| Content |
Chapter 1: The Cell in Health and Illness
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. Which statement regarding the sodium-potassium pump is correct?
| 1. |
The cell’s plasma membrane is more soluble to sodium ions than potassium ions. |
| 2. |
The concentration of sodium ions should be higher inside the cell compartment. |
| 3. |
The concentration of potassium ions should be higher outside the cell compartment. |
| 4. |
The active transport involves pumping out three sodium ions and pumping in two potassium ions. |
____ 2. What is the process in which glucose is used to create energy?
| 1. |
Autolysis |
| 2. |
Glycolysis |
| 3. |
Heterolysis |
| 4. |
None of the above |
____ 3. How many adenosine triphosphates (ATPs) are produced in aerobic energy metabolism?
| 1. |
2 |
| 2. |
3 |
| 3. |
34 |
| 4. |
None of the above |
____ 4. Which cell organelles are believed to have once been self-sustaining and independent?
| 1. |
Ribosomes |
| 2. |
Mitochondria |
| 3. |
Ribonucleic acid |
| 4. |
Deoxyribonucleic acid |
____ 5. Why is more energy produced when a person is exercising?
| 1. |
There is an increase in the synthesis of protein. |
| 2. |
There is an increase in the production of pyruvic acid in the cells. |
| 3. |
There is an increase in the conversion of pyruvic acid to lactic acid. |
| 4. |
There is an increase in the production of mitochondria in the muscle cells. |
____ 6. When does ribosomal protein synthesis cease?
| 1. |
During endoplasmic reticulum (ER) stress |
| 2. |
During the synthesis of ATP |
| 3. |
During severe hypoxic state |
| 4. |
During the processing of prohormone |
____ 7. The cellular organelle responsible for propelling mucous and inhaled debris out of the lungs is
| 1. |
cilia. |
| 2. |
microfilament. |
| 3. |
secretory vesicle. |
| 4. |
endoplasmic reticulum. |
____ 8. Which are the key proteins in the contractile units of the muscle cells?
| 1. |
Actin and myosin |
| 2. |
Myosin and tubulin |
| 3. |
Tubulin and actin |
| 4. |
None of the above |
____ 9. Which deficiency causes Tay-Sach’s disease?
| 1. |
Proteasome |
| 2. |
Peroxisome |
| 3. |
Macrophage |
| 4. |
Lysosomal enzymes |
____ 10. Adrenoleukodystrophy is characterized by
| 1. |
Accumulation of ganglioside. |
| 2. |
Cessation of ribosomal protein synthesis. |
| 3. |
Acceleration of cellular proteasome activity. |
| 4. |
Accumulation of long chain fatty acid s in the nervous system. |
____ 11. Which statement regarding endoplasmic reticulum (ER) stress is correct?
| 1. |
During ER stress, proteins are rapidly degraded. |
| 2. |
During ER stress, lipids cannot travel to their proper intracellular locations. |
| 3. |
During ER stress, accumulation of long chain fatty acids occurs in the nervous system. |
| 4. |
During ER stress, accumulation of non-degraded substances occurs in the cells. |
____ 12. Which is referred to as the protein factory of the cell?
| 1. |
Ribosome |
| 2. |
Mitochondria |
| 3. |
Golgi apparatus |
| 4. |
Endoplasmic reticulum |
____ 13. Which acts as a blue print for the construction of proteins?
| 1. |
Transfer RNA |
| 2. |
Ribosomal RNA |
| 3. |
Messenger RNA |
| 4. |
Mitochondrial DNA |
____ 14. A hiker experiences muscle pain and acidosis as he or she ascends a mountain during a long, steep climb. What is the reason for these symptoms?
| 1. |
Cellular hypoxia |
| 2. |
Autolysis |
| 3. |
Heterolysis |
| 4. |
Cellular edema |
____ 15. Which factor provides DNA the unique molecular ability to replicate?
| 1. |
The precise pairing of the nitrogenous bases |
| 2. |
The presence of pyrimidines bases |
| 3. |
The presence of nucleotides |
| 4. |
The nitrogenous base and phosphate bond |
____ 16. How many nitrogenous bases compose a single codon?
| 1. |
2 |
| 2. |
3 |
| 3. |
4 |
| 4. |
None of the above |
____ 17. The DNA is a polymer of
| 1. |
Nucleotides. |
| 2. |
Amino acids. |
| 3. |
Fatty acids. |
| 4. |
Phosphates. |
____ 18. What is the function of ribosomal ribonucleic acid during protein synthesis?
| 1. |
It transports genetic information from the DNA for protein synthesis. |
| 2. |
It gathers and joins the amino acids for specific proteins. |
| 3. |
It is directly involved in the formation of ribosomes. |
| 4. |
None of the above. |
____ 19. Tetracycline antibiotic was given to a 30 year old client with Chlamydia infection. What is the mechanism of action of the drug?
