Content |
Table of Contents
Unit I: Foundations of Professional Nursing Practice
1. Beginning the Journey – Link to FREE CHAPTER
2. Socialization to Professional Nursing
3. Historical Foundations of Professional Nursing
4. Ethical Foundations of Professional Nursing
5. Legal Foundations of Professional Nursing
6. Knowledge Development in Nursing
Unit II: Professional Nursing Roles
7. The Nurse as Health Promoter and Care Provider
8. The Nurse as Learner and Teacher
9. The Nurse as Leader and Manager
10. The Nurse’s Role in Evidence-based Health Care
11. The Nurse’s Role in Quality and Safety
12. The Nurse’s Role as Political Advocate
13. The Nurse as Colleague and Collaborator
Unit III: Processes Guiding Professional Practice
14. Communicating
15. Managing Change
16. Technology and Informatics
Unit IV: Professional Nursing in a Changing Health Care Environment
17. Nursing in an Evolving Health Care Delivery System
18. Providing Care in the Home and Community
19. Global Health
20. Dimensions of Holistic Health Care
21. Nursing in a Culturally Diverse World
22. Nursing in a Spiritually Diverse World
23. Nursing in a Culture of Violence
Unit V: Into the Future
24. Advanced Nursing Education and Practice
25. The Future of Nursing |
Chapter 01: Drug Definitions, Standards, and Information Sources
Willihnganz: Clayton’s Basic Pharmacology for Nurses, 18th Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1.What is the name under which a drug is listed by the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA)?
a. |
Brand |
b. |
Nonproprietary |
c. |
Official |
d. |
Trademark |
ANS: C
The official name is the name under which a drug is listed by the FDA. The brand name, or trademark, is the name given to a drug by its manufacturer. The nonproprietary, or generic, name is provided by the United States Adopted Names Council
DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 2 OBJ: 1
NAT: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Safe, Effective Care Environment
TOP: Nursing Process Step: Assessment CON: Patient Education
- Which source contains information specific to nutritional supplements?
a. |
USP Dictionary of USAN & International Drug Names |
b. |
Natural Medicines Comprehensive Database |
c. |
United States Pharmacopoeia/National Formulary (USP NF) |
d. |
Drug Interaction Facts |
ANS: C
United States Pharmacopoeia/National Formulary contains information specific to nutritional supplements. USP Dictionary of USAN & International Drug Names is a compilation of drug names, pronunciation guide, and possible future FDA approved drugs; it does not include nutritional supplements. Natural Medicines Comprehensive Database contains evidence-based information on herbal medicines and herbal combination products; it does not include information specific to nutritional supplements. Drug Interaction Facts contains comprehensive information on drug interaction facts; it does not include nutritional supplements.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 2 | p. 3 OBJ: 3
NAT: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity
TOP: Nursing Process Step: Assessment CON: Nutrition | Patient Education
3.What is the most comprehensive reference available to research a drug interaction?
a. |
Drug Facts and Comparisons |
b. |
Drug Interaction Facts |
c. |
Handbook on Injectable Drugs |
d. |
Martindale—The Complete Drug Reference |
ANS: B
First published in 1983, Drug Interaction Facts is the most comprehensive book available on drug interactions. In addition to monographs listing various aspects of drug interactions, this information is reviewed and updated by an internationally renowned group of physicians and pharmacists with clinical and scientific expertise.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 4 OBJ: 3
NAT: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity
TOP: Nursing Process Step: Assessment CON: Safety | Patient Education | Clinical Judgment
4.The physician has written an order for a drug with which the nurse is unfamiliar. Which section of the Physicians’ Desk Reference (PDR) is most helpful to get information about this drug?
a. |
Manufacturer’s section |
b. |
Brand and Generic name section |
c. |
Product category section |
d. |
Product information section |
ANS: B
A physician’s order would include the brand and/or generic name of the drug. The alphabetic index in the PDR would make this section the most user-friendly. Based on a physician’s order, manufacturer’s information and classification information would not be known. The Manufacturer’s section is a roster of manufacturers. The product category section lists products subdivided by therapeutic classes, such as analgesics, laxatives, oxytocics, and antibiotics. The product information section contains reprints of the package inserts for the major products of manufacturers.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 4 OBJ: 3
NAT: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity
TOP: Nursing Process Step: Planning CON: Safety | Patient Education | Clinical Judgment
5.Which online drug reference makes available to healthcare providers and the public a standard, comprehensive, up-to-date look up and downloadable resource about medicines?
a. |
American Drug Index |
b. |
American Hospital Formulary |
c. |
DailyMed |
d. |
Physicians’ Desk Reference (PDR) |
ANS: C
DailyMed makes available to healthcare providers and the public a standard, comprehensive, up-to-date look up and downloadable resource about medicines. The American Drug Index is not appropriate for patient use. The American Hospital Formulary is not appropriate for patient use. The PDR is not appropriate for patient use.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 3 | p. 5 OBJ: 4
NAT: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity
TOP: Nursing Process Step: Implementation
CON: Safety | Patient Education | Clinical Judgment
6.Which legislation authorizes the FDA to determine the safety of a drug before its marketing?
a. |
Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (1938) |
b. |
Durham Humphrey Amendment (1952) |
c. |
Controlled Substances Act (1970) |
d. |
Kefauver Harris Drug Amendment (1962) |
ANS: A
The Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938 authorized the FDA to determine the safety of all drugs before marketing. Later amendments and acts helped tighten FDA control and ensure drug safety. The Durham Humphrey Amendment defines the kinds of drugs that cannot be used safely without medical supervision and restricts their sale to prescription by a licensed practitioner. The Controlled Substances Act addresses only controlled substances and their categorization. The Kefauver Harris Drug Amendment ensures drug efficacy and greater drug safety. Drug manufacturers are required to prove to the FDA the effectiveness of their products before marketing them.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 5 OBJ: 6
NAT: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity
TOP: Nursing Process Step: Assessment
CON: Safety | Patient Education | Evidence | Health Care Law
7.Meperidine (Demerol) is a narcotic with a high potential for physical and psychological dependency. Under which classification does this drug fall?
ANS: B
Meperidine (Demerol) is a Schedule II drug; it has a high potential for abuse and may lead to severe psychological and physical dependence. Schedule I drugs have high potential for abuse and no recognized medical use. Schedule III drugs have some potential for abuse. Use may lead to low to moderate physical dependence or high psychological dependence. Schedule IV drugs have low potential for abuse. Use may lead to limited physical or psychological dependence.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 5 OBJ: 2
NAT: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Safe, Effective Care Environment
TOP: Nursing Process Step: Assessment CON: Patient Education | Addiction | Pain
8:What would the FDA do to expedite drug development and approval for an outbreak of smallpox, for which there is no known treatment?
a. |
List smallpox as a health orphan disease. |
b. |
Omit the preclinical research phase. |
c. |
Extend the clinical research phase. |
d. |
Fast track the investigational drug. |
ANS: D | Test Bank for Maternal Child Nursing Care 6th Edition Perry
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Chapter 01: 21st Century Maternity Nursing
Perry: Maternal Child Nursing Care, 6th Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. When providing care for a pregnant woman, the nurse should be aware that one of the most
frequently reported maternal medical risk factors is:
a. diabetes mellitus.
b. mitral valve prolapse (MVP).
c. chronic hypertension.
d. anemia.
ANS: A
The most frequently reported maternal medical risk factors are diabetes and hypertension
associated with pregnancy. Both of these conditions are associated with maternal obesity.
