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Test Bank for Patient Centered Pharmacology by Tindall

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Test Bank for Patient-Centered Pharmacology Learning System for the Conscientious Prescriber 1st Edition by Tindall

Chapter 1. Conscientious and Rational Prescribing in the 21st Century

Multiple Choice

Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____       1.   Which statement regarding herbals, vitamins, minerals, and food supplements is true?

A. Herbals, vitamins, minerals, and food supplements are not regulated by the U.S. Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FDCA).
B. Manufacturers must prove the safety of their herbals, vitamins, minerals, and food supplements.
C. Manufacturers must prove that their herbals, vitamins, minerals, and food supplements are free from adulteration.
D. Manufacturers must prove the legitimacy of any claims they make about their herbals, vitamins, minerals, and food supplements.

____       2.   Which amendment to the FDCA established the two classes of drugs: legend or prescription only and over the counter?

A. Durham-Humphrey Amendment (Prescription Drug Amendment)
B. New Drug Application Amendment
C. Health Education and Welfare Amendment
D. Kefauer Harris Amendment

____       3.   The package insert (PI) attached to a prescription drug contains all of the following information except:

A. U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-approved drug information.
B. Highly detailed adverse effects and dosage information for the prescriber.
C. Information in layman’s terms for the patient.
D. Pharmacodynamic and pharmacokinetic drug information.

____       4.   Which of the following best defines the term adulteration of drugs?

A. Adding contaminants or anything not stated on a drug label
B. Claiming a drug is a cure for a certain condition, such as cancer
C. Advertising a drug for a poorly defined condition, such as miasma
D. Claiming a drug is safe when its safety has not been established in preclinical trials

____       5.   The majority of “off-label” or unapproved usages for drugs are prescribed for which patient groups?

A. Pediatric patients and patients on chemotherapy
B. Patients with neurologic diseases
C. Obese patients
D. Pregnant patients

____   6.   The major goals of the Controlled Substances Act (CSA) include all of the following except:

A. Improving the manufacturing, distribution, prescribing, and dispensing of controlled substances by legitimate persons in the health-care sector.
B. Providing research into issues of drug addiction and rehabilitation.
C. Stopping the widespread diversion of controlled substances into illicit or “street” channels.
D. Establishing laws and criminal sentences for the possession and sale of illicit controlled substances.

____       7.   Which statement is true regarding the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) categories of scheduled drugs?

A. Schedule I drugs have a high potential for abuse and no accepted medical use in the United States.
B. Schedule I drugs have a low potential for abuse and no accepted medical use in the United States.
C. Schedule II drugs have a low potential for abuse.
D. Schedule V drugs have a high potential for abuse.

____       8.   Which statement regarding extemporaneous compounding is false?

A. Extemporaneous compounding is the pharmacist’s art of preparing a drug product for a specific patient using a physician’s prescription, a drug formula, or a recipe.
B. Calculated amounts of ingredients are measured out and made into a uniform mixture.
C. Extemporaneous compounding is the pharmacist’s art of preparing a drug product for a patient using his own drug formula rather than a physician’s prescription.
D. Pediatric dosages are commonly compounded when only adult dosages are available.

____       9.   Clinical pharmacology is best defined as:

A. The study of the optimum use of medication in patients.
B. The study of the human body’s reaction to a drug over a specified time.
C. The biologic actions of a drug at its site of action.
D. The study of the effects of genetic variations on pharmacologic processes.

____     10.   Which statement regarding over-the-counter (OTC) drugs is true?

A. OTC drugs are rarely associated with toxicity or overdose.
B. No OTC drugs are also available in a higher dosage form by prescription.
C. OTC drugs are generally more expensive than prescription drugs.
D. OTC drugs contain directions and information on the label and packaging to allow consumers to self-medicate.

____     11.   In the early 1960s, the serious birth defects caused by thalidomide prompted which of the following amendments to the FDCA?

A. Kefauver Harris Drug Efficacy Amendment
B. Dietary Supplement and Health Act
C. Orphan Drug Status Act
D. Controlled Substances Act

____     12.   Which medication is an example of a schedule I (C-I) drug?

A. oxycodone
B. mescaline
C. fentanyl
D. diazepam

____     13.   Which statement regarding schedule II (C-II) controlled substance drugs is true?

A. Heroin is an example of a schedule II drug.
B. Prescribers can write orders that include up to five refills of schedule II prescription drugs.
C. Cough syrup with codeine is an example of a schedule II drug.
D. Emergency verbal orders for a schedule II drug must be confirmed with a written prescription within 72 hours.