| 1. |
It prevents the replication of bacteria. |
| 2. |
It alters the configuration of bacterial cytoplasm. |
| 3. |
It interferes with the function of bacterial ribosomes. |
| 4. |
It inhibits the functions of bacterial mitochondria. |
____ 20. Where does the conversion of a prohormone into a hormone take place?
| 1. |
Ribosome |
| 2. |
Golgi apparatus |
| 3. |
Secretory granule |
| 4. |
Endoplasmic reticulum |
____ 21. Which is the cell’s “master mind”?
| 1. |
Nucleus |
| 2. |
Ribosome |
| 3. |
Golgi apparatus |
| 4. |
Endoplasmic reticulum |
Multiple Response
Identify one or more choices that best complete the statement or answer the question.
____ 22. Which statements regarding the microtubules are true? Select all that apply.
| 1. |
Microtubules are solid. |
| 2. |
Microtubules are flexible. |
| 3. |
Microtubules are composed of tubulin. |
| 4. |
Microtubules are called actin filaments. |
| 5. |
Microtubules comprise of centrioles and mitotic spindle. |
____ 23. Which structures are found in microtubules? Select all that apply.
| 1. |
Cilia |
| 2. |
Centrioles |
| 3. |
Mitotic spindle |
| 4. |
Actin filaments |
| 5. |
Secretory vesicles |
____ 24. What are the characteristics of ribonucleic acid? Select all that apply.
| 1. |
Presence of ribose pentose sugar |
| 2. |
Presence of single stranded helix |
| 3. |
Presence of double stranded helix |
| 4. |
Presence of deoxyribose pentose sugar |
| 5. |
Presence of uracil and cytosine as pyrimidine base |
____ 25. Which are the purine bases found in deoxyribonucleic acid and ribonucleic acid? Select all that apply.
| 1. |
Uracil |
| 2. |
Adenine |
| 3. |
Guanine |
| 4. |
Thymine |
| 5. |
Cytosine |
| Test bank for Davis Advantage for Pathophysiology 2nd edition
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The time to study is now! Better grades and test scores are just a click away. So what are you waiting for? Click the “Add to Cart” button above and instantly download the test bank. | TEST BANK Pathophysiology The Biologic Basis for Disease in Adults and Children 8th Edition
Chapter 1: Cellular Biology
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which statement best describes the cellular function of metabolic absorption?
a. Cells can produce proteins. c. Cells can take in and use nutrients.
b. Cells can secrete digestive enzymes. d. Cells can synthesize fats.
ANS: C
In metabolic absorption, all cells take in and use nutrients and other substances from their
surroundings. The remaining options are not inclusive in their descriptions of cellular
metabolic absorption.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 2
2. Most of a cell’s genetic information, including RNA and DNA, is contained in the:
a. Mitochondria c. Nucleolus
b. Ribosome d. Lysosome
ANS: C
The nucleus contains the nucleolus, a small dense structure composed largely of RNA,
most of the cellular DNA, and the DNA-binding proteins, such as the histones, which
regulate its activity. The other options do not contain most of a cell’s genetic information.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 2
3. Which component of the cell produces hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) by using oxygen to
remove hydrogen atoms from specific substrates in an oxidative reaction?
a. Lysosomes c. Ribosomes
b. Peroxisomes d. Oxyhydrosomes
ANS: B
Peroxisomes are so named because they usually contain enzymes that use oxygen to
remove hydrogen atoms from specific substrates in an oxidative reaction that produces
H2O2, which is a powerful oxidant and potentially destructive if it accumulates or escapes
from peroxisomes. Ribosomes are RNA-protein complexes (nucleoproteins) that are
synthesized in the nucleolus and secreted into the cytoplasm through pores in the nuclear
envelope called nuclear pore complexes. Lysosomes are saclike structures that originate
from the Golgi complex and contain more than 40 digestive enzymes called hydrolases,
which catalyze bonds in proteins, lipids, nucleic acids, and carbohydrates. Oxyhydrosomes
are involved in enzyme production.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 8
4. Which cell component is capable of cellular autodigestion when it is released during cell
injury?