There are no studies that indicate MVP is among the most frequently reported maternal risk
factors. Hypertension associated with pregnancy, not chronic hypertension, is one of the most
frequently reported maternal medical risk factors. Although anemia is a concern in pregnancy,
it is not one of the most frequently reported maternal medical risk factors in pregnancy.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge
OBJ: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiologic Integrity
2. To ensure optimal outcomes for the patient, the contemporary maternity nurse must
incorporate both teamwork and communication with clinicians into her care delivery. The
SBAR technique of communication is an easy-to-remember mechanism for communication.
Which of the following correctly defines this acronym?
a. Situation, baseline assessment, response
b. Situation, background, assessment, recommendation
c. Subjective background, assessment, recommendation
d. Situation, background, anticipated recommendation
ANS: B
The situation, background, assessment, recommendation (SBAR) technique provides a
specific framework for communication among health care providers. Failure to communicate
is one of the major reasons for errors in health care. The SBAR technique has the potential to
serve as a means to reduce errors.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension
OBJ: Nursing Process: Assessment, Planning
MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
3. The role of the professional nurse caring for childbearing families has evolved to emphasize:
a. providing care to patients directly at the bedside.
b. primarily hospital care of maternity patients.
c. practice using an evidence-based approach.
d. planning patient care to cover longer hospital stays.
ANS: C
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Professional nurses are part of the team of health care providers who collaboratively care for
patients throughout the childbearing cycle. Providing care to patients directly at the bedside is
one of the nurse’s tasks; however, it does not encompass the concept of the evolved
professional nurse. Throughout the prenatal period, nurses care for women in clinics and
physician’s offices and teach classes to help families prepare for childbirth. Nurses also care
for childbearing families in birthing centers and in the home. Nurses have been critically
important in developing strategies to improve the well-being of women and their infants and
have led the efforts to implement clinical practice guidelines using an evidence-based
approach. Maternity patients have experienced a decreased, rather than an increased, length of
stay over the past two decades.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension
OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation
MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
4. A 23-year-old African-American woman is pregnant with her first child. Based on the
statistics for infant mortality, which plan is most important for the nurse to implement?
a. Perform a nutrition assessment.
b. Refer the woman to a social worker.
c. Advise the woman to see an obstetrician, not a midwife.
d. Explain to the woman the importance of keeping her prenatal care appointments.
ANS: D
Consistent prenatal care is the best method of preventing or controlling risk factors associated
with infant mortality. Nutritional status is an important modifiable risk factor, but a nutrition
assessment is not the most important action a nurse should take in this situation. The patient
may need assistance from a social worker at some time during her pregnancy, but a referral to
a social worker is not the most important aspect the nurse should address at this time. If the
woman has identifiable high risk problems, her health care may need to be provided by a
physician. However, it cannot be assumed that all African-American women have high risk
issues. In addition, advising the woman to see an obstetrician is not the most important aspect
on which the nurse should focus at this time, and it is not appropriate for a nurse to advise or
manage the type of care a patient is to receive.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application OBJ: Nursing Process: Planning
MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
5. During a prenatal intake interview, the nurse is in the process of obtaining an initial
assessment of a 21-year-old Hispanic patient with limited English proficiency. It is important
for the nurse to:
a. use maternity jargon in order for the patient to become familiar with these terms.
b. speak quickly and efficiently to expedite the visit.
c. provide the patient with handouts.
d. assess whether the patient understands the discussion.
ANS: D
Nurses contribute to health literacy by using simple, common words; avoiding jargon; and
evaluating whether the patient understands the discussion. Speaking slowly and clearly and
focusing on what is important increase understanding. Most patient education materials are
written at too high a level for the average adult and may not be useful for a patient with
limited English proficiency.
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PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application OBJ: Nursing Process: Evaluation
MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
6. When managing health care for pregnant women at a prenatal clinic, the nurse should
recognize that the most significant barrier to access to care is the pregnant woman’s:
a. age.
b. minority status.
c. educational level.
d. inability to pay.
ANS: D
The most significant barrier to health care access is the inability to pay for services; this is
compounded by the fact that many physicians refuse to care for women who cannot pay.
Although adolescent pregnant patients statistically receive less prenatal care, age is not the
most significant barrier. Significant disparities in morbidity and mortality rates exist for
minority women; however, minority status is not the most significant barrier to access of care.
Disparities in educational level are associated with morbidity and mortality rates; however,
educational level is not the most significant barrier to access of care.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge
OBJ: Nursing Process: Assessment
MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
7. When the nurse is unsure about how to perform a patient care procedure, the best action
would be to:
a. ask another nurse.
b. discuss the procedure with the patient’s physician.
c. look up the procedure in a nursing textbook.
d. consult the agency’s procedure manual and follow the guidelines for the
procedure.
ANS: D
It is always best to follow the agency’s policies and procedures manual when seeking
information on correct patient procedures. These policies should reflect the current standards
of care and state guidelines. Each nurse is responsible for her own practice. Relying on
another nurse may not always be safe practice. Each nurse is obligated to follow the standards
of care for safe patient care delivery. Physicians are responsible for their own patient care
activity. Nurses may follow safe orders from physicians, but they are also responsible for the
activities that they as nurses are to carry out. Information provided in a nursing textbook is
basic information for general knowledge. Furthermore, the information in a textbook may not
reflect the current standard of care or individual state or hospital policies.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application
OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Client Needs: Physiologic Integrity
8. From the nurse’s perspective, what measure should be the focus of the health care system to
reduce the rate of infant mortality further?
a. Implementing programs to ensure women’s early participation in ongoing prenatal
care.
b. Increasing the length of stay in a hospital after vaginal birth from 2 to 3 days.
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c. Expanding the number of neonatal intensive care units (NICUs).
d. Mandating that all pregnant women receive care from an obstetrician.
ANS: A
Early prenatal care allows for early diagnosis and appropriate interventions to reduce the rate
of infant mortality. An increased length of stay has been shown to foster improved self-care
and parental education. However, it does not prevent the incidence of leading causes of infant
mortality rates, such as low birth weight. Early prevention and diagnosis reduce the rate of
infant mortality. NICUs offer care to high risk infants after they are born. Expanding the
number of NICUs would offer better access for high risk care, but this factor is not the
primary focus for further reduction of infant mortality rates. A mandate that all pregnant
women receive obstetric care would be nearly impossible to enforce. Furthermore, certified
nurse-midwives (CNMs) have demonstrated reliable, safe care for pregnant women.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension
OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
9. Alternative and complementary therapies:
a. replace conventional Western modalities of treatment.
b. are used by only a small number of American adults.
c. recognize the value of patients’ input into their health care.
d. focus primarily on the disease an individual is experiencing.
ANS: C
Many popular alternative healing modalities offer human-centered care based on philosophies
that recognize the value of the patient’s input and honor the individual’s beliefs, values, and
desires. Alternative and complementary therapies are part of an integrative approach to health
care. An increasing number of American adults are seeking alternative and complementary
health care options. Alternative healing modalities offer a holistic approach to health, focusing
on the whole person, not just the disease.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension OBJ: Nursing Process: Planning
MSC: Client Needs: Physiologic Integrity
10. A 38-year-old Hispanic woman delivered a 9-pound, 6-ounce girl vaginally after being in
labor for 43 hours. The baby died 3 days later from sepsis. On what grounds would the
woman potentially have a legitimate legal case for negligence?
a. She is Hispanic.
b. She delivered a girl.
c. The standards of care were not met.
d. She refused fetal monitoring.