____     14.   According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, the number of preventable medical errors per year is approximately:

A. 100,000.
B. 25,000.
C. 1 million.
D. 500,000.

____     15.   Adverse drug events:

A. Occur once a day in every hospital in the United States.
B. Do not increase health care-related costs.
C. Are less common among Medicare patients.
D. Are not common among residents in a long-term care facility.

____     16.   In 1994, the World Health Organization (WHO) released recommendations for rational prescribing that included all of the following recommendations except:

A. Use only brand (trade) name drugs.
B. Ensure medication choices are safe and effective for the defined problem.
C. Monitor the results of treatment.
D. Stop the use of a drug when the treatment period is complete.

____     17.   Which statement is true regarding medication errors?

A. Telephone communication of drug orders decreases the frequency of medication errors.
B. Mail order medications are less likely to cause issues with medication errors.
C. Lack of patient history information is a common source of medication errors.
D. Patient education regarding medications should be left to the pharmacist to avoid medication errors.

____     18.   Which statement is true regarding medication errors?

A. They are most commonly the result of a single event.
B. They are most commonly the result of multiple events.
C. They are usually caused by a single careless person.
D. A faulty system will not contribute to medication errors.

 

 

____     19.   The “Signa,” or signatura, component of a written prescription includes:

A. Patient data, such as age, name, and gender.
B. Prescriber data, such as name, practice location and phone number, and professional degree.
C. Instructions the prescriber has given to the patient, which will appear on medication label.
D. Brand or generic name and strength of medication.

____     20.   Which of the following examples could be the inscription component on a prescription?

A. John Smith, RPA-C, License number
B. Dispense # 20
C. Cefuroxime 500 mg
D. Take one tablet PO twice daily for 10 days

____     21.   Which of the following examples could be the subscription component on a prescription?

A. Dispense # 100 ml
B. John Smith, RPA-C, License number
C. Patient name and address
D. Take 5 ml PO twice daily for 10 days

____     22.   A prescriber wants a patient to receive the Dilantin brand and does not wish to substitute with the generic, phenytoin. Which of the following statements is false regarding generic and brand substitution?

A. The Drug Substitution Law allows a pharmacist to substitute a generic bioequivalent drug for one stated on a prescription.
B. A prescriber can write “DAW,” meaning “dispense as written,” to ensure that a patient receives the brand name drug.
C. The FDA regulates and reports on bioequivalence testing for generic drugs.
D. All brand drugs can be switched to generic without biologically significant fluctuations.

____     23.   Which abbreviation indicates that a patient should take their medication at bedtime?

A. HS
B. BID
C. AC
D. PRN

____     24.   A patient is instructed to apply one drop to each eye. Which abbreviation for these instructions is accurate?

A. One gtt ou
B. One gr ad
C. One gtt au
D. One gtt od

____     25.   Which abbreviation indicates that a medication should be taken by mouth twice daily?

A. po BID
B. po ac
C. po qd
D. po TIW

____     26.   Which abbreviation indicates that three drops should be placed in both ears?

A. Three gtt as
B. Three gtt ad
C. Three gtt au
D. Three gtt od

 

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DescriptionBy: Tindall Edition: th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadEdition: 9th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadBy: Hitner Edition: 7th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadBy: Adams Edition: 6th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadBy: Willihnganz Edition: 18th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadEdition: 9th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant Download
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Test Bank for Patient-Centered Pharmacology Learning System for the Conscientious Prescriber 1st Edition by Tindall

