrect. Major depression, however, is one of the mental disorders that can lead to SMI.
B Both panic disorder and schizophrenia, among other mental disorders, can lead to SMI.
C Both schizophrenia and panic disorder, among other mental disorders, can lead to SMI.
D The mental disorders that can lead to SMI include major depression, panic disorder, schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD), post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), and borderline personality disorder.
PTS: 1 CON: Cognition | Mood | Stress | Promoting Health | Nursing Roles 7.While studying the prevalence of mental health disorders worldwide, a PHN learns about the World Mental Health Survey, which is used to determine estimates of human capital costs and prevalence of mental disorders in a wide range of countries. The survey was developed by
A. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
B. The World Health Organization (WHO)
C. The Institute of Medicine (IOM)
D. The World Health Assembly
ANS: B Objective: 1. Define the burden of disease related to mental disorders using current epidemiological frameworks. p. 227 Heading: Epidemiology of Mental Disorders > Surveillance of Mental Health Disorders Integrated Processes: Teaching/Learning Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Promoting Health; Nursing Roles Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A This is incorrect. WHO developed the World Mental Health Survey to estimate human capital costs and mental disorders prevalence on a global scale. The CDC conducts many types of surveys on the prevalence of mental disorders but the organization did not develop the World Mental Health Survey.
B The WHO developed the World Mental Health Survey to estimate human capital costs and mental disorders prevalence on a global scale.
C This is incorrect. WHO developed the World Mental Health Survey to estimate human capital costs and mental disorders prevalence on a global scale. The IOM is involved in screening for mental health disorders and addresses the need for appropriate behavioral health treatment in its report, Improving the Quality of Health Care for Mental and Substance-Use Conditions: Quality Chasm Series.
D This is incorrect. WHO developed the World Mental Health Survey to estimate human capital costs and mental disorders prevalence on a global scale. The World Health Assembly issued a resolution on mental health that aims to reduce the global burden of mental disorders and improve overall mental health worldwide.
PTS: 1 CON: Promoting Health | Nursing Roles 8.Which ethnic group has the highest 12-month prevalence of a mental disorder?
A. Hispanics
B. African Americans
C. Asian Americans
D. Non-Hispanic whites
ANS: D Objective: 1. Define the burden of disease related to mental disorders using current epidemiological frameworks. pp. 227-228 Heading: Epidemiology of Mental Disorders > Prevalence of Mental Health Disorders Integrated Processes: N/A Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Knowledge [Remembering] Concept: Promoting Health Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A This is incorrect. Non-Hispanic whites have the highest 12-month prevalence rate for mental disorders at 21% compared with 16% for Hispanics.
B This is incorrect. Non-Hispanic whites have the highest 12-month prevalence rate for mental disorders at 21% compared with 15% for African Americans.
C This is incorrect. Non-Hispanic whites have the highest 12-month prevalence rate for mental disorders at 21% compared with 9% for Asian Americans.
D Non-Hispanic whites have the highest 12-month prevalence rate for mental disorders at 21%.
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health 9.A PHN learns in a behavioral health class that the relationship between physiology and mental health plays an important role in mental disorders. Which of the following physiological factors may contribute to the development of mental disorders?
A. Conditions that affect brain chemistry, such as medication side effects or toxins
B. Physical trauma
C. 1 and 2
D. Unstable family life
ANS: C Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders. pp. 228-229 Heading: Behavioral, Biological, Environmental, and Socioeconomic Risk Factors > Individual Level Risk Factors for Mental Disorders Integrated Processes: Teaching/Learning Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Application] Concept: Cognition; Trauma; Promoting Health Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A Both conditions that affect brain chemistry and physical trauma are the physiological factors that may contribute to the development of mental disorders.
B Both physical trauma and conditions that affect brain chemistry are physiological factors that may contribute to the development of mental disorders.
C Conditions that affect brain chemistry and physical trauma are two of the physiological factors that may contribute to the development of mental disorders.
D This is incorrect. Conditions that affect brain chemistry and physical trauma are two of the physiological factors that may contribute to the development of mental disorders. An unstable family life is not a physiological factor, although it may also contribute to the development of mental disorders.
PTS:1CON:Cognition | Trauma | Promoting Health 10.Which of the following community environment factors play a role in the development of mental disorders?
A. Living in high crime areas
B. Poverty
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Family instability
ANS: C Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders. p. 229 Heading: Behavioral, Biological, Environmental, and Socioeconomic Risk Factors > Community-Level Risk Factors for Mental Disorders Integrated Processes: N/A Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Comprehension [Understanding] Concept: Promoting Health Difficulty: Easy
Feedback
A Living in high crime areas is a factor, along with poverty.
B Both poverty and living in high crime areas play a role in the development of mental disorders.
C Both poverty and living in high crime areas play a role in the development of mental disorders.
D This is incorrect. Although family instability often contributes to the development of mental disorders, it is not considered a community environment factor.
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health 11.____ is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable.
A. Indicated prevention
B. Stigma
C. Risk factors
D. Transinstitutionalization