a. Ribosome c. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
b. Golgi complex d. Lysosomes
ANS: D
PATHOPHYSIOLOGY 8TH EDITION McCance TEST
The lysosomal membrane acts as a protective shield between the powerful digestive
enzymes within the lysosome and the cytoplasm, preventing their leakage into the
cytoplasmic matrix. Disruption of the membrane by various treatments or cellular injury
leads to a release of the lysosomal enzymes, which can then react with their specific
substrates, causing cellular self-digestion. The other options do not correctly describe this
process.
PTS: 1 REF: Pages 7-8
5. What is the sequence of steps in the development of a digestive enzyme by the pancreas
cells from the initial transcription to the release from the cell?
a. The enzyme is transcribed from DNA by RNA in the nucleus, proceeds to the
ribosome for synthesis, and is transported in a secretory vesicle to the cell
membrane.
b. The enzyme is transcribed from RNA by DNA in the nucleus, proceeds to the
lysosome for synthesis, and is transported in an encapsulated membrane to the cell
membrane.
c. The enzyme is transcribed by the mitochondria in the nucleus, proceeds to the
ribosome for synthesis, and is transported in a cytoskeleton to the cell membrane.
d. The enzyme is transcribed from DNA by RNA in the nucleus, proceeds to the
Golgi complex for synthesis, and is transported in a cytosol to the cell membrane.
ANS: A
The enzyme is transcribed from DNA by RNA in the nucleus, proceeds to the ribosome
for synthesis, and is transported in a secretory vesicle to the cell membrane. The other
options do not correctly describe this process.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 7 | Figure 1-5
6. During which phase of the cell cycle is DNA synthesized?
a. G1 c. G2
b. S d. M
ANS: B
The four designated phases of the cell cycle are: (1) the G1 phase (G = gap), which is the
period between the M phase (M = mitosis) and the start of DNA synthesis; (2) the S phase
(S = synthesis), during which DNA is synthesized in the cell nucleus; (3) the G2 phase,
during which RNA and protein synthesis occurs, the period between the completion of
DNA synthesis and the next phase (M); and (4) the M phase, which includes nuclear and
cytoplasmic division.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 37
7. What organic compound facilitates transportation across cell membranes by acting as
receptors, transport channels for electrolytes, and enzymes to drive active pumps?
a. Lipids c. Proteins
b. Proteases d. Carbohydrates
ANS: C
PATHOPHYSIOLOGY 8TH EDITION MCCANCE TEST
Proteins act as (1) recognition and binding units (receptors) for substances moving in and
out of the cell; (2) pores or transport channels for various electrically charged particles
called ions or electrolytes and specific carriers for amino acids and monosaccharides; and
(3) specific enzymes that drive active pumps that promote the concentration of certain
ions, particularly potassium (K ), within the cell while keeping concentrations of other
ions, for example, sodium (Na
), below the concentrations found in the extracellular
environment. The other options do not correctly describe this process.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 13 | Page 15
8. Understanding the various steps of proteolytic cascades, such as caspase-mediated
apoptosis and complement cascades, may be useful in designing drug therapy for which
human diseases?
a. Cardiac and vascular disorders
b. Autoimmune and malignant disorders
c. Gastrointestinal and renal disorders
d. Endocrine and gastrointestinal disorders
ANS: B
Understanding the various steps involved in this process is crucial for designing drug
interventions. Dysregulation of proteases features prominently in many human diseases,
including cancer, autoimmunity, and neurodegenerative disorders. The other options do
not correctly describe this process.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 1 | Test bank for Goulds Pathophysiology For The Health Professions 6th Edition
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Chapter 01: Introduction to Pathophysiology
Test Bank
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which of the following would be the most likely cause of an iatrogenic disease?
a. An inherited disorder
b. A combination of specific etiological factors
c. An unwanted effect of a prescribed drug
d. Prolonged exposure to toxic chemicals in the environment
ANS: C REF: 6
2. The manifestations of a disease are best defined as the:
a. subjective feelings of discomfort during a chronic illness.
b. signs and symptoms of a disease.
c. factors that precipitate an acute episode of a chronic illness.
d. early indicators of the prodromal stage of infection.