Chapter 1. Conscientious and Rational Prescribing in the 21st Century
Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____       1.   Which statement regarding herbals, vitamins, minerals, and food supplements is true?
A. Herbals, vitamins, minerals, and food supplements are not regulated by the U.S. Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FDCA).
B. Manufacturers must prove the safety of their herbals, vitamins, minerals, and food supplements.
C. Manufacturers must prove that their herbals, vitamins, minerals, and food supplements are free from adulteration.
D. Manufacturers must prove the legitimacy of any claims they make about their herbals, vitamins, minerals, and food supplements.
____       2.   Which amendment to the FDCA established the two classes of drugs: legend or prescription only and over the counter?
A. Durham-Humphrey Amendment (Prescription Drug Amendment)
B. New Drug Application Amendment
C. Health Education and Welfare Amendment
D. Kefauer Harris Amendment
____       3.   The package insert (PI) attached to a prescription drug contains all of the following information except:
A. U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-approved drug information.
B. Highly detailed adverse effects and dosage information for the prescriber.
C. Information in layman’s terms for the patient.
D. Pharmacodynamic and pharmacokinetic drug information.
____       4.   Which of the following best defines the term adulteration of drugs?
A. Adding contaminants or anything not stated on a drug label
B. Claiming a drug is a cure for a certain condition, such as cancer
C. Advertising a drug for a poorly defined condition, such as miasma
D. Claiming a drug is safe when its safety has not been established in preclinical trials
____       5.   The majority of “off-label” or unapproved usages for drugs are prescribed for which patient groups?
A. Pediatric patients and patients on chemotherapy
B. Patients with neurologic diseases
C. Obese patients
D. Pregnant patients
____   6.   The major goals of the Controlled Substances Act (CSA) include all of the following except:
A. Improving the manufacturing, distribution, prescribing, and dispensing of controlled substances by legitimate persons in the health-care sector.
B. Providing research into issues of drug addiction and rehabilitation.
C. Stopping the widespread diversion of controlled substances into illicit or “street” channels.
D. Establishing laws and criminal sentences for the possession and sale of illicit controlled substances.
____       7.   Which statement is true regarding the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) categories of scheduled drugs?
A. Schedule I drugs have a high potential for abuse and no accepted medical use in the United States.
B. Schedule I drugs have a low potential for abuse and no accepted medical use in the United States.
C. Schedule II drugs have a low potential for abuse.
D. Schedule V drugs have a high potential for abuse.
____       8.   Which statement regarding extemporaneous compounding is false?
A. Extemporaneous compounding is the pharmacist’s art of preparing a drug product for a specific patient using a physician’s prescription, a drug formula, or a recipe.
B. Calculated amounts of ingredients are measured out and made into a uniform mixture.
C. Extemporaneous compounding is the pharmacist’s art of preparing a drug product for a patient using his own drug formula rather than a physician’s prescription.
D. Pediatric dosages are commonly compounded when only adult dosages are available.
____       9.   Clinical pharmacology is best defined as:
A. The study of the optimum use of medication in patients.
B. The study of the human body’s reaction to a drug over a specified time.
C. The biologic actions of a drug at its site of action.
D. The study of the effects of genetic variations on pharmacologic processes.
____     10.   Which statement regarding over-the-counter (OTC) drugs is true?
A. OTC drugs are rarely associated with toxicity or overdose.
B. No OTC drugs are also available in a higher dosage form by prescription.
C. OTC drugs are generally more expensive than prescription drugs.
D. OTC drugs contain directions and information on the label and packaging to allow consumers to self-medicate.
____     11.   In the early 1960s, the serious birth defects caused by thalidomide prompted which of the following amendments to the FDCA?
A. Kefauver Harris Drug Efficacy Amendment
B. Dietary Supplement and Health Act
C. Orphan Drug Status Act
D. Controlled Substances Act
____     12.   Which medication is an example of a schedule I (C-I) drug?
A. oxycodone
B. mescaline
C. fentanyl
D. diazepam
____     13.   Which statement regarding schedule II (C-II) controlled substance drugs is true?
A. Heroin is an example of a schedule II drug.
B. Prescribers can write orders that include up to five refills of schedule II prescription drugs.
C. Cough syrup with codeine is an example of a schedule II drug.
D. Emergency verbal orders for a schedule II drug must be confirmed with a written prescription within 72 hours.
____     14.   According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, the number of preventable medical errors per year is approximately:
A. 100,000.
B. 25,000.
C. 1 million.
D. 500,000.
____     15.   Adverse drug events:
A. Occur once a day in every hospital in the United States.
B. Do not increase health care-related costs.
C. Are less common among Medicare patients.
D. Are not common among residents in a long-term care facility.
____     16.   In 1994, the World Health Organization (WHO) released recommendations for rational prescribing that included all of the following recommendations except:
A. Use only brand (trade) name drugs.
B. Ensure medication choices are safe and effective for the defined problem.
C. Monitor the results of treatment.
D. Stop the use of a drug when the treatment period is complete.
____     17.   Which statement is true regarding medication errors?
A. Telephone communication of drug orders decreases the frequency of medication errors.
B. Mail order medications are less likely to cause issues with medication errors.
C. Lack of patient history information is a common source of medication errors.
D. Patient education regarding medications should be left to the pharmacist to avoid medication errors.
____     18.   Which statement is true regarding medication errors?
A. They are most commonly the result of a single event.
B. They are most commonly the result of multiple events.
C. They are usually caused by a single careless person.
D. A faulty system will not contribute to medication errors.
    ____     19.   The “Signa,” or signatura, component of a written prescription includes:
A. Patient data, such as age, name, and gender.
B. Prescriber data, such as name, practice location and phone number, and professional degree.
C. Instructions the prescriber has given to the patient, which will appear on medication label.
D. Brand or generic name and strength of medication.
____     20.   Which of the following examples could be the inscription component on a prescription?
A. John Smith, RPA-C, License number
B. Dispense # 20
C. Cefuroxime 500 mg
D. Take one tablet PO twice daily for 10 days
____     21.   Which of the following examples could be the subscription component on a prescription?
A. Dispense # 100 ml
B. John Smith, RPA-C, License number
C. Patient name and address
D. Take 5 ml PO twice daily for 10 days
____     22.   A prescriber wants a patient to receive the Dilantin brand and does not wish to substitute with the generic, phenytoin. Which of the following statements is false regarding generic and brand substitution?
A. The Drug Substitution Law allows a pharmacist to substitute a generic bioequivalent drug for one stated on a prescription.
B. A prescriber can write “DAW,” meaning “dispense as written,” to ensure that a patient receives the brand name drug.
C. The FDA regulates and reports on bioequivalence testing for generic drugs.
D. All brand drugs can be switched to generic without biologically significant fluctuations.
____     23.   Which abbreviation indicates that a patient should take their medication at bedtime?
A. HS
B. BID
C. AC
D. PRN
____     24.   A patient is instructed to apply one drop to each eye. Which abbreviation for these instructions is accurate?
A. One gtt ou
B. One gr ad
C. One gtt au
D. One gtt od
____     25.   Which abbreviation indicates that a medication should be taken by mouth twice daily?
A. po BID
B. po ac
C. po qd
D. po TIW
____     26.   Which abbreviation indicates that three drops should be placed in both ears?
A. Three gtt as
B. Three gtt ad
C. Three gtt au
D. Three gtt od
 