ANS: C
Not meeting the standards of care is a legitimate factor for a case of negligence. The patient’s
race is not a factor for a case of negligence. The infant’s gender is not a factor for a case of
negligence. Although fetal monitoring is the standard of care, the patient has the right to
refuse treatment. This refusal is not a case for negligence; however, informed consent should
be properly obtained, and the patient should sign an against medical advice form for refusal of
any treatment that is within the standard of care.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension OBJ: Nursing Process: Planning
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MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
11. A newly graduated nurse is attempting to understand the reason for increasing health care
spending in the United States. Her research finds that these costs are much higher compared
with other developed countries as a result of:
a. a higher rate of obesity among pregnant women.
b. limited access to technology.
c. increased usage of health care services along with lower prices.
d. homogeneity of the population.
ANS: A
Health care is one of the fastest growing sectors of the U.S. economy. Currently, 17.5% of the
gross domestic product is spent on health care. Higher spending in the United States compared
with 12 other industrialized countries is related to higher prices and readily accessible
technology along with greater obesity rates among women. More than one third of women in
the United States are obese. Of the U.S. population, 16% is uninsured and has limited access
to health care. Maternal morbidity and mortality are directly related to racial disparities.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis OBJ: Nursing Process: Planning
MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
12. The term used to describe legal and professional responsibility for practice for maternity
nurses is:
a. collegiality.
b. ethics.
c. evaluation.
d. accountability.
ANS: D
Accountability refers to legal and professional responsibility for practice. Collegiality refers to
a working relationship with one’s colleagues. Ethics refers to a code to guide practice.
Evaluation refers to examination of the effectiveness of interventions in relation to expected
outcomes.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Understanding OBJ: Nursing Process: Evaluation
MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
13. Through the use of social media technology, nurses can link with other nurses who may share
similar interests, insights about practice, and advocate for patients. The most concerning
pitfall for nurses using this technology is:
a. violation of patient privacy and confidentiality.
b. institutions and colleagues may be cast in an unfavorable light.
c. unintended negative consequences for using social media.
d. lack of institutional policy governing online contact.
ANS: A
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The most significant pitfall for nurses using this technology is the violation of patient privacy
and confidentiality. Furthermore, institutions and colleagues can be cast in unfavorable lights
with negative consequences for those posting information. Nursing students have been
expelled from school and nurses have been fired or reprimanded by their Board of Nursing for
injudicious posts. The American Nurses Association has published six principles for social
networking and nurses. All institutions should have policies guiding the use of social media,
and nurses should be familiar with these guidelines.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis
OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation
MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
14. An important development that affects maternity nursing is integrative health care, which:
a. seeks to provide the same health care for all racial and ethnic groups.
b. blends complementary and alternative therapies with conventional Western
treatment.
c. focuses on the disease or condition rather than the background of the patient.
d. has been mandated by Congress.
ANS: B
Integrative health care tries to mix the old with the new at the discretion of the patient and
health care providers. Integrative health care is a blending of new and traditional practices.
Integrative health care focuses on the whole person, not just the disease or condition. U.S. law
supports complementary and alternative therapies but does not mandate them.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Understanding
OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
15. The nurse caring for a pregnant patient should be aware that the U.S. birth rate shows which
trend?
a. Births to unmarried women are more likely to have less favorable outcomes.
b. Birth rates for women 40 to 44 years old are beginning to decline.
c. Cigarette smoking among pregnant women continues to increase.
d. The rates of maternal death owing to racial disparity are elevated in the United
States.
ANS: A
Low-birth-weight infants and preterm birth are more likely because of the large number of
teenagers in the unmarried group. Birth rates for women in their early 40s continue to
increase. Fewer pregnant women smoke. In the United States, there is significant racial
disparity in the rates of maternal death.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension
OBJ: Nursing Process: Assessment
MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
16. Maternity nursing care that is based on knowledge gained through research and clinical
trials is:
a. derived from the Nursing Intervention Classification.
b. known as evidence-based practice.
c. at odds with the Cochrane School of traditional nursing.
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d. an outgrowth of telemedicine.
ANS: B
Evidence-based practice is based on knowledge gained from research and clinical trials. The
Nursing Intervention Classification is a method of standardizing language and categorizing
care. Dr. Cochrane systematically reviewed research trials and is part of the evidence-based
practice movement. Telemedicine uses communication technologies to support health care.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension
OBJ: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity
17. The level of practice a reasonably prudent nurse provides is called:
a. the standard of care.
b. risk management.
c. a sentinel event.
d. failure to rescue.
ANS: A
Guidelines for standards of care are published by various professional nursing organizations.
Risk management identifies risks and establishes preventive practices, but it does not define
the standard of care. Sentinel events are unexpected negative occurrences. They do not
establish the standard of care. Failure to rescue is an evaluative process for nursing, but it does
not define the standard of care.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension OBJ: Nursing Process: Diagnosis
MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
18. While obtaining a detailed history from a woman who has recently emigrated from Somalia,
the nurse realizes that the patient has undergone female genital mutilation (FGM). The nurse’s
best response to this patient is:
a. “this is a very abnormal practice and rarely seen in the United States.”
b. “do you know who performed this so that it can be reported to the authorities?”
c. “we will be able to restore your circumcision fully after delivery.”
d. “the extent of your circumcision will affect the potential for complications.”
ANS: D
“The extent of your circumcision will affect the potential for complications” is the most
appropriate response. The patient may experience pain, bleeding, scarring, or infection and
may require surgery before childbirth. With the growing number of immigrants from countries
where FGM is practiced, nurses will increasingly encounter women who have undergone the
procedure. Although this practice is not prevalent in the United States, it is very common in
many African and Middle Eastern countries for religious reasons. Responding with, “This is a
very abnormal practice and rarely seen in the United States” is culturally insensitive. The
infibulation may have occurred during infancy or childhood. The patient will have little to no
recollection of the event. She would have considered this to be a normal milestone during her
growth and development. The International Council of Nurses has spoken out against this
procedure as harmful to a woman’s health.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application OBJ: Nursing Process: Planning
MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
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19. To ensure patient safety, the practicing nurse must have knowledge of the current Joint
Commission’s “Do Not Use” list of abbreviations. Which of the following is acceptable for
use?
a. q.o.d. or Q.O.D.
b. MSO4 or MgSO4
c. International Unit
d. Lack of a leading zero
ANS: C
The abbreviations “i.u.” and “I.U.” are no longer acceptable because they could be misread as
“I.V.” or the number “10.” The abbreviation “q.o.d. or Q.O.D.” should be written out as
“every other day.” The period after the “Q” could be mistaken for an “I”; the “o” could also
be mistaken for an “i.” With MSO4 or MgSO4, it is too easy to confuse one medication for
another. These medications are used for very different purposes and could put a patient at risk
for an adverse outcome. They should be written as morphine sulfate and magnesium sulfate.
The decimal point should never be missed before a number to avoid confusion (i.e., 0.4 rather
than .4).
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application
OBJ: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity
20. Healthy People 2020 has established national health priorities that focus on a number of
maternal-child health indicators. Nurses are assuming greater roles in assessing family health
and providing care across the perinatal continuum. Therefore, it is important for the nurse to
be aware that significant progress has been made in:
a. the reduction of fetal deaths and use of prenatal care.
b. low birth weight and preterm birth.
c. elimination of health disparities based on race.
d. infant mortality and the prevention of birth defects.
ANS: A
Trends in maternal child health indicate that progress has been made in relation to reduced
infant and fetal deaths and increased prenatal care. Notable gaps remain in the rates of low
birth weight and preterm births. According to the March of Dimes, persistent disparities still
exist between African-Americans and non-Hispanic Caucasians. Many of these negative
outcomes are preventable through access to prenatal care and the use of preventive health
practices. This demonstrates the need for comprehensive community-based care for all
mothers, infants, and families.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge
OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation
MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
1. Which interventions would help alleviate the problems associated with access to health care
for maternity patients? (Select all that apply.)
a. Provide transportation to prenatal visits.
b. Provide child care so that a pregnant woman may keep prenatal visits.
c. Mandate that physicians make house calls.