ANS: B REF: 6
3. The best definition of the term prognosis is the:
a. precipitating factors causing an acute episode.
b. number of remissions to be expected during the course of a chronic illness.
c. predicted outcome or likelihood of recovery from a specific disease.
d. exacerbations occurring during chronic illness.
ANS: C REF: 7
4. Which of the following is considered a systemic sign of disease?
a. Swelling of the knee
b. Fever
c. Pain in the neck
d. Red rash on the face
ANS: B REF: 6
5. Etiology is defined as the study of the:
a. causes of a disease.
b. course of a disease.
c. expected complications of a disease.
d. manifestations of a disease.
ANS: A REF: 5
6. A type of cellular adaptation in which there is a decrease in cell size is referred to as:
a. hypertrophy.
b. metaplasia.
c. anaplasia.
d. atrophy.
ANS: D REF: 8
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7. A change in a tissue marked by cells that vary in size and shape and show increased mitotic
figures would be called:
a. metaplasia.
b. atrophy.
c. dysplasia.
d. hypertrophy.
ANS: C REF: 8
8. A deficit of oxygen in the cells usually due to respiratory or circulatory problems is called:
a. apoptosis.
b. ischemia.
c. hypertrophy.
d. necrosis.
ANS: B REF: 9
9. When a group of cells in the body dies, the change is called:
a. ischemia.
b. gangrene.
c. hypoxia.
d. necrosis.
ANS: D REF: 10
10. Rigorous weight lifting/body building regimens may result in the skeletal muscle cells
undergoing:
a. hypertrophy.
b. dysplasia.
c. atrophy.
d. regeneration.
ANS: A REF: 8
11. The term cancer refers to:
a. dysplasia.
b. hyperplasia.
c. metaplasia.
d. malignant neoplasm.
ANS: D REF: 9
12. To which of the following does the term apoptosis refer?
a. Increased rate of mitosis by certain cells
b. Ischemic damage to cells
c. Liquefaction of necrotic tissue
d. Preprogrammed cell self-destruction
ANS: D REF: 9
13. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
a. Alteration of DNA does not change cell function.
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b. Damaged cells may be able to repair themselves.
c. All types of cells die at the same rate.
d. Mild ischemia causes immediate cell death.
ANS: B REF: 10
14. Caseation necrosis refers to an area where:
a. cell proteins have been denatured.
b. cell are liquefied by enzymes.
c. dead cells form a thick cheesy substance.
d. bacterial invasion has occurred.
ANS: C REF: 10
15. Routine application of sun block to skin would be an example of:
a. an iatrogenic cause of cancer.
b. a preventive measure.
c. a precipitating factor.
d. a predisposing condition.
ANS: B REF: 6
16. A circumstance that causes a sudden acute episode of a chronic disease to occur is termed:
a. latent stage.
b. predisposing factor.
c. incidence.
d. precipitating factor.
ANS: D REF: 7
17. The term homeostasis refers to:
a. the causative factors in a particular disease.
b. maintenance of a stable internal environment.
c. a condition that triggers an acute episode.
d. a collection of signs and symptoms.
ANS: B REF: 2
18. Which term is used to describe a new and secondary or additional problem that arises after the
original disease has been established?
a. Symptoms
b. Occurrence
c. Manifestations
d. Complication
ANS: D REF: 7
19. Pathophysiology involves the study of:
a. the structure of the human body.
b. the functions of various organs in the body.
c. functional or structural changes resulting from disease processes.
d. various cell structures and related functions.
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ANS: C REF: 2
20. Which of the following is the best definition of epidemiology?
a. The science of tracking the occurrence and distribution of diseases
b. The relative number of deaths resulting from a particular disease
c. Identification of a specific disease through evaluation of signs and symptoms
d. The global search for emerging diseases
ANS: A REF: 7
21. Which of the following can cause cell injury or death?
1. Hypoxia
2. Exposure to excessive cold
3. Excessive pressure on a tissue
4. Chemical toxins
a. 1, 2
b. 2, 4
c. 1, 3, 4
d. 1, 2, 3, 4
ANS: D REF: 9
22. All of the following are part of the Seven Steps to Health EXCEPT:
a. follow cancer screening guidelines.
b. use sun block agents whenever exposed.
c. participate in strenuous exercise on a regular daily basis.
d. choose high fiber, lower fat foods.