Test Bank for Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 9th Edition

Contents Chapter 01: The Nursing Process and Drug Therapy................................................................................. 4 Chapter 02: Pharmacologic Principles...................................................................................................... 8 Chapter 03: Lifespan Considerations...................................................................................................... 14 Chapter 04: Cultural, Legal, and Ethical Considerations.......................................................................... 20 Chapter 05: Medication Errors: Preventing and Responding .................................................................. 26 Chapter 06: Patient Education and Drug Therapy................................................................................... 29 Chapter 07: Over-the-Counter Drugs and Herbal and Dietary Supplements ........................................... 34 Chapter 08: Gene Therapy and Pharmacogenomics............................................................................... 38 Chapter 09: Photo Atlas of Drug Administration .................................................................................... 41 Chapter 10: Analgesic Drugs.................................................................................................................. 50 Chapter 11: General and Local Anesthetics............................................................................................ 57 Chapter 12: Central Nervous System Depressants and Muscle Relaxants............................................... 61 Chapter 13: Central Nervous System Stimulants and Related Drugs....................................................... 66 Chapter 14: Antiepileptic Drugs............................................................................................................. 70 Chapter 15: Antiparkinson Drugs.............................................................................................................76 Chapter 16: Psychotherapeutic Drugs.................................................................................................... 81 Chapter 17: Substance Use Disorder...................................................................................................... 88 Chapter 18: Adrenergic Drugs................................................................................................................ 93 Chapter 19: Adrenergic-Blocking Drugs.................................................................................................. 98 Chapter 20: Cholinergic Drugs ............................................................................................................. 103 Chapter 21: Cholinergic-Blocking Drugs............................................................................................... 108 Chapter 22: Antihypertensive Drugs.................................................................................................... 113 Chapter 23: Antianginal Drugs............................................................................................................. 119 Chapter 24: Heart Failure Drugs........................................................................................................... 125 Chapter 25: Antidysrhythmic Drugs..................................................................................................... 131 Chapter 26: Coagulation Modifier Drugs.............................................................................................. 137 Chapter 27: Antilipemic Drugs............................................................................................................. 143 Chapter 28: Diuretic Drugs................................................................................................................... 148 Chapter 29: Fluids and Electrolytes...................................................................................................... 154 Chapter 30: Pituitary Drugs.................................................................................................................. 160 Chapter 31: Thyroid and Antithyroid Drugs.......................................................................................... 163 Chapter 32: Antidiabetic Drugs............................................................................................................ 168 Chapter 33: Adrenal Drugs................................................................................................................... 177 Chapter 34: Women’s Health Drugs..................................................................................................... 181 Chapter 35: Men’s Health Drugs.......................................................................................................... 188 Chapter 36: Antihistamines, Decongestants, Antitussives, and Expectorants ....................................... 193 Chapter 37: Respiratory Drugs............................................................................................................. 198 Chapter 38: Antibiotics Part 1.............................................................................................................. 204 Chapter 39: Antibiotics Part 2.............................................................................................................. 211 Chapter 40: Antiviral Drugs.................................................................................................................. 216 Chapter 41: Antitubercular Drugs ........................................................................................................ 221 Chapter 42: Antifungal Drugs............................................................................................................... 226 Chapter 43: Antimalarial, Antiprotozoal, and Anthelmintic Drugs ........................................................ 231 Chapter 44: Anti-inflammatory and Antigout Drugs............................................................................. 236 Chapter 45: Antineoplastic Drugs Part 1: Cancer Overview and Cell Cycle–Specific Drugs..................... 242 Chapter 46: Antineoplastic Drugs Part 2: Cell Cycle–Nonspecific Drugs and Miscellaneous Drugs......... 248 Chapter 47: Biologic Response–Modifying and Antirheumatic Drugs ................................................... 253 Chapter 48: Immunosuppressant Drugs............................................................................................... 258 Chapter 49: Immunizing Drugs............................................................................................................. 263 Chapter 50: Acid-Controlling Drugs...................................................................................................... 268 Chapter 51: Bowel Disorder Drugs....................................................................................................... 274 Chapter 52: Antiemetic and Antinausea Drugs..................................................................................... 281 Chapter 53: Vitamins and Minerals...................................................................................................... 286 Chapter 54: Anemia Drugs................................................................................................................... 292 Chapter 55: Nutritional Supplements................................................................................................... 299 Chapter 56: Dermatologic Drugs.......................................................................................................... 304 Chapter 57: Ophthalmic Drugs............................................................................................................. 310 Chapter 58: Otic Drugs ............................