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d. Provide low-cost or no-cost health care insurance.
e. Provide job training.
ANS: A, B, D
Lack of transportation to visits, lack of child care, and lack of affordable health insurance are
prohibitive factors associated with lack of prenatal care. House calls are not a cost-effective
approach to health care. Although job training may result in employment and income, the
likelihood of significant changes during the time frame of the pregnancy is remote.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Implementation OBJ: Nursing Process: Planning
MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
MATCHING
Medical errors are a leading cause of death in the United States. The National Quality Forum
has recommended numerous safe practices that nursing can promote to reduce errors. Match
each safe practice with the correct statement.
a. Ask the patient to “teach back.”
b. Comply with CDC guidelines.
c. Ensure that information is documented in a timely manner.
d. Promote interventions that will reduce patient risk.
e. Reduce exposure to radiation.
1. Hand hygiene
2. Informed consent
3. Culture measurement, feedback, and intervention
4. Pediatric imaging
5. Patient care information
1. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application
OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation
MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
NOT: The National Quality Forum updated its publication Safe Practices for Better Healthcare in
2010, outlining 24 safe practices that should be used in all health care settings to reduce the risk of
harm from the environment of care, processes, and systems. These are only a few of the recommended
practices; however, nurses should be familiar with these guidelines.
2. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application
OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation
MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
NOT: The National Quality Forum updated its publication Safe Practices for Better Healthcare in
2010, outlining 24 safe practices that should be used in all health care settings to reduce the risk of
harm from the environment of care, processes, and systems. These are only a few of the recommended
practices; however, nurses should be familiar with these guidelines.
3. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application
OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation
MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
NOT: The National Quality Forum updated its publication Safe Practices for Better Healthcare in
2010, outlining 24 safe practices that should be used in all health care settings to reduce the risk of
harm from the environment of care, processes, and systems. These are only a few of the recommended
practices; however, nurses should be familiar with these guidelines.
4. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application
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OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation
MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
NOT: The National Quality Forum updated its publication Safe Practices for Better Healthcare in
2010, outlining 24 safe practices that should be used in all health care settings to reduce the risk of
harm from the environment of care, processes, and systems. These are only a few of the recommended
practices; however, nurses should be familiar with these guidelines.
5. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application
OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation
MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
NOT: The National Quality Forum updated its publication Safe Practices for Better Healthcare in
2010, outlining 24 safe practices that should be used in all health care settings to reduce the risk of
harm from the environment of care, processes, and systems. These are only a few of the recommended
practices; however, nurses should be familiar with these guidelines.
NURSINGTB.COM
MATERNAL CHILD NURSING CARE 6TH EDITION PERRY TEST BAN
| Test Bank for Public Health Science and Nursing Practice Caring For Populations by Savage
Chapter 10: Mental Health
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
1.According to Healthy People 2020, which of the following are characteristics of mental health?
Select all that apply.
A. |
Engaging in productive activities |
B. |
Having fulfilling relationships |
C. |
Experiencing alterations in thinking |
D. |
Adapting to change |
E. |
Coping with challenges |
ANS: A, B, D, E
Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders.
pp. 225-226
Heading: Introduction
Integrated Processes: N/A
Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
Cognitive Level: Knowledge [Remembering]
Concept: Promoting Health
Difficulty: Moderate
|
Feedback |
1. |
Mental health is a state of successful performance of mental function, including engagement in productive activities. |
2. |
Mental health is a state of successful performance of mental function, including being able to form fulfilling relationships with other people. |
3. |
This is incorrect; it is an example of a mental disorder. Mental disorders are health conditions that are characterized by alterations in thinking, mood, or behavior that are associated with distress or impaired functioning. |
4. |
Mental health is a state of successful performance of mental function, including the ability to adapt to change. |
5. |
Mental health is a state of successful performance of mental function, including the ability to cope with challenges. |
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health
MULTIPLE CHOICE
2.In 2010, approximately how many people in the United States reported experiencing mental disorders in the previous year?
A. |
15% |
B. |
50% |
C. |
30% |
D. |
25% |
ANS: D
Objective: 1. Define the burden of disease related to mental disorders using current epidemiological frameworks.
pp. 226-227
Heading: Epidemiology of Mental Disorders
Integrated Processes: N/A
Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
Cognitive Level: Comprehension [Understanding]
Concept: Promoting Health
Difficulty: Moderate
|
Feedback |
A |
This is incorrect. In the United States in 2010 an estimated 25% of adults reported having mental disorders in the previous year. |
B |
This is incorrect. In the United States in 2010 an estimated 25% of adults reported having mental disorders in the previous year. |
C |
This is incorrect. In the United States in 2010 an estimated 25% of adults reported having mental disorders in the previous year. |
D |
In the United States in 2010 an estimated 25% of adults reported having mental disorders in the previous year. |
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health
3.A student nurse is studying stress and mental health. The student nurse learns that ____ is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events.
A. |
Intervention |
B. |
Support |
C. |
Resilience |
D. |
Therapy |
ANS: C
Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders.
pp. 229-231
Heading: Protective Factors: Building Resilience
Integrated Processes: Teaching/Learning
Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
Cognitive Level: Application [Applying]
Concept: Trauma; Stress; Promoting Health; Nursing Roles
Difficulty: Moderate
|
Feedback |
A |
This is incorrect. Resilience is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events. Preventive and treatment interventions are useful tools to build on an individual’s natural resilience to promote positive outcomes. |
B |
This is incorrect. Resilience is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events. Support from family, friends, and community is an important part of strengthening an individual’s resilience. |
C |
Resilience is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events. |
D |
This is incorrect. Resilience is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events. Therapy is an important part of an overall treatment plan, in conjunction with intervention, support, and an individual’s capacity for resilience. |
PTS: 1 CON: Trauma | Stress | Promoting Health | Nursing Roles
4.____ addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder.
A. |
Indicated prevention |
B. |
Selective prevention |
C. |
Universal prevention |
D. |
Both 1 and 2 |
ANS: A
Objective: 4. Apply current evidence-based population level interventions to the prevention of mental disorders and the promotion of optimal mental health for communities and populations.
pp. 232-233
Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Institute of Medicine Model of Prevention
Integrated Processes: Nursing Process
Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
Cognitive Level: Comprehension [Understanding]
Concept: Promoting Health
Difficulty: Moderate
|
Feedback |
A |
Indicated prevention addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder. The purpose of indicated techniques is to delay or reduce the severity of a mental disorder. |
B |
Selective prevention includes interventions provided to specific subgroups that are known to be at high risk for mental disorders owing to biological, psychological, social, or environmental factors but that have not yet been diagnosed with mental disorders. High-risk subgroups include but are not limited to those with a family history of mental disorders, history of adverse childhood events, or victims of violence. |
C |
Universal prevention refers to prevention interventions provided to the entire population, not just those who may be at risk. The interventions include but are not limited to public service announcements provided to the public at large through billboards, media messages (print and electronic), or general health education programs. |
D |
Indicated prevention addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder. The purpose of indicated techniques is to delay or reduce the severity of a mental disorder. Selective prevention includes interventions provided to specific subgroups that are known to be at high risk for mental disorders owing to biological, psychological, social, or environmental factors but that have not yet been diagnosed with mental disorders. High-risk subgroups include but are not limited to those with a family history of mental disorders, history of adverse childhood events, or victims of violence. |
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health
5.The public health nurse (PHN) recognizes that which of the following are used as screening tools for depression?