ANS: B Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders. pp. 231-232 Heading: Culture, Stigma, and Mental Health Disorders Integrated Processes: N/A Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Comprehension [Understanding] Concept: Promoting Health Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A This is incorrect. Stigma is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable. Indicated prevention addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder.
B Stigma is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable.
C This is incorrect. Stigma is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable. Risk factors increase an individual’s chance of developing a mental disorder.
D This is incorrect. Stigma is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable. Transinstitutionalization refers to the growing number of mentally ill persons who are homeless, in jail, in shelters, or in other facilities instead of being home or in a hospital.
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health 12.A nurse interested in working with persons with mental disorders who live in poverty understands that the most effective treatment involves multiple sectors of society, such as government agencies, grass roots groups, nonprofits, and businesses, working in tandem. This interrelationship is called:
A. Indicated prevention
B. Intersectoral strategies
C. Health-Related Quality of Life
D. Institute of Medicine Model of Prevention
ANS: B Objective: 4. Apply current evidence-based population level interventions to the prevention of mental disorders and the promotion of optimal mental health for communities and populations. p. 233 Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Promotion of Mental Health and Policy Integrated Processes: Nursing Process Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Promoting Health; Collaboration Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A This is incorrect. Intersectoral strategies engage more than one sector of society with a shared interest such as government agencies, grass roots citizens groups, nonprofits, and businesses. Indicated prevention addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder.
B Intersectoral strategies engage more than one sector of society with a shared interest such as government agencies, grass roots citizens groups, nonprofits, and businesses.
C This is incorrect. Intersectoral strategies engage more than one sector of society with a shared interest such as government agencies, grass roots citizens groups, nonprofits, and businesses. Health-Related Quality of Life is the self-perceived impact of physical and emotional health on overall quality of life.
D This is incorrect. Intersectoral strategies engage more than one sector of society with a shared interest such as government agencies, grass roots citizens groups, nonprofits, and businesses. The Institute of Medicine Model of Prevention is a framework for mental disorders that clearly separates prevention into three categories with specific interventions at each level.
PTS: 1 CON: Promoting Health | Collaboration 13.A recent graduate nurse working in an urban labor and delivery unit had a patient who experienced a difficult labor. The mother, suffering from postpartum depression (PPD), committed suicide a year after giving birth. Although the nurse knew the basics about PPD, the nurse immediately studied the condition in depth and learned that PPD:
A. Can be triggered by a massive hormone drop following delivery
B. Can intensify to cause delusions
C. Occurs soon after delivery
D. All of the above
ANS: D Objective: 4. Apply current evidence-based population level interventions to the prevention of mental disorders and the promotion of optimal mental health for communities and populations. pp. 233-235 Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Secondary Prevention: Screening for Mental Disorders Integrated Processes: Nursing Process Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Pregnancy; Mood; Violence; Promoting Health; Nursing Roles Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A PPD can be triggered by a massive post-delivery hormone drop, intensify enough to cause delusions, and occur soon after delivery.
B PPD can be triggered by a massive post-delivery hormone drop, intensify enough to cause delusions, and occur soon after delivery.
C PPD can be triggered by a massive post-delivery hormone drop, intensify enough to cause delusions, and occur soon after delivery.
D PPD can be triggered by a massive post-delivery hormone drop, intensify enough to cause delusions, and occur soon after delivery.
PTS: 1 CON: Pregnancy | Mood | Violence | Promoting Health | Nursing Roles 14.A nurse working in labor and delivery requested permission from the nurse manager to conduct a quality improvement project to screen patients that might be susceptible to PPD. After completing the project, which of the following screening guidelines did the unit incorporate?
A. All patients will be screened for PPD when they are admitted to the labor and delivery unit.
B. Patients at high risk are referred to the attending obstetrician.
C. Before being discharged, all new mothers will complete a questionnaire specific to PPD symptoms.
D. All of the above
ANS: D Objective: Apply current evidence-based population level interventions to the prevention of mental disorders and the promotion of optimal mental health for communities and populations. pp. 233-235 Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Secondary Prevention: Screening for Mental Disorders Integrated Processes: Nursing Process Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Pregnancy; Mood; Promoting Health; Assessment; Quality Improvement Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A This is incorrect. Screening, high-risk referrals to the attending obstetrician and completion of a PPD symptom questionnaire were all incorporated.
B This is incorrect. Screening, high-risk referrals to the attending obstetrician and completion of a PPD symptom questionnaire were all incorporated.
C This is incorrect. Screening, high-risk referrals to the attending obstetrician and completion of a PPD symptom questionnaire were all incorporated.
D Screening, high-risk referrals to the attending obstetrician and completion of a PPD symptom questionnaire were all incorporated.
PTS:1 CON: Pregnancy | Mood | Promoting Health | Assessment | Quality Improvement 15.A PHN treats a patient who may be depressed. To verify suspicions, the PHN checks ____, the definitive clinical guide for diagnosing mental disorders and providing consistency and accuracy in the screening for mental disorders.
A. The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5)
B. The Center for Epidemiological Studies Depression Scale (CESD-10)
C. Patient Health Questionnaire 2
D. Brief System Checklist-18 of the My Mood Monitor
ANS: A