ANS: C REF: 2
23. The term disease refers to:
a. the period of recovery and return to a normal healthy state.
b. a deviation from the normal state of health and function.
c. the treatment measures used to promote recovery.
d. a basic collection of signs and symptoms.
ANS: B REF: 2
24. A collection of signs and symptoms, often affecting more than one organ or system, that
usually occur together in response to a certain condition is referred to as a (an):
a. acute disease.
b. multiorgan disorder.
c. syndrome.
d. manifestation.
ANS: C REF: 7
25. All of the following statements are correct about cell damage EXCEPT:
a. The initial stage of cell damage often causes an alteration in metabolic reactions.
b. If the factor causing the damage is removed quickly, the cell may be able to
recover and return to its normal state.
c. If the noxious factor remains for an extended period of time, the damage becomes
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irreversible and the cell dies.
d. Initially, cell damage does not change cell metabolism, structure, or function.
ANS: D REF: 9
26. Which of the following conditions distinguishes double blind studies used in health research?
a. Neither the members of the control group or the experimental group nor the person
administering the treatment knows who is receiving the experimental therapy.
b. Both groups of research subjects and the person administering the treatment know
who is receiving the experimental therapy.
c. The research subjects do not know, but the person administering the treatment
knows who is receiving placebo or standard therapy.
d. Only members of the control group know they are receiving standard therapy.
ANS: A REF: 3 | 4
27. If the data collected from the research process confirm that the new treatment has increased
effectiveness and is safe, this is called:
a. the placebo effect.
b. evidence-based research.
c. blind research studies.
d. approval for immediate distribution.
ANS: B REF: 4
28. A short-term illness that develops very quickly with perhaps a high fever or severe pain is
called:
a. acute.
b. latent.
c. chronic.
d. manifestation.
ANS: A REF: 6
29. The term prognosis refers to the:
a. period of recovery and return to a normal state.
b. expected outcome of the disease.
c. mortality and morbidity rates for a given population.
d. typical collection of signs and symptoms.
ANS: B REF: 7
30. When prolonged ischemia occurs to an area of the heart, the resulting damage is referred to as:
a. atrophy.
b. liquefactive necrosis.
c. apoptosis.
d. infarction.
ANS: D REF: 10
31. During the evaluation process for a new therapy’s effectiveness and safety, a double blind
study may be conducted during:
a. the first stage.
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b. the second stage.
c. the third stage.
d. any of these stages.
ANS: C REF: 3
32. Why are the predisposing factors for a specific disease important to health professionals?
a. To predict the prognosis
b. To determine treatments
c. To develop preventive measures
d. To develop morbidity statistics
ANS: C REF: 3
33. Cell damage may be caused by exogenous sources such as:
a. abnormal metabolic processes.
b. certain food additives.
c. genetic defects.
d. localized hypoxia.
ANS: B REF: 9 | 10
34. Which of the following is usually included in a medical history?
1. Past illnesses or surgeries
2. Current illnesses, acute and chronic
3. Prescribed medication or other treatments
4. Nonprescription drugs and herbal remedies
5. Current allergies
a. 1, 3
b. 2, 4, 5
c. 1, 3, 4
d. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
ANS: D REF: 4 | 5
35. A situation when there is a higher than expected number of cases of an infectious disease
within a given area is called a/an:
a. epidemic.
b. exacerbation.
c. morbidity.
d. pandemic.
ANS: A REF: 7
36. The term pathogenesis refers to:
a. the development of a disease or sequence of events related to tissue changes
involved in the disease process.
b. the determination of the cause(s) involved in the development of a malignant
neoplasm.
c. the specific signs and symptoms involved in the change from an acute disease to a
chronic disease.
d. the changes in cells of affected tissue that result in necrosis.
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ANS: A REF: 6
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GOULDS PATHOPHYSIOLOGY FOR THE HEALTH PROFESSIONS 6TH EDITION HUBERT TEST BAN | Test Bank for Pathophysiology 6th Edition Banasik
Chapter 01: Introduction to Pathophysiology
Banasik: Pathophysiology, 6th Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. C.Q. was recently exposed to group A hemolytic Streptococcus and subsequently developed a pharyngeal infection. His clinic examination reveals an oral temperature of 102.3F, skin rash, dysphagia, and reddened throat mucosa with multiple pustules. He complains of sore throat, malaise, and joint stiffness. A throat culture is positive for Streptococcus, and antibiotics have been prescribed. The etiology of C.Q.’s disease is
a. a sore throat.
b. streptococcal infection.
c. genetic susceptibility.
d. pharyngitis.