A. |
Patient Health Questionnaire 2 |
B. |
Center for Epidemiological Studies Depression Scale (CESD-10) |
C. |
Brief Symptom Checklist-18 of the My Mood Monitor (M-3) |
D. |
Both 1 and 2 |
ANS: D
Objective: 5. Describe systems approaches to the promotion of mental health and the prevention and treatment of mental health disorders.
p. 232
Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Measure of Mental Health: Health-Related Quality of Life
Integrated Processes: Nursing Process
Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
Cognitive Level: Application [Applying]
Concept: Promoting Health; Mood; Assessment
Difficulty: Moderate
|
Feedback |
A |
Tools to screen for depression include the Patient Health Questionnaire 2 and the CESD-10. |
B |
Tools to screen for depression include the Patient Health Questionnaire 2 and the CESD-10. |
C |
This is incorrect. Tools to screen for depression include the Patient Health Questionnaire 2 and the CESD-10. Screening tools for anxiety disorders include the Brief Symptom Checklist-18 of the My Mood Monitor (M-3). |
D |
Tools to screen for depression include the Patient Health Questionnaire 2 and the CESD-10. |
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health | Mood | Assessment
6.During a course on mental disorders, a PHN learns that the term serious mental illness (SMI) refers to diagnosable mental disorders that may disrupt a person’s ability to function and may qualify that person for support services. The PHN also notes that the mental disorders that can lead to SMI include:
A. |
Mild depression |
B. |
Panic disorder |
C. |
Schizophrenia |
D. |
Both 2 and 3 |
ANS: D
Objective: 1. Define the burden of disease related to mental disorders using current epidemiological frameworks.
pp. 225-226
Heading: Introduction
Integrated Processes: Teaching/Learning
Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
Cognitive Level: Application [Applying]
Concept: Cognition; Mood; Stress; Promoting Health; Nursing Roles
Difficulty: Moderate
|
Feedback |
A |
This is incorrect. Major depression, however, is one of the mental disorders that can lead to SMI. |
B |
Both panic disorder and schizophrenia, among other mental disorders, can lead to SMI. |
C |
Both schizophrenia and panic disorder, among other mental disorders, can lead to SMI. |
D |
The mental disorders that can lead to SMI include major depression, panic disorder, schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD), post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), and borderline personality disorder. |
PTS: 1 CON: Cognition | Mood | Stress | Promoting Health | Nursing Roles
7.While studying the prevalence of mental health disorders worldwide, a PHN learns about the World Mental Health Survey, which is used to determine estimates of human capital costs and prevalence of mental disorders in a wide range of countries. The survey was developed by
A. |
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) |
B. |
The World Health Organization (WHO) |
C. |
The Institute of Medicine (IOM) |
D. |
The World Health Assembly |
ANS: B
Objective: 1. Define the burden of disease related to mental disorders using current epidemiological frameworks.
p. 227
Heading: Epidemiology of Mental Disorders > Surveillance of Mental Health Disorders
Integrated Processes: Teaching/Learning
Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
Cognitive Level: Application [Applying]
Concept: Promoting Health; Nursing Roles
Difficulty: Moderate
|
Feedback |
A |
This is incorrect. WHO developed the World Mental Health Survey to estimate human capital costs and mental disorders prevalence on a global scale. The CDC conducts many types of surveys on the prevalence of mental disorders but the organization did not develop the World Mental Health Survey. |
B |
The WHO developed the World Mental Health Survey to estimate human capital costs and mental disorders prevalence on a global scale. |
C |
This is incorrect. WHO developed the World Mental Health Survey to estimate human capital costs and mental disorders prevalence on a global scale. The IOM is involved in screening for mental health disorders and addresses the need for appropriate behavioral health treatment in its report, Improving the Quality of Health Care for Mental and Substance-Use Conditions: Quality Chasm Series. |
D |
This is incorrect. WHO developed the World Mental Health Survey to estimate human capital costs and mental disorders prevalence on a global scale. The World Health Assembly issued a resolution on mental health that aims to reduce the global burden of mental disorders and improve overall mental health worldwide. |
PTS: 1 CON: Promoting Health | Nursing Roles
8.Which ethnic group has the highest 12-month prevalence of a mental disorder?
A. |
Hispanics |
B. |
African Americans |
C. |
Asian Americans |
D. |
Non-Hispanic whites |
ANS: D
Objective: 1. Define the burden of disease related to mental disorders using current epidemiological frameworks.
pp. 227-228
Heading: Epidemiology of Mental Disorders > Prevalence of Mental Health Disorders
Integrated Processes: N/A
Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
Cognitive Level: Knowledge [Remembering]
Concept: Promoting Health
Difficulty: Moderate
|
Feedback |
A |
This is incorrect. Non-Hispanic whites have the highest 12-month prevalence rate for mental disorders at 21% compared with 16% for Hispanics. |
B |
This is incorrect. Non-Hispanic whites have the highest 12-month prevalence rate for mental disorders at 21% compared with 15% for African Americans. |
C |
This is incorrect. Non-Hispanic whites have the highest 12-month prevalence rate for mental disorders at 21% compared with 9% for Asian Americans. |
D |
Non-Hispanic whites have the highest 12-month prevalence rate for mental disorders at 21%. |
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health
9.A PHN learns in a behavioral health class that the relationship between physiology and mental health plays an important role in mental disorders. Which of the following physiological factors may contribute to the development of mental disorders?
A. |
Conditions that affect brain chemistry, such as medication side effects or toxins |
B. |
Physical trauma |
C. |
1 and 2 |
D. |
Unstable family life |
ANS: C
Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders.
pp. 228-229
Heading: Behavioral, Biological, Environmental, and Socioeconomic Risk Factors > Individual Level Risk Factors for Mental Disorders
Integrated Processes: Teaching/Learning
Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
Cognitive Level: Application [Application]
Concept: Cognition; Trauma; Promoting Health
Difficulty: Moderate
|
Feedback |
A |
Both conditions that affect brain chemistry and physical trauma are the physiological factors that may contribute to the development of mental disorders. |
B |
Both physical trauma and conditions that affect brain chemistry are physiological factors that may contribute to the development of mental disorders. |
C |
Conditions that affect brain chemistry and physical trauma are two of the physiological factors that may contribute to the development of mental disorders. |
D |
This is incorrect. Conditions that affect brain chemistry and physical trauma are two of the physiological factors that may contribute to the development of mental disorders. An unstable family life is not a physiological factor, although it may also contribute to the development of mental disorders. |
PTS:1CON:Cognition | Trauma | Promoting Health
10.Which of the following community environment factors play a role in the development of mental disorders?
A. |
Living in high crime areas |
B. |
Poverty |
C. |
Both 1 and 2 |
D. |
Family instability |
ANS: C
Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders.
p. 229
Heading: Behavioral, Biological, Environmental, and Socioeconomic Risk Factors > Community-Level Risk Factors for Mental Disorders
Integrated Processes: N/A
Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
Cognitive Level: Comprehension [Understanding]
Concept: Promoting Health
Difficulty: Easy
|
Feedback |
A |
Living in high crime areas is a factor, along with poverty. |
B |
Both poverty and living in high crime areas play a role in the development of mental disorders. |
C |
Both poverty and living in high crime areas play a role in the development of mental disorders. |
D |
This is incorrect. Although family instability often contributes to the development of mental disorders, it is not considered a community environment factor. |
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health
11.____ is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable.