Test Bank for Pharmacology 7th Edition by Hitner

Chapter 01 Multiple Choice Questions
  1. Pharmacokinetics is the area of pharmacology that deals with the study of: A. the processes of drug absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion. B.  the action of drugs on living tissue. C.  the use of drugs in treating disease. D.  the harmful effects of drugs on living tissue.
Pharmacokinetics is the area of pharmacology that deals with the study of the processes of drug absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion. ABHES: 6.a. Identify drug classification, usual dose, side effects, and contraindications of the top most commonly used medications Blooms: Remember CAAHEP: I.C.11.a. Identify the classifications of medications including indications for use Difficulty: 1 Easy Learning Outcome: 01.01
  1. Which of the following is an example of a drug derived from a plant? A. Insulin B.  Digitalis C.  Cephalosporin D.  Estradiol
Examples of drugs derived from plants that are still widely used today include the analgesics morphine and codeine, which were obtained from the poppy plant (Papver somniferum); the heart drug digitalis, which was obtained from the purple foxglove (Digitalis purpurea); and the antimalarial drug quinine, which was obtained from the bark of the cinchona tree. ABHES: 6.a. Identify drug classification, usual dose, side effects, and contraindications of the top most commonly used medications Blooms: Remember CAAHEP: I.C.11.a. Identify the classifications of medications including indications for use Difficulty: 1 Easy Learning Outcome: 01.01
  1. Today, new drugs are mainly derived from: A. chemical synthesis. B.  animals. C.  plants. D.  enzymatic synthesis.
Despite the many examples of drugs obtained from plants and living organisms, the main source of new drugs today is from chemical synthesis. ABHES: 6.a. Identify drug classification, usual dose, side effects, and contraindications of the top most commonly used medications Blooms: Remember CAAHEP: I.C.11.a. Identify the classifications of medications including indications for use Difficulty: 1 Easy Learning Outcome: 01.01
  1. Which of the following statements is true of toxicity? A. Toxic effects refer to those effects triggered by drugs that are undesirable but not harmful. B.  The toxic effects of a drug can be life-threatening. C.  The toxic effects of a drug can be controlled by increasing the dosage of the drug. D.  Patients are often advised to tolerate the toxicity of a drug in order to benefit from the drug's therapeutic actions.
Toxic effects, or toxicity, implies drug poisoning, the consequences of which can be extremely harmful and may be life-threatening. ABHES: 6.d. Properly utilize Physician’s Desk Reference (PDR), drug handbook and other drug references to identify a drug’s classification, usual dosage, usual side effects, and contraindications. Blooms: Understand CAAHEP: I.C.11.a. Identify the classifications of medications including indications for use Difficulty: 2 Medium Learning Outcome: 01.02 
  1. Which of the following statements is true of a drug? A. The effects produced by a drug are always desirable. B.  The properties of a drug do not influence the effects it produces. C.  A drug does not produce more than one effect. D.  A pure drug is a chemical compound with a specific chemical structure.
Every pure drug is a chemical compound with a specific chemical structure