ANS: B
Etiology refers to the proposed cause or causes of a particular disease process. A sore throat is the manifestation of the disease process. Genetic susceptibility refers to inherited tendency to develop a disease. Pharyngitis refers to inflammation of the throat and is also a
clinical manifestation of the disease process.
2. A 17-year-old college-bound student receives a vaccine against an organism that causes
meningitis. This is an example of
a. primary prevention.
b. secondary prevention.
c. tertiary prevention.
d. disease treatment.
ANS: A
Primary prevention is prevention of disease by altering susceptibility or reducing exposure
for susceptible individuals by providing vaccination. Secondary prevention is the early
detection, screening, and management of the disease. Tertiary prevention includes
rehabilitative and supportive care and attempts to alleviate disability and restore effective
functioning. Disease treatment involves management of the disease once it has developed.
3. An obese but otherwise healthy teen is given a prescription for a low-calorie diet and
exercise program. This is an example of
a. primary prevention.
b. secondary prevention.
c. tertiary prevention.
d. disease treatment.
ANS: B
Secondary prevention is the early detection, screening, and management of the disease such
as prescribing diet and exercise for an individual who has already developed obesity.
Primary prevention is prevention of disease by altering susceptibility or reducing exposure
for susceptible individuals. Tertiary prevention includes rehabilitative and supportive care
and attempts to alleviate disability and restore effective functioning. Disease treatment
involves management of the disease once it has developed.
Pathophysiology 6th Edition Banasik Test BankNU
4. A patient with high blood pressure who is otherwise healthy is counseled to restrict sodium
intake. This is an example of
a. primary prevention.
b. secondary prevention.
c. tertiary prevention.
d. disease treatment.
ANS: B
Secondary prevention is the early detection, screening, and management of the disease, such
as by prescribing sodium restriction for high blood pressure. Primary prevention is
prevention of disease by altering susceptibility or reducing exposure for susceptible
individuals. Tertiary prevention includes rehabilitative and supportive care and attempts to
alleviate disability and restore effective functioning. Disease treatment involves
management of the disease once it has developed.
5. After suffering a heart attack, a middle-aged man is counseled to take a cholesterol-lowering
medication. This is an example of
a. primary prevention.
b. secondary prevention.
c. tertiary prevention.
d. disease treatment.
ANS: C
Tertiary prevention includes rehabilitative and supportive care and attempts to alleviate
disability and restore effective functioning such as prescribing a cholesterol-lowering
medication following a heart attack. Primary prevention is prevention of disease by altering
susceptibility or reducing exposure for susceptible individuals. Secondary prevention is the
early detection, screening, and management of the disease. Disease treatment involves
management of the disease once it has developed.
6. A patient has been exposed to meningococcal meningitis, but is not yet demonstrating signs
of this disease. This stage of illness is called the _____ stage.
a. prodromal
b. latent
c. sequela
d. convalescence
ANS: B
Incubation refers to the interval between exposure of a tissue to an injurious agent and the
first appearance of signs and symptoms. In infectious diseases, this period is often called the
incubation (latent) period. Prodromal refers to the appearance of the first signs and
symptoms indicating the onset of a disease. These are often nonspecific, such as headache,
malaise, anorexia, and nausea, which are associated with a number of different diseases.
Sequela refers to subsequent pathologic condition resulting from a disease. Convalescence is
the stage of recovery after a disease, injury, or surgical operation.
7. A disease that is native to a particular region is called
a. epidemic.
b. endemic.
Pathophysiology 6th Edition Banasik Test BankNU
c. pandemic.
d. ethnographic.
ANS: B
A disease that is native to a particular region is called endemic. An epidemic is a disease
that spreads to many individuals at the same time. Pandemics are epidemics that affect large
geographic regions, perhaps spreading worldwide.
8. In general, with aging, organ size and function
a. increase.
b. decrease.
c. remain the same.
d. are unknown.
ANS: B
In general, with aging, organ size and function decrease.
9. The stage during which the patient functions normally, although the disease processes are
well established, is referred to as
a. latent.
b. subclinical.
c. prodromal.
d. convalescence.