A. |
Indicated prevention |
B. |
Stigma |
C. |
Risk factors |
D. |
Transinstitutionalization |
ANS: B
Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders.
pp. 231-232
Heading: Culture, Stigma, and Mental Health Disorders
Integrated Processes: N/A
Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
Cognitive Level: Comprehension [Understanding]
Concept: Promoting Health
Difficulty: Moderate
|
Feedback |
A |
This is incorrect. Stigma is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable. Indicated prevention addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder. |
B |
Stigma is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable. |
C |
This is incorrect. Stigma is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable. Risk factors increase an individual’s chance of developing a mental disorder. |
D |
This is incorrect. Stigma is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable. Transinstitutionalization refers to the growing number of mentally ill persons who are homeless, in jail, in shelters, or in other facilities instead of being home or in a hospital. |
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health
12.A nurse interested in working with persons with mental disorders who live in poverty understands that the most effective treatment involves multiple sectors of society, such as government agencies, grass roots groups, nonprofits, and businesses, working in tandem. This interrelationship is called:
A. |
Indicated prevention |
B. |
Intersectoral strategies |
C. |
Health-Related Quality of Life |
D. |
Institute of Medicine Model of Prevention |
ANS: B
Objective: 4. Apply current evidence-based population level interventions to the prevention of mental disorders and the promotion of optimal mental health for communities and populations.
p. 233
Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Promotion of Mental Health and Policy
Integrated Processes: Nursing Process
Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
Cognitive Level: Application [Applying]
Concept: Promoting Health; Collaboration
Difficulty: Moderate
|
Feedback |
A |
This is incorrect. Intersectoral strategies engage more than one sector of society with a shared interest such as government agencies, grass roots citizens groups, nonprofits, and businesses. Indicated prevention addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder. |
B |
Intersectoral strategies engage more than one sector of society with a shared interest such as government agencies, grass roots citizens groups, nonprofits, and businesses. |
C |
This is incorrect. Intersectoral strategies engage more than one sector of society with a shared interest such as government agencies, grass roots citizens groups, nonprofits, and businesses. Health-Related Quality of Life is the self-perceived impact of physical and emotional health on overall quality of life. |
D |
This is incorrect. Intersectoral strategies engage more than one sector of society with a shared interest such as government agencies, grass roots citizens groups, nonprofits, and businesses. The Institute of Medicine Model of Prevention is a framework for mental disorders that clearly separates prevention into three categories with specific interventions at each level. |
PTS: 1 CON: Promoting Health | Collaboration
13.A recent graduate nurse working in an urban labor and delivery unit had a patient who experienced a difficult labor. The mother, suffering from postpartum depression (PPD), committed suicide a year after giving birth. Although the nurse knew the basics about PPD, the nurse immediately studied the condition in depth and learned that PPD:
A. |
Can be triggered by a massive hormone drop following delivery |
B. |
Can intensify to cause delusions |
C. |
Occurs soon after delivery |
D. |
All of the above |
ANS: D
Objective: 4. Apply current evidence-based population level interventions to the prevention of mental disorders and the promotion of optimal mental health for communities and populations.
pp. 233-235
Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Secondary Prevention: Screening for Mental Disorders
Integrated Processes: Nursing Process
Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
Cognitive Level: Application [Applying]
Concept: Pregnancy; Mood; Violence; Promoting Health; Nursing Roles
Difficulty: Moderate
|
Feedback |
A |
PPD can be triggered by a massive post-delivery hormone drop, intensify enough to cause delusions, and occur soon after delivery. |
B |
PPD can be triggered by a massive post-delivery hormone drop, intensify enough to cause delusions, and occur soon after delivery. |
C |
PPD can be triggered by a massive post-delivery hormone drop, intensify enough to cause delusions, and occur soon after delivery. |
D |
PPD can be triggered by a massive post-delivery hormone drop, intensify enough to cause delusions, and occur soon after delivery. |
PTS: 1 CON: Pregnancy | Mood | Violence | Promoting Health | Nursing Roles
14.A nurse working in labor and delivery requested permission from the nurse manager to conduct a quality improvement project to screen patients that might be susceptible to PPD. After completing the project, which of the following screening guidelines did the unit incorporate?
A. |
All patients will be screened for PPD when they are admitted to the labor and delivery unit. |
B. |
Patients at high risk are referred to the attending obstetrician. |
C. |
Before being discharged, all new mothers will complete a questionnaire specific to PPD symptoms. |
D. |
All of the above |
ANS: D
Objective: Apply current evidence-based population level interventions to the prevention of mental disorders and the promotion of optimal mental health for communities and populations.
pp. 233-235
Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Secondary Prevention: Screening for Mental Disorders
Integrated Processes: Nursing Process
Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
Cognitive Level: Application [Applying]
Concept: Pregnancy; Mood; Promoting Health; Assessment; Quality Improvement
Difficulty: Moderate
|
Feedback |
A |
This is incorrect. Screening, high-risk referrals to the attending obstetrician and completion of a PPD symptom questionnaire were all incorporated. |
B |
This is incorrect. Screening, high-risk referrals to the attending obstetrician and completion of a PPD symptom questionnaire were all incorporated. |
C |
This is incorrect. Screening, high-risk referrals to the attending obstetrician and completion of a PPD symptom questionnaire were all incorporated. |
D |
Screening, high-risk referrals to the attending obstetrician and completion of a PPD symptom questionnaire were all incorporated. |
PTS:1
CON: Pregnancy | Mood | Promoting Health | Assessment | Quality Improvement
15.A PHN treats a patient who may be depressed. To verify suspicions, the PHN checks ____, the definitive clinical guide for diagnosing mental disorders and providing consistency and accuracy in the screening for mental disorders.
A. |
The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5) |
B. |
The Center for Epidemiological Studies Depression Scale (CESD-10) |
C. |
Patient Health Questionnaire 2 |
D. |
Brief System Checklist-18 of the My Mood Monitor |
ANS: A | Test Bank Focus on Nursing Pharmacology 8th Edition
Test Bank - Focus on Nursing Pharmacology (8th Edition by Karch)
Table of Contents
Chapter 01 - Introduction to Drugs
Chapter 02 - Drugs and the Body
Chapter 03 - Toxic Effects of Drugs
Chapter 04 - The Nursing Process in Drug Therapy and Patient Safety
Chapter 05 - Dosage Calculations
Chapter 06 - Challenges to Effective Drug Therapy
Chapter 07 - Introduction to Cell Physiology
Chapter 08 - Antiinfective Agents
Chapter 09 - Antibiotics
Chapter 10 - Antiviral Agents
Chapter 11 - Antifungal Agents
Chapter 12 - Antiprotozoal Agents
Chapter 13 - Anthelmintic Agents
Chapter 14 - Antineoplastic Agents
Chapter 15 - Introduction to the Immune Response and Inflammation
Chapter 16 - Antiinflammatory, Antiarthritis, and Related Agents
Chapter 17 - Immune Modulators
Chapter 18 - Vaccines and Sera
Chapter 19 - Introduction to Nerves and the Nervous System
Chapter 20 - Anxiolytic and Hypnotic Agents
Chapter 21 - Antidepressant Agents
Chapter 22 - Psychotherapeutic Agents
Chapter 23 - Antiseizure Agents
Chapter 24 - Antiparkinsonism Agents
Chapter 25 - Muscle Relaxants
Chapter 26 - Narcotics, Narcotic Antagonists, and Antimigraine Agents
Chapter 27 - General and Local Anesthetic Agents
Chapter 28 - Neuromuscular Junction Blocking Agents
Chapter 29 - Introduction to the Autonomic Nervous System
Chapter 30 - Adrenergic Agonists
Chapter 31 - Adrenergic Antagonists
Chapter 32 - Cholinergic Agonists
Chapter 33 - Anticholinergic Agents
Chapter 34 - Introduction to the Endocrine System
Chapter 35 - Hypothalamic and Pituitary Agents
Chapter 36 - Adrenocortical Agents
Chapter 37 - Thyroid and Parathyroid Agents
Chapter 38 - Agents to Control Blood Glucose Levels
Chapter 39 - Introduction to the Reproductive System
Chapter 40 - Drugs Affecting the Female Reproductive System
Chapter 41 - Drugs Affecting the Male Reproductive System
Chapter 42 - Introduction to the Cardiovascular System
Chapter 43 - Drugs Affecting Blood Pressure
Chapter 44 - Agents for Treating Heart Failure
Chapter 45 - Antiarrhythmic Agents
Chapter 46 - Antianginal Agents
Chapter 47 - Lipid-Lowering Agents
Chapter 48 - Drugs Affecting Blood Coagulation
Chapter 49 - Drugs Used to Treat Anemias
Chapter 50 - Introduction to the Renal System
Test Bank - Focus on Nursing Pharmacology (8th Edition by Karch) 2
Chapter 51 - Diuretic Agents
Chapter 52 - Drugs Affecting the Urinary Tract and the Bladder
Chapter 53 - Introduction to the Respiratory System
Chapter 54 - Drugs Acting on the Upper Respiratory Tract
Chapter 55 - Drugs Acting on the Lower Respiratory Tract
Chapter 56 - Introduction to the Gastrointestinal System
Chapter 57 - Drugs Affecting Gastrointestinal Secretions
Chapter 58 - Drugs Affecting Gastrointestinal Motility
Chapter 59 - Antiemetic Agents | Test Bank for Psychiatric Mental Health Nursing, 8th Edition Wanda Mohr
Chapter 01- Introduction to Psychiatric-Mental Health Nursing
- A nurse is giving a presentation about preventing mental illness to college freshmen. A student asks, “What does it mean to be mentally healthy?” Which of the following potential responses by the nurse is best?