Test Bank for Pharmacology for Nurses 6th Edition by Adams

 ISBN-10: 0135218330, ISBN-13: 9780135218334

Pharmacology for Nurses, 6e (Adams) Chapter 1   Introduction to Pharmacology  
  • A nurse is reviewing key events in the history of pharmacology with a student nurse. Which student comment indicates an understanding?
  1. "Early researchers used themselves as test subjects."
  2. "A primary goal of pharmacology is to prevent disease."
  3. "Penicillin is one of the initial drugs isolated from a natural source."
  4. "Pharmacologists began synthesizing drugs in the laboratory in the nineteenth century."
Answer:  1 Explanation:
  1. Some early researchers, like Friedrich Serturner, used themselves as test subjects.
  2. An early goal of pharmacology was to relieve human suffering.
  3. Initial drugs isolated from complex mixtures included morphine, colchicine, curare, and cocaine, but not penicillin.
  4. By the twentieth century, pharmacologists could synthesize drugs in the laboratory.
Page Ref: 3 Cognitive Level:  Applying Client Need/Sub:  Physiological Integrity: Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies Standards:  QSEN Competencies: I.A.1 Integrate understanding of multiple dimensions of patient-centered care: patient/family/community preferences, values; coordination and integration of care; information, communication, and education; physical comfort and emotional support; involvement of family and friends; and transition and continuity. | AACN Essential Competencies: I.7 Integrate the knowledge and methods of a variety of disciplines to inform decision making. | NLN Competencies: Knowledge and Science: Integration of knowledge from nursing and other disciplines. | Nursing/Integrated Concepts: Nursing Process: Evaluation Learning Outcome:  1-1 Identify key events in the history of pharmacology. MNL Learning Outcome:  1.1 Examine the relationship between medicine and pharmacology.    
  • A student nurse asks a nursing instructor why anatomy and physiology as well as microbiology are required courses when the student only wants to learn about pharmacology. What is the best response by the instructor?
    1. "Because pharmacology is an outgrowth of those subjects."
    2. "You must learn all, since all of those subjects are part of the curriculum."
    3. "Knowledge of all those subjects will prepare you to administer medication."
    4. "An understanding of those subjects is essential to understand pharmacology."
Answer:  4 Explanation:
  1. Pharmacology is an outgrowth of anatomy, physiology, and microbiology, but this is not the most essential reason for the nurse to learn them.
  2. The nurse must learn anatomy, physiology, and microbiology to understand pharmacology, not because they are part of the curriculum.
  3. Knowledge of anatomy, physiology, and microbiology prepares the nurse to understand pharmacology, not to provide care such as administration of medications.
  4. It is essential for the nurse to have a broad knowledge base of many sciences in order to learn pharmacology.
Page Ref: 3 Cognitive Level:  Applying Client Need/Sub:  Physiological Integrity: Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies Standards:  QSEN Competencies: I.A.1 Integrate understanding of multiple dimensions of patient-centered care: patient/family/community preferences, values; coordination and integration of care; information, communication, and education; physical comfort and emotional support; involvement of family and friends; and transition and continuity. | AACN Essential Competencies: I.7 Integrate the knowledge and methods of a variety of disciplines to inform decision making. | NLN Competencies: Knowledge and Science: Integration of knowledge from nursing and other disciplines. | Nursing/Integrated Concepts: Nursing Process: Implementation Learning Outcome:  1-2 Explain the interdisciplinary nature of pharmacology, giving an example of how knowledge from different sciences impacts the nurse's role in drug administration. MNL Learning Outcome:  1.1 Examine the relationship between medicine and pharmacology.  