ANS: B
The stage during which the patient functions normally, although the disease processes are
well established, is called the subclinical stage. The interval between exposure of a tissue to
an injurious agent and the first appearance of signs and symptoms may be called a latent
period or, in the case of infectious diseases, an incubation period. The prodromal period, or
prodrome, refers to the appearance of the first signs and symptoms indicating the onset of a
disease. Convalescence is the stage of recovery after a disease, injury, or surgical operation.
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
1. Your patient’s red blood cell is slightly elevated today. This might be explained by (Select
all that apply.)
a. gender difference.
b. situational factors.
c. normal variation.
d. cultural variation.
e. illness.
ANS: A, B, C, E
Gender, situations (e.g., altitude), normal variations, and illness may all determine red blood
cell count. Culture affects how manifestations are perceived (normal versus abnormal).
2. Socioeconomic factors influence disease development because of (Select all that apply.)
a. genetics.
b. environmental toxins.
c. overcrowding.
NURSINGTB.COM
Pathophysiology 6th Edition Banasik Test BankNU
d. nutrition.
e. hygiene.
ANS: B, C, D, E
Socioeconomic factors influence disease development via exposure to environmental toxins
(occupational) and overcrowding, nutrition (over- or undernutrition), and hygiene (e.g., in
developing countries). Genetics is not influenced by socioeconomic factors.
TRUE/FALSE
1. When the cause is unknown, a condition is said to be idiopathic
ANS: T
Many diseases are idiopathic in nature.
2. The nurse is swabbing a patient’s throat to test for streptococcal pharyngitis. The nurse must
understand that tests such as this differ in the probability that they will be positive for a
condition when applied to a person with the condition; this probability is termed sensitivity.
ANS: T
The sensitivity of any test refers to the probability that the test will be positive when applied
to a person with the condition and will not provide a false negative result. In contrast,
specificity is the probability that a test will be negative when applied to a person who does
not have a given condition. | Test Bank for Understanding Pathophysiology 6th edition
Chapter 01: Cellular Biology
Huether & McCance: Understanding Pathophysiology, 6th Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. A student is observing a cell under a microscope. It is observed to have supercoiled DNA
with histones. Which of the following would also be observed by the student?
a. A single circular chromosome
b. A nucleus
c. Free-floating nuclear material
d. No organelles
ANS: B
The cell described is a eukaryotic cell, so it has histones and a supercoiled DNA within its nucleus; thus, the nucleus should be observed. A single circular chromosome called a
prokaryote contains free-floating nuclear material but has no organelles.
REF: p. 2
2. A nurse is instructing the staff about cellular functions. Which cellular function is the nurse
describing when an isolated cell absorbs oxygen and uses it to transform nutrients to energy?
a. Metabolic absorption
b. Communication
c. Secretion
d. Respiration
ANS: D
The cell’s ability to absorb oxygen is referred to as respiration while its communication ability
involves maintenance of a steady dynamic state, metabolic absorption provides nutrition, and
secretion allows for the synthesizing of new substances.
REF: p. 2
3. A eukaryotic cell is undergoing DNA replication. In which region of the cell would most of
the genetic information be contained?
a. Mitochondria
b. Ribosome
c. Nucleolus
d. Nucleus Cytoplasm
ANS: C
The region of the cell that contains genetic material, including a large amount of ribonucleic
acid, most of the DNA, and DNA-binding proteins, is the nucleolus, which is located within
the cell’s nucleus. Mitochondria is associated with cellular respiration, while ribosomes are
involved with protein manufacturing. Cytoplasm is a fluid filling that is a component of the
cell.
REF: p. 2
Understanding Pathophysiology 6th Edition Huether Test BankNU
4. Which of the following can remove proteins attached to the cell’s bilayer by dissolving the
layer itself?
a. Peripheral membrane proteins
b. Integral membrane proteins
c. Glycoproteins
d. Cell adhesion molecules
ANS: B
Proteins directly attached to the membrane bilayer can be removed by the action of integral
membrane proteins that dissolve the bilayer. Peripheral membrane proteins reside at the
surface while cell adhesion molecules are on the outside of the membrane. Glycoprotein
marks cells and does not float.
REF: p. 7
5. Which of the following can bind to plasma membrane receptors?
a. Oxygen
b. Ribosomes
c. Amphipathic lipids
d. Ligands
ANS: D
Ligands are the only specific molecules that can bind with receptors on the cell membrane.