A) “Mental health is difficult to define and depends on cultural norms.”
B) “Mental health is marked by productivity, fulfilling relationships, and adaptability.”
C) “Mental health is characterized by the absence of mental illness.”
D) “Mental health is the performance of behavior that is accepted as normal.”
- A 48-year-old independent, successful woman is recovering from a modified radical mastectomy. She states she was grateful that during the first few weeks after surgery her mother stayed with her and did “everything” for her. Which element of mental health does this reflect?
A) Reality orientation
B) Mastery of the environment
C) Self-governance
D) Tolerance of the unknown
- Why is the document Mental Health: A Report of the Surgeon General (1999) most significant?
A) Because it states clearly that there are effective treatments for mental illness
B) Because it allocates research money to psychiatric facilities
C) Because it sets new guidelines for use of restraints
D) Because it establishes reimbursement guidelines for third-party payers
- While a nurse is performing an admission assessment for a mental health client, the client states that all of his problems have been caused by his parents. The nurse knows that psychological factors that can influence mental health include which of the following?
A) Neuroanatomy
B) Emotional developmental level
C) Values and beliefs
D) Religion
- What is the primary purpose of the five-axis system used in the fourth edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 4th edition, text revision(DSM-IV-TR)?
A) To separate the various mental disorders into five related categories
B) To give a comprehensive picture of client functioning
C) To improve prognostic ability
D) To provide a decision-making algorithm for pharmacologic treatment
- One limitation of the DSM relates to diagnostic labels given to children. The most problematic issue caused by applying adult categories to children is which of the following?
A) It prevents the proper treatment of childhood disorders.
B) The criteria for diagnosis of a disorder are flexible for an adult, but not for children.
C) Categories are based on manifestations of adult disorders, not research in children.
D) The DSM was written before childhood psychological conditions were recognized.
- Which of the following represents a problem complicating the treatment of people with mental illness?
A) Insurers' reimbursement decisions
B) Increased responsibility for care by state mental hospitals
C) Overuse of the well-coordinated mental health care system
D) Lack of effective treatments
- Julie, a 47-year-old woman, missed 1 week of work when she was hospitalized with bipolar disorder. She was placed on medication and was able to return to work. When asked about her absence, Julie informed coworkers that she was suffering from influenza. What is the most likely reason Julie lied about her illness?
A) This is a sign that the medication is not effectively treating her illness.
B) Fear of rejection, isolation, and discrimination based on her mental health diagnosis
C) Due to workplace policies that encourage the firing of those with mental illnesses
D) To avoid eliciting sympathy among her coworkers
- A 22-year-old man with a history of a recent suicide attempt is being treated for depression. Prior to becoming depressed, the client attended a prestigious art school and enjoyed many social and leisure activities. Of the following long-term goals for this client, which is consistent with an overarching recovery goal for all clients with mental disorders?
A) The client will not injure himself.
B) The client's symptoms will be reduced.
C) The client will show interest in social and leisure activities.
D) The client will resume pre-illness functioning.
- Which of the following approaches to care best reflects cultural competence?
A) Always assign nurses of a specific ethnic background to clients with the same ethnic background.
B) Learn the behaviors and values associated with people of specific ethnic backgrounds.
C) Assess the culturally mediated beliefs of each client.
D) Believe that people are more alike than they are different.
Chapter 02- Neuroscience-Biology and Behavior
- The basic units of structure and function in the nervous system are called which of the following?
A) Glial cells
B) Neurons
C) Axons
D) Dendrites
- The structure and function of a neuron form the basis for the overall function of the nervous system. What are the components of a neuron?
A) A glial cell, nucleus, organelles, dendrites, and axons
B) A glial cell, nucleus, dendrites, and synapses
C) A cell body, nucleus, organelles, dendrites, and axons
D) A cell body, nucleus, axon, and synapses
- A patient has researched the role of neurotransmitters in her mental illness. What is the role of neurotransmitters?
A) Excite the receptor cell located inside the synaptic cleft.
B) Inhibit the receptor cell found inside of glial cells.
C) Communicate information within the receptor cell.
D) Communicate information from one cell or cell group to another.
- Because neurotransmitters are responsible for immediately transmitting impulses between nerve cells, they are known as which of the following?
A) First messengers
B) Second messengers
C) Receptors
D) Synapses
- A nurse is caring for a patient who is addicted to alcohol and drugs and is discussing the pathway of the brain responsible for this behavior. The nurse should know that the pathway of the brain thought to be involved in pleasurable sensations and the euphoria resulting from use of drugs is called the:
A) Tuberinfundibular dopamine pathway
B) Nigrostriatal dopamine pathway
C) Mesocortical dopamine pathway
D) Mesolimbic dopamine pathway
- A client lives with acquired deficits in emotional control, memory, and learning. What part of this client's brain is most likely affected?
A) Basal ganglia
B) Brainstem
C) Limbic system
D) Cerebellum
- You are caring for a mental health client who has developed difficulty with balance and muscle tone after a car accident that involved a head injury. Based on this information, what area of the brain was most likely injured in the accident?
A) Diencephalon
B) Brainstem
C) Cerebellum
D) Pons
- A client who experiences dysfunction in the hypothalamus is most likely to have
A) Maintaining homeostasis
B) Processing sensory input
C) Secreting melatonin
D) Integrating motor activities
- Sensory deprivation in infancy and childhood has adversely affected a boy's brain development. Which characteristic of the brain was most directly involved in this process?
A) Neuroplasticity
B) Reactive plasticity
C) Adaptive plasticity
D) Synaptic plasticity
- Rather than being 100%, concordance rates for schizophrenia in monozygotic twins are only 50%. Which of the following statements best explains this phenomenon?
A) Genetic predisposition to disease is frequently overstated.
B) One twin is inherently more vulnerable in every case.
C) Environmental experiences affect gene expression.
D) The genetic pathway responsible for vulnerability is unrelated to being a twin.