LeMone & Burke's Medical-Surgical Nursing, 7e (Bauldoff/Gubrud/Carno)

Chapter 1   Medical-Surgical Nursing in the 21st Century

  1) A patient is instructed on the role of diet, exercise, and medication to control type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which core competency for healthcare professionals is the nurse implementing?
  1. Quality improvement
  2. Evidence-based practice
  3. Patient-centered care
  4. Teamwork and collaboration
Answer:  3 Explanation:  1. Identifying safety hazards and measuring quality is an example of the core competency quality improvement.
  1. Using best research when providing patient care is an example of the core competency evidence-based practice.
  2. Patient teaching is an example of the competency patient-centered care.
  3. The core competency teamwork and collaboration involves collaboration between disciplines to provide continuous and reliable care.
Page Ref: 5 Cognitive Level:  Applying Client Need & Sub:  Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care Standards:  QSEN Competencies: I.A.1. Integrate understanding of multiple dimensions of patient-centered care | AACN Essentials Competencies: IX.7. Provide appropriate patient teaching that reflects developmental stage, age, culture, spirituality, patient preferences, and health literacy considerations to foster patient engagement in their care | NLN Competencies: Relationship-Centered Care; Practice-Know-How; Communicate information effectively; listen openly and cooperatively | Nursing/Integrated Concepts: Nursing Process: Implementation/Teaching/Learning Learning Outcome:  1.1 Describe the core competencies for healthcare professionals: Patient-centered care, interprofessional teams, evidence-based practice, quality improvement, safety, and health information technology. MNL Learning Outcome:  1. Demonstrate use of the core competencies for healthcare professionals in nursing practice.    