REF: p. 9
6. A nurse is reviewing a report from a patient with metastatic cancer. What alternation in the
extracellular matrix would support the diagnosis of metastatic cancer?
a. Decreased fibronectin
b. Increased collagen
c. Decreased elastin
d. Increased glycoproteins
ANS: A
Only a reduced amount of fibronectin is found in some types of cancerous cells, allowing
them to travel or metastasize.
REF: p. 10
7. Which form of cell communication is used to relate to other cells in direct physical contact?
a. Cell junction
b. Gap junction
c. Desmosome
d. Tight junction
ANS: A
Cell junctions hold cells together and permit molecules to pass from cell to cell.
Gap junctions allow for cellular communication between cells. Neither desmosomes nor tight junctions are associated with cellular communication.
REF: p. 11
Understanding Pathophysiology 6th Edition Huether Test BankNU
8. Pancreatic beta cells secrete insulin, which inhibits secretion of glucagon from neighboring
alpha cells. This action is an example of which of the following signaling types?
a. Paracrine
b. Autocrine
c. Neurohormonal
d. Hormonal
ANS: A
Paracrine signaling involves the release of local chemical mediators that are quickly taken up,
destroyed, or immobilized, as in the case of insulin and the inhibition of the secretion of
glucagon. None of the other options involve signaling that is associated with a local chemical
mediator like insulin.
REF: p. 12
9. In cellular metabolism, each enzyme has a high affinity for a:
a. solute.
b. substrate.
c. receptor.
d. ribosome.
ANS: B
Each enzyme has a high affinity for a substrate, a specific substance converted to a product of
the reaction. Cellular metabolism is not dependent on an attraction between an enzyme and
any of the remaining options.
REF: p. 16
10. An athlete runs a marathon, after which his muscles feel fatigued and unable to contract. The
athlete asks the nurse why this happened. The nurse’s response is based on the knowledge that
the problem is result of a deficiency of:
a. GTP
b. AMP
c. ATP
d. GMP
ANS: C
When ATP is deficient, impaired muscle contraction results. None of the other options are
involved in muscle contraction.
REF: p. 16
11. Which phase of catabolism produces the most ATP?
a. Digestion
b. Glycolysis
c. Oxidation
d. Citric acid cycle
ANS: D
While some ATP is produced during the oxidation and glycolysis phases, most of the ATP is generated during the citric acid cycle. Digestion does not produce any ATP.
Understanding Pathophysiology 6th Edition Huether Test BankNU
REF: p. 16
12. A nurse is teaching the staff about the phases of cellular catabolism. Which phases should the
nurse include?
a. Digestion, glycolysis, oxidation, and the citric acid cycle
b. Diffusion, osmosis, and mediated transport
c. S phase, G phase, and M phase
d. Metabolic absorption, respiration, and excretion
ANS: A
Only digestion, glycolysis, oxidation, and the citric acid cycle are the phases of cellular
catabolism.
REF: p. 16
13. A runner has depleted all the oxygen available for muscle energy. Which of the following will
facilitate his continued muscle performance?
a. Electron-transport chain
b. Aerobic glycolysis
c. Anaerobic glycolysis
d. Oxidative phosphorylation
ANS: C
When no oxygen is available, anaerobic glycolysis occurs. The electron-transport chain is part
of the citric acid cycle. Aerobic glycolysis involves the presence of oxygen. Oxidative
phosphorylation is the mechanism by which the energy produced from carbohydrates, fats,
and proteins is transferred to ATP. It is not part of muscle performance.
REF: p. 16
14. A faculty member asks a student to identify the appropriate term for the movement of a solute
from an area of greater to lesser concentration. Which answer indicates the nursing student
understood the teaching?
a. Osmosis
b. Diffusion
c. Hydrostatic pressure
d. Active transport
ANS: B
Diffusion is the movement of a solute molecule from an area of greater solute concentration to
an area of lesser solute concentration through a permeable membrane. Osmosis is the movement of water across a semipermeable membrane from a region of higher water concentration to one of lower concentration. Hydrostatic pressure is the force of fluid against
a cell membrane. Inactive transport, molecules move up a concentration gradient.
REF: p. 19
15. Which description accurately describes electrolytes?
a. Small lipid-soluble molecules
b. Large protein molecules
c. Micronutrients used to produce ATP
Understanding Pathophysiology 6th Edition Huether Test BankNU
d. Electrically charged molecules
ANS: D
Electrolytes are electrically charged molecules. They are not lipid-soluble, they are not made
up of protein, and they do not play a role in ATP production.
REF: p. 18 |