Chapter 03- Conceptual Frameworks and Theories
- A psychiatric–mental health nurse is aware of the importance of theories in the development and delivery of care. Which of the following is the best definition of a theory?
A) A group of related concepts or ideas
B) A person's or group's beliefs about how something happens or works
C) A prediction about two or more concepts
D) A researchable question related to health care
- Which of the following explains why theories are important to psychiatric–mental health nursing?
A) Theories provide more treatment options for clients.
B) Theories add professionalism to health care.
C) Theories simplify treatment decisions for most clients.
D) Theories lead to the expansion of knowledge.
- A client has been told by a psychologist that memories in his unconscious are contributing to his depression. This reasoning implies that the psychologist ascribes to what theory?
A) Psychoanalytic theory
B) Behavior theory
C) Cognitive–behavioral theory
D) The humanistic perspective
- A client's current plan of care includes interventions that are rooted in the concepts of reinforcement. Which theory of human behavior is being prioritized during this client's care?
A) Humanistic theory
B) Sociocultural theory
C) Behavioral theory
D) Psychoanalytic theory
- A client and her therapist have been discussing the notion that her psychopathology results from the blocking or distortion of personal growth, excessive stress, and unfavorable social conditions. This discussion is congruent with what theory?
A) Humanistic theory
B) Interpersonal theory
C) Biophysiological theory
D) Sociocultural theory
- During marital counseling, a man complains that his wife often “bombards” him with problems as soon as he settles down at home after work, which results in a prolonged argument. The wife admits that she does this but states she feels neglected and that her husband does not take the family problems seriously. She doesn't want her marriage to turn out like her parents' marriage. The wife admits that she sometimes provokes an argument in order to gain her husband's attention. How would a behaviorist most likely explain the wife's actions?
A) She has repressed painful memories about her emotionally distant father and is working out her anger at the parent in the marital relationship.
B) Her thoughts about her parents' unhappy marriage are a justification for her behavior.
C) She has an underlying anxiety disorder.
D) The long argument in which she and her husband participate positively reinforces her behavior.
- An adult man recalls that he was teased as a child about his inability to participate in sports. He began to avoid situations in which others might evaluate his behavior. He seeks treatment now because he is an accomplished musician but cannot perform for an audience. According to behavioral theory, his behavior is an example of which of the following concepts?
A) Discrimination
B) Modeling
C) Generalization
D) Shaping
- The nurse is working with a client who admits to having low self-esteem. The care team has determined that cognitive restructuring will likely enhance the client's self-esteem. Which of the following best describes the goals of this intervention?
A) Avoid negative self-talk
B) Replace negative self-talk with positive statements
C) Change distorted thinking and the subsequent behaviors
D) Use adaptive defense mechanisms
- A 55-year-old woman is being treated for narcissistic personality disorder. The therapist demonstrates caring and appropriate regard for the client. The therapist's behavior is an example of which concept of behavior theory?
A) Shaping
B) Discrimination
C) Modeling
D) Conditioning
- In a group therapy session, group members confront a 35-year-old woman about her abuse of prescription pain medications. The woman states that, because a physician has prescribed her medication, she is not a drug addict. The nurse identifies this as an example of which of the following defense mechanisms?
A) Regression
B) Projection
C) Denial
D) Sublimation
Chapter 04- Evidence-Based Practice
- The nurse demonstrates a commitment to the health, safety, and welfare of people by providing evidence-based practice. What does the term “evidence-based practice” mean?
A) Care that integrates research and clinical expertise with the client's characteristics, culture, and preferences
B) Care that bases decision making on established clinical protocols
C) Care based on prior outcomes from the nurse's practice
D) Care based on outcomes and research conducted by the practitioner
- Many pseudoscientific practitioners function openly and market themselves as mainstream
“therapists.” Why does the public often respond favorably to unconventional therapies?
A) Pseudoscientific therapies are frequently more effective than conventional therapies.
B) Further advancements can be made in effective pseudoscientific treatments with continued practice.
C) Malpractice is minimized because pseudoscientific treatments are not empirically supported.
D) Some clients and families are disenchanted with the outcomes of professionally approved treatments.
- Nursing is both an art and a science. Which statement best represents how evidence-based practice encompasses these two aspects of nursing?
A) The art of nursing has been replaced by evidence-based practice.
B) Multiple theoretical perspectives no longer guide evidence-based nursing care.
C) The art of nursing is demonstrated through carrying out the science of nursing in a skillful, knowledgeable, intelligent, and ethical manner.
D) The artful side of nursing is of less value to positive patient outcomes than is the science of nursing.
- Evidence-based practice is based on the scientific method and empirical evidence. Which of the following is a principle of empirical evidence?
A) Scientific observations are subjective inferences made by the knowledgeable nurse researcher.
B) Empirical studies may be designed to report the physical and mental effects of subjective experiences.
C) Empirical evidence is not appropriate in the field of mental health because cognitions and emotions are subjective and unpredictable.
D) Empirical knowledge is verifiable only with valid and reliable measurement instruments.
- The nurse is part of team conducting a research study that involves controlled observations. Controlled observations involve which of the following activities?
A) Putting information together to form a new understanding
B) Watching something carefully and noting events
C) Testing a hypothesis or prediction
D) Determining whether data are reliable and supportive
- Two patients with schizophrenia have consented to be involved in clinical trials to determine the efficacy of a new antipsychotic medication. The researcher administers the new drug to one subject and a sugar pill to another subject. The patient who received the sugar pill received a treatment that is considered which of the following?
A) Sham treatment
B) Unethical treatment
C) Placebo
D) Supplemental therapy
- A research team has been formed to study a new medication and its effects on depression. The researcher wants to use a design where neither the clients nor the research staff will know who is receiving the medication or the placebo. What type of study is this group conducting?
A) An empirical study
B) An evidence-based study
C) A case-control study
D) A double-blind study
- A researcher is determining whether data that were obtained in a psychiatric nursing study are reliable and whether the data support the study hypothesis. In what part of the scientific process is the researcher functioning?
A) Experimentation
B) Analysis
C) Synthesis
D) Prediction
- The nurse is working with a 42-year-old female patient who is mildly overweight. The patient expresses a desire to “tone up” before summer and is interested in trying an over-the-counter weight loss remedy. The nurse should perform health education related to what subject?
A) To be wary of any product that claims rapid or effortless results without exercise
B) The relatively low risk of using natural remedies
C) The small amount of active ingredient in most over-the-counter treatments
D) To choose a product that reports data indicating a high degree of effectiveness
- Many people get health care information from the Internet. Hence, evidence-based health care can be threatened by the proliferation of pseudoscientific information available to the public. Which measure is currently being taken to prevent the misinformation of the healthcare consumer?
A) Evidence-based knowledge is currently only disseminated in professional journals and publications.
B) The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has been denied the jurisdiction to prosecute unscrupulous internet marketers.
C) Public education is being performed by the Federal Trade Commission (FTC) through a campaign called Operation Cure All.
D) Websites publicizing misinformation on the Internet are being screened and blocked.
Chapter 05- Legal and Ethical Aspects
- A psychiatric–mental health nurse has been consistently aware of the need to adhere to standards of practice during interactions with clients and their families. What is a standard of nursing practice?
A) The body of text in the state nurse practice act
B) A document outlining minimum expectations for safe nursing practice
C) Unwritten but traditional practices that constitute safe nursing care
D) Part of the federal nurse practice act
- Nursing students are reviewing the nurse practice act in the state where they reside. A state's nurse practice act has which of the following functions?
A) Makes recommendations for how nurses should practice
B) Defines the scope and limit of nursing practice
C) Defines specific situations that constitute malpractice
D) Follows federal laws about nursing practice
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