2) The nurse is planning to utilize the core competency use informatics when providing patient care. Which action should the nurse perform when using this core competency?

  1. Change the sharps container in a patient's room.
  2. Document the effectiveness of pain medication for a patient.
  3. Discuss the effectiveness of bedside physical therapy with the therapist.
  4. Search through a database of articles to find current research on wound care.
Answer:  4 Explanation:  1. Changing the sharps container is an example of quality improvement.
  1. Documenting the effectiveness of pain medication for a patient is an example of patient-centered care.
  2. Discussing the effectiveness of bedside physical therapy with the therapist is an example of teamwork and collaboration.
  3. Searching through a database of articles to find current research on wound care is an example of use informatics.
Page Ref: 5 Cognitive Level:  Applying Client Need & Sub:  Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care Standards:  QSEN Competencies: VI.B.2. Apply technology and information management tools to support safe processes of care | AACN Essentials Competencies: IV.1. Demonstrate skills in using patient care technologies, information systems, and communication devices that support safe nursing practice | NLN Competencies: Knowledge and Science: Practice-Know-How: Retrieve research findings and other sources of information | Nursing/Integrated Concepts:

Test Bank for Claytons Basic Pharmacology for Nurses 18th Edition by Willihnganz

Chapter 01: Drug Definitions, Standards, and Information Sources Willihnganz: Clayton’s Basic Pharmacology for Nurses, 18th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.What is the name under which a drug is listed by the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA)?
a. Brand
b. Nonproprietary
c. Official
d. Trademark
ANS:  C The official name is the name under which a drug is listed by the FDA. The brand name, or trademark, is the name given to a drug by its manufacturer. The nonproprietary, or generic, name is provided by the United States Adopted Names Council DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   p. 2                OBJ:   1 NAT:  NCLEX Client Needs Category: Safe, Effective Care Environment TOP:   Nursing Process Step: Assessment  CON:  Patient Education  
  1. Which source contains information specific to nutritional supplements?
a. USP Dictionary of USAN & International Drug Names
b. Natural Medicines Comprehensive Database
c. United States Pharmacopoeia/National Formulary (USP NF)
d. Drug Interaction Facts
ANS:  C United States Pharmacopoeia/National Formulary contains information specific to nutritional supplements. USP Dictionary of USAN & International Drug Names is a compilation of drug names, pronunciation guide, and possible future FDA approved drugs; it does not include nutritional supplements. Natural Medicines Comprehensive Database contains evidence-based information on herbal medicines and herbal combination products; it does not include information specific to nutritional supplements. Drug Interaction Facts contains comprehensive information on drug interaction facts; it does not include nutritional supplements. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   p. 2 | p. 3        OBJ:   3 NAT:  NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity TOP:   Nursing Process Step: Assessment  CON:  Nutrition | Patient Education 3.What is the most comprehensive reference available to research a drug interaction?
a. Drug Facts and Comparisons
b. Drug Interaction Facts
c. Handbook on Injectable Drugs
d. Martindale—The Complete Drug Reference
ANS:  B First published in 1983, Drug Interaction Facts is the most comprehensive book available on drug interactions. In addition to monographs listing various aspects of drug interactions, this information is reviewed and updated by an internationally renowned group of physicians and pharmacists with clinical and scientific expertise. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   p. 4                OBJ:   3 NAT:  NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity TOP:   Nursing Process Step: Assessment  CON:  Safety | Patient Education | Clinical Judgment 4.The physician has written an order for a drug with which the nurse is unfamiliar. Which section of the Physicians’ Desk Reference (PDR) is most helpful to get information about this drug?