Test Bank for Claytons Basic Pharmacology for Nurses 18th Edition by Willihnganz

Chapter 01: Drug Definitions, Standards, and Information Sources Willihnganz: Clayton’s Basic Pharmacology for Nurses, 18th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.What is the name under which a drug is listed by the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA)?
a. Brand
b. Nonproprietary
c. Official
d. Trademark
ANS:  C The official name is the name under which a drug is listed by the FDA. The brand name, or trademark, is the name given to a drug by its manufacturer. The nonproprietary, or generic, name is provided by the United States Adopted Names Council DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   p. 2                OBJ:   1 NAT:  NCLEX Client Needs Category: Safe, Effective Care Environment TOP:   Nursing Process Step: Assessment  CON:  Patient Education  
  1. Which source contains information specific to nutritional supplements?
a. USP Dictionary of USAN & International Drug Names
b. Natural Medicines Comprehensive Database
c. United States Pharmacopoeia/National Formulary (USP NF)
d. Drug Interaction Facts
ANS:  C United States Pharmacopoeia/National Formulary contains information specific to nutritional supplements. USP Dictionary of USAN & International Drug Names is a compilation of drug names, pronunciation guide, and possible future FDA approved drugs; it does not include nutritional supplements. Natural Medicines Comprehensive Database contains evidence-based information on herbal medicines and herbal combination products; it does not include information specific to nutritional supplements. Drug Interaction Facts contains comprehensive information on drug interaction facts; it does not include nutritional supplements. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   p. 2 | p. 3        OBJ:   3 NAT:  NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity TOP:   Nursing Process Step: Assessment  CON:  Nutrition | Patient Education 3.What is the most comprehensive reference available to research a drug interaction?
a. Drug Facts and Comparisons
b. Drug Interaction Facts
c. Handbook on Injectable Drugs
d. Martindale—The Complete Drug Reference
ANS:  B First published in 1983, Drug Interaction Facts is the most comprehensive book available on drug interactions. In addition to monographs listing various aspects of drug interactions, this information is reviewed and updated by an internationally renowned group of physicians and pharmacists with clinical and scientific expertise. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   p. 4                OBJ:   3 NAT:  NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity TOP:   Nursing Process Step: Assessment  CON:  Safety | Patient Education | Clinical Judgment 4.The physician has written an order for a drug with which the nurse is unfamiliar. Which section of the Physicians’ Desk Reference (PDR) is most helpful to get information about this drug?
a. Manufacturer’s section
b. Brand and Generic name section
c. Product category section
d. Product information section
ANS:  B A physician’s order would include the brand and/or generic name of the drug. The alphabetic index in the PDR would make this section the most user-friendly. Based on a physician’s order, manufacturer’s information and classification information would not be known. The Manufacturer’s section is a roster of manufacturers. The product category section lists products subdivided by therapeutic classes, such as analgesics, laxatives, oxytocics, and antibiotics. The product information section contains reprints of the package inserts for the major products of manufacturers. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   p. 4                OBJ:   3 NAT:  NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity TOP:   Nursing Process Step: Planning       CON:  Safety | Patient Education | Clinical Judgment 5.Which online drug reference makes available to healthcare providers and the public a standard, comprehensive, up-to-date look up and downloadable resource about medicines?
a. American Drug Index
b. American Hospital Formulary
c. DailyMed
d. Physicians’ Desk Reference (PDR)
ANS:  C DailyMed makes available to healthcare providers and the public a standard, comprehensive, up-to-date look up and downloadable resource about medicines. The American Drug Index is not appropriate for patient use. The American Hospital Formulary is not appropriate for patient use. The PDR is not appropriate for patient use. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   p. 3 | p. 5        OBJ:   4 NAT:  NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity TOP:   Nursing Process Step: Implementation CON:  Safety | Patient Education | Clinical Judgment 6.Which legislation authorizes the FDA to determine the safety of a drug before its marketing?
a. Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (1938)
b. Durham Humphrey Amendment (1952)
c. Controlled Substances Act (1970)
d. Kefauver Harris Drug Amendment (1962)
ANS:  A The Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938 authorized the FDA to determine the safety of all drugs before marketing. Later amendments and acts helped tighten FDA control and ensure drug safety. The Durham Humphrey Amendment defines the kinds of drugs that cannot be used safely without medical supervision and restricts their sale to prescription by a licensed practitioner. The Controlled Substances Act addresses only controlled substances and their categorization. The Kefauver Harris Drug Amendment ensures drug efficacy and greater drug safety. Drug manufacturers are required to prove to the FDA the effectiveness of their products before marketing them. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   p. 5                OBJ:   6 NAT:  NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity TOP:   Nursing Process Step: Assessment CON:  Safety | Patient Education | Evidence | Health Care Law 7.Meperidine (Demerol) is a narcotic with a high potential for physical and psychological dependency. Under which classification does this drug fall?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
ANS:  B Meperidine (Demerol) is a Schedule II drug; it has a high potential for abuse and may lead to severe psychological and physical dependence. Schedule I drugs have high potential for abuse and no recognized medical use. Schedule III drugs have some potential for abuse. Use may lead to low to moderate physical dependence or high psychological dependence. Schedule IV drugs have low potential for abuse. Use may lead to limited physical or psychological dependence. DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   p. 5                OBJ:   2 NAT:  NCLEX Client Needs Category: Safe, Effective Care Environment TOP:   Nursing Process Step: Assessment  CON:  Patient Education | Addiction | Pain 8:What would the FDA do to expedite drug development and approval for an outbreak of smallpox, for which there is no known treatment?
a. List smallpox as a health orphan disease.
b. Omit the preclinical research phase.
c. Extend the clinical research phase.
d. Fast track the investigational drug.
    ANS:  D