a. Manufacturer’s section
b. Brand and Generic name section
c. Product category section
d. Product information section
ANS:  B A physician’s order would include the brand and/or generic name of the drug. The alphabetic index in the PDR would make this section the most user-friendly. Based on a physician’s order, manufacturer’s information and classification information would not be known. The Manufacturer’s section is a roster of manufacturers. The product category section lists products subdivided by therapeutic classes, such as analgesics, laxatives, oxytocics, and antibiotics. The product information section contains reprints of the package inserts for the major products of manufacturers. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   p. 4                OBJ:   3 NAT:  NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity TOP:   Nursing Process Step: Planning       CON:  Safety | Patient Education | Clinical Judgment 5.Which online drug reference makes available to healthcare providers and the public a standard, comprehensive, up-to-date look up and downloadable resource about medicines?
a. American Drug Index
b. American Hospital Formulary
c. DailyMed
d. Physicians’ Desk Reference (PDR)
ANS:  C DailyMed makes available to healthcare providers and the public a standard, comprehensive, up-to-date look up and downloadable resource about medicines. The American Drug Index is not appropriate for patient use. The American Hospital Formulary is not appropriate for patient use. The PDR is not appropriate for patient use. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   p. 3 | p. 5        OBJ:   4 NAT:  NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity TOP:   Nursing Process Step: Implementation CON:  Safety | Patient Education | Clinical Judgment 6.Which legislation authorizes the FDA to determine the safety of a drug before its marketing?
a. Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (1938)
b. Durham Humphrey Amendment (1952)
c. Controlled Substances Act (1970)
d. Kefauver Harris Drug Amendment (1962)
ANS:  A The Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938 authorized the FDA to determine the safety of all drugs before marketing. Later amendments and acts helped tighten FDA control and ensure drug safety. The Durham Humphrey Amendment defines the kinds of drugs that cannot be used safely without medical supervision and restricts their sale to prescription by a licensed practitioner. The Controlled Substances Act addresses only controlled substances and their categorization. The Kefauver Harris Drug Amendment ensures drug efficacy and greater drug safety. Drug manufacturers are required to prove to the FDA the effectiveness of their products before marketing them. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   p. 5                OBJ:   6 NAT:  NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity TOP:   Nursing Process Step: Assessment CON:  Safety | Patient Education | Evidence | Health Care Law 7.Meperidine (Demerol) is a narcotic with a high potential for physical and psychological dependency. Under which classification does this drug fall?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
ANS:  B Meperidine (Demerol) is a Schedule II drug; it has a high potential for abuse and may lead to severe psychological and physical dependence. Schedule I drugs have high potential for abuse and no recognized medical use. Schedule III drugs have some potential for abuse. Use may lead to low to moderate physical dependence or high psychological dependence. Schedule IV drugs have low potential for abuse. Use may lead to limited physical or psychological dependence. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   p. 5                OBJ:   2 NAT:  NCLEX Client Needs Category: Safe, Effective Care Environment TOP:   Nursing Process Step: Assessment  CON:  Patient Education | Addiction | Pain 8:What would the FDA do to expedite drug development and approval for an outbreak of smallpox, for which there is no known treatment?
a. List smallpox as a health orphan disease.
b. Omit the preclinical research phase.
c. Extend the clinical research phase.
d. Fast track the investigational drug.
    ANS:  D

Test Bank For Essentials of Psychiatric Mental Health Nursing 8th Morgan

Chapter 1: Mental Health and Mental Illness Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____ 1. A nurse is assessing a client who experiences occasional feelings of sadness because of the recent death of a beloved pet. The client’s appetite, sleep patterns, and daily routine have not changed. How would the nurse interpret the client’s behaviors? 1. The client’s behaviors demonstrate mental illness in the form of depression. 2. The client’s behaviors are inappropriate, which indicates the presence of mental illness. 3. The client’s behaviors are not congruent with cultural norms. 4. The client’s behaviors demonstrate no functional impairment, indicating no mental illness. ____ 2. At which point would the nurse determine that a client is at risk for developing a mental illness? 1. When thoughts, feelings, and behaviors are not reflective of the DSM-5 criteria. 2. When maladaptive responses to stress are coupled with interference in daily functioning. 3. When a client communicates significant distress. 4. When a client uses defense mechanisms as ego protection. ____ 3. A client has been given a diagnosis of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Which statement made by the client does the nurse recognize as the bargaining stage of grief? 1. “I hate my partner for giving me this disease I will die from!” 2. “If I don’t do intravenous (IV) drugs anymore, God won’t let me die.” 3. “I am going to support groups and learn more about the disease.” 4. “Can you please re-draw the test results, I think they may be wrong?” ____ 4. A nurse notes that a client is extremely withdrawn, delusional, and emotionally exhausted. The nurse assesses the client’s anxiety as which level? 1. Mild anxiety 2. Moderate anxiety 3. Severe anxiety 4. Panic anxiety ____ 5. A psychiatric nurse intern states, “This client’s use of defense mechanisms should be eliminated.” Which is a correct evaluation of this nurse’s statement? 1. Defense mechanisms can be appropriate responses to stress and need not be eliminated. 2. Defense mechanisms are a maladaptive attempt of the ego to manage anxiety and should always be eliminated. 3. Defense mechanisms, used by individuals with weak ego integrity, should be discouraged and not completely eliminated. 4. Defense mechanisms cause disintegration of the ego and should be fostered and encouraged. ESSENTIALS OF PSYCHIATRIC MENTAL HEALTH NURSING 8TH MORGAN TEST BANK Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company ____ 6. During an intake assessment, a nurse asks both physiological and psychosocial questions. The client angrily responds, “I’m here for my heart, not my head problems.” Which is the nurse’s best response? 1. “It is just a routine part of our assessment. All clients are asked these same questions.” 2. “Why are you concerned about these types of questions?” 3. “Psychological factors, like excessive stress, have been found to affect medical conditions.” 4. “We can skip these questions, if you like. It isn’t imperative that we complete this section.” ____ 7. A client who is being treated for chronic kidney disease complains to the health-care provider that he does not like the food available to him while hospitalized. The health-care provider insists that the client strictly adhere to the diet plan. What action can be expected is the client uses the defense mechanism of displacement? 1. The client assertively confronts the health-care provider. 2. The client insists on being discharged and goes for a long, brisk walk. 3. The client snaps at the nurse and criticizes the nursing care provided. 4. The client hides his anger by explaining the logical reasoning for the diet to his spouse. ____ 8. A fourth-grade boy teases and makes jokes about a cute girl in his class. A nurse would recognize this behavior as indicative of which defense mechanism? 1. Displacement 2. Projection 3. Reaction formation 4. Sublimation ____ 9. Which nursing statement regarding the concept of psychosis is most accurate? 1. Individuals experiencing psychoses are aware that their behaviors are maladaptive. 2. Individuals experiencing psychoses experience little distress. 3. Individuals experiencing psychoses are aware of experiencing psychological problems. 4. Individuals experiencing psychoses are based in reality. ____ 10. When under stress, a client routinely uses alcohol to excess. When the client’s husband finds her drunk, the husband yells at the client about her chronic alcohol abuse. Which action alerts the nurse to the client’s use of the defense mechanism of denial? 1. The client hides liquor bottles in a closet. 2. The client yells at her son for slouching in his chair. 3. The client burns dinner on purpose. 4. The client says to the spouse, “I don’t drink too much!” ____ 11. Devastated by a divorce from an abusive husband, a wife completes grief counseling. Which statement by the wife would indicate to a nurse that the client is in the acceptance stage of grief? 1. “If only we could have tried again, things might have worked out.” 2. “I am so mad that the children and I had to put up with him as long as we did.” 3. “Yes, it was a difficult relationship, but I think I have learned from the ESSENTIALS OF PSYCHIATRIC MENTAL HEALTH NURSING 8TH MORGAN TEST BANK WWW.NURSINGTB.COMN U R S I N G T B . C O M Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company experience.” 4. “I have a difficult time getting out of bed most days.” ____ 12. According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, which client action would demonstrate the highest achievement in terms of mental health? 1. Maintaining a long-term, faithful, intimate relationship 2. Achieving a sense of self-confidence 3. Possessing a feeling of self-fulfillment and realizing full potential 4. Developing a sense of purpose and the ability to direct activities ____ 13. According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, which situation on an inpatient psychiatric unit would require priority intervention by a nurse? 1. A client rudely complaining about limited visiting hours 2. A client exhibiting aggressive behavior toward another client 3. A client stating that no one cares 4. A client verbalizing feelings of failure Multiple Response Identify one or more choices that best complete the statement or answer the question. ____ 14. Which describes a defense mechanism an individual may use to relieve anxiety in a stressful situation? (Select all that apply.) 1. Homework 2. Smoking 3. Itching 4. Nail biting 5. Sleeping ____ 15. The nurse is reviewing the DSM-5 definition of a mental health disorder and notes the definition includes a disturbance in which areas? (Select all that apply.) 1. Cognition 2. Physical 3. Emotional regulation 4. Behavior 5. Developmental Completion Complete each statement. 16. _______________________ is a diffuse apprehension that is vague in nature and is associated with feelings of uncertainty and helplessness. 17. _______________________ is a subjective state of emotional, physical, and social responses to the loss of a valued entity. Other ESSENTIALS OF PSYCHIATRIC MENTAL HEALTH NURSING 8TH MORGAN TEST BANK Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company 18. Place in order the Kübler Ross stages of grief from 1-5. (Enter the number of each step in the proper sequence, using comma and space format, such as: 1, 2, 3, 4.) 1. Bargaining 2. Denial 3. Acceptance 4. Depression 5. Anger