Test bank for Pharmacology 9th Edition Linda McCuistion

  Table of Contents UNIT ONE: Introduction to Pharmacology 1. Drug Development and Ethical Considerations 2. Pharmacokinetics, Pharmacodynamics, and Pharmacogenetics 3. Cultural Considerations 4. Complementary and Alternative Therapies 5. Pediatric Considerations 6. Geriatric Considerations 7. Drugs in Substance Use Disorder UNIT TWO: Pharmacotherapy and Drug Administration 8. The Nursing Process and Patient-Centered Care 9. Safety and Quality 10. Drug Administration 11. Drug Calculations UNIT THREE: Maintenance of Homeostasis 12. Fluid Volume and Electrolytes 13. Vitamin and Mineral Replacement 14. Nutritional Support UNIT FOUR: Autonomic Nervous System Drugs 15. Adrenergic Agonists and Antagonists 16. Cholinergic Agonists and Antagonists UNIT FIVE: Central and Peripheral Nervous System Drugs 17. Stimulants 18. Depressants 19. Antiseizure Drugs 20. Drugs for Parkinsonism and Alzheimer’s Disease 21. Drugs for Neuromuscular Disorders and Muscle Spasms UNIT SIX: Mental and Behavioral Health Drugs 22. Antipsychotics and Anxiolytics 23. Antidepressants and Mood Stabilizers UNIT SEVEN: Pain and Inflammation Management Drugs 24. Antiinflammatories 25. Analgesics UNIT EIGHT: Antimicrobial Drugs 26. Antibacterials 27. Antituberculars, Antifungals, and Antivirals 28. Peptides, Antimalarials, and Anthelmintics UNIT NINE: Immunologic Drugs 29. HIV- and AIDS-Related Drugs 30. Transplant Drugs 31. Vaccines UNIT TEN: Antineoplastics and Biologic Response Modifiers 32. Anticancer Drugs 33. Targeted Therapies to Treat Cancer 34. Biologic Response Modifiers UNIT ELEVEN: Respiratory Drugs 35. Upper Respiratory Disorders 36. Lower Respiratory Disorders UNIT TWELVE: Cardiovascular Drugs 37. Cardiac Glycosides, Antianginals, and Antidysrhythmics 38. Diuretics 39. Antihypertensives 40. Anticoagulants, Antiplatelets, and Thrombolytics 41. Antihyperlipidemics and Peripheral Vasodilators UNIT THIRTEEN: Gastrointestinal Drugs 42. Gastrointestinal Tract Disorders 43. Antiulcer Drugs UNIT FOURTEEN: Eye, Ear, and Skin Drugs 44. Eye and Ear Disorders 45. Dermatologic Disorders UNIT FIFTEEN: Endocrine Drugs 46. Pituitary, Thyroid, Parathyroid, and Adrenal Disorders 47. Antidiabetics UNIT SIXTEEN: Renal and Urologic Drugs 48. Urinary Disorders UNIT SEVENTEEN: Reproductive and Gender-Related Drugs 49. Pregnancy and Preterm Labor 50. Labor, Delivery, and Postpartum 51. Neonatal and Newborn 52. Women’s Reproductive Health 53. Men’s Reproductive Health 54. Sexually Transmitted Infections UNIT EIGHTEEN: Emergency Drugs 55. Adult and Pediatric Emergency Drugs
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