Solution Manual for Nursing Diagnosis Handbook 11th Edition by Ackley

Ackley: Nursing Diagnosis Handbook, 11th Edition Table of Contents     41 cases  Lecture Notes

Problem-Based Learning/Critical Thinking

Case Study - Restless Leg Syndrome

Case Scenario Abdul Malek is a 21 year old college student. He attends the local state university and is a junior studying graphic design.  Three (3) weeks into his fall semester, Abdul’s professors notice that he is falling asleep in class and often looks restless. Abdul taps his foot and squirms around in his seat. Abdul, who is usually an excellent student, has failed his first test in his Graphic Design II course. His professor asks him to see his advisor because the fear is that Abdul has become chemically impaired. His advisor sends Abdul to the student health services and his case is reviewed by the nurse.  Nursing Assessment  Abdul is a well-developed 22 year old male with a BMI of 20. His vital signs are: blood pressure 104/78; temperature 98.4 degrees F.; heart rate – 64 BPM; respiratory rate – 16 per minute. A nutritional history confirms a well-balanced diet with the exclusion of pork products. Abdul had been working out every day at the University gym but reports that he is currently “too tired” to do so.  Abdul denies drug or alcohol use and this is confirmed by serum analysis. Abdul complains about sleeping poorly and feeling as if, “I am moving all night.” He states that he often wakes up his dorm mate and feels badly about that.  The nurse reclines Abdul on the examination table and checks his deep tendon reflexes (DTRs) which are all 2 . The nurse asks Abdul to relax and dims the lights while she consults with the primary care practitioner. While the nurse is out of the examination room Abdul dozes and when the nurse returns the nurse observes Abdul’s right leg jerking several times before she arouses him.
  1. ASSESS
  2. Identify significant symptoms by underlining them in the assessment.
  3. List those symptoms that indicate the client has a health problem (those you have underlined).
  • falling asleep in class
  • often looks restless
  • taps his foot
  • squirms around in his seat
  • failed his first test
  •  “too tired
  • complains about sleeping poorly
  • I am moving all night
  • often wakes up
  • dozes
  • right leg jerking several times
  1. Group the symptoms that are similar.
  • falling asleep in class
  • often looks restless
  • taps his foot
  • squirms around in his seat
  • failed his first test
  • complains about sleeping poorly
  • dozes
  •  “too tired
  • I am moving all night
  • often wakes up
  • right leg jerking several times
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