Test Bank for Public Health Science and Nursing Practice Caring For Populations by Savage

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By: Savage

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Test Bank for Public Health Science and Nursing Practice Caring For Populations by Savage

Chapter 10: Mental Health

MULTIPLE RESPONSE

1.According to Healthy People 2020, which of the following are characteristics of mental health?

Select all that apply.

A.	Engaging in productive activities
B.	Having fulfilling relationships
C.	Experiencing alterations in thinking
D.	Adapting to change
E.	Coping with challenges

ANS: A, B, D, E

Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders.

pp. 225-226

Heading: Introduction

Integrated Processes: N/A

Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity

Cognitive Level: Knowledge [Remembering]

Concept: Promoting Health

Difficulty: Moderate

	Feedback
1.	Mental health is a state of successful performance of mental function, including engagement in productive activities.
2.	Mental health is a state of successful performance of mental function, including being able to form fulfilling relationships with other people.
3.	This is incorrect; it is an example of a mental disorder. Mental disorders are health conditions that are characterized by alterations in thinking, mood, or behavior that are associated with distress or impaired functioning.
4.	Mental health is a state of successful performance of mental function, including the ability to adapt to change.
5.	Mental health is a state of successful performance of mental function, including the ability to cope with challenges.

PTS:1CON:Promoting Health

MULTIPLE CHOICE

2.In 2010, approximately how many people in the United States reported experiencing mental disorders in the previous year?

A.	15%
B.	50%
C.	30%
D.	25%

ANS: D

Objective: 1. Define the burden of disease related to mental disorders using current epidemiological frameworks.

pp. 226-227

Heading: Epidemiology of Mental Disorders

Integrated Processes: N/A

Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity

Cognitive Level: Comprehension [Understanding]

Concept: Promoting Health

Difficulty: Moderate

	Feedback
A	This is incorrect. In the United States in 2010 an estimated 25% of adults reported having mental disorders in the previous year.
B	This is incorrect. In the United States in 2010 an estimated 25% of adults reported having mental disorders in the previous year.
C	This is incorrect. In the United States in 2010 an estimated 25% of adults reported having mental disorders in the previous year.
D	In the United States in 2010 an estimated 25% of adults reported having mental disorders in the previous year.

PTS:1CON:Promoting Health

3.A student nurse is studying stress and mental health. The student nurse learns that ____ is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events.

A.	Intervention
B.	Support
C.	Resilience
D.	Therapy

ANS: C

Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders.

pp. 229-231

Heading: Protective Factors: Building Resilience

Integrated Processes: Teaching/Learning

Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity

Cognitive Level: Application [Applying]

Concept: Trauma; Stress; Promoting Health; Nursing Roles

Difficulty: Moderate

	Feedback
A	This is incorrect. Resilience is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events. Preventive and treatment interventions are useful tools to build on an individual’s natural resilience to promote positive outcomes.
B	This is incorrect. Resilience is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events. Support from family, friends, and community is an important part of strengthening an individual’s resilience.
C	Resilience is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events.
D	This is incorrect. Resilience is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events. Therapy is an important part of an overall treatment plan, in conjunction with intervention, support, and an individual’s capacity for resilience.

PTS: 1 CON: Trauma | Stress | Promoting Health | Nursing Roles

4.____ addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder.

A.	Indicated prevention
B.	Selective prevention
C.	Universal prevention
D.	Both 1 and 2

ANS: A

Objective: 4. Apply current evidence-based population level interventions to the prevention of mental disorders and the promotion of optimal mental health for communities and populations.

pp. 232-233

Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Institute of Medicine Model of Prevention

Integrated Processes: Nursing Process

Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity

Cognitive Level: Comprehension [Understanding]

Concept: Promoting Health

Difficulty: Moderate

	Feedback
A	Indicated prevention addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder. The purpose of indicated techniques is to delay or reduce the severity of a mental disorder.
B	Selective prevention includes interventions provided to specific subgroups that are known to be at high risk for mental disorders owing to biological, psychological, social, or environmental factors but that have not yet been diagnosed with mental disorders. High-risk subgroups include but are not limited to those with a family history of mental disorders, history of adverse childhood events, or victims of violence.
C	Universal prevention refers to prevention interventions provided to the entire population, not just those who may be at risk. The interventions include but are not limited to public service announcements provided to the public at large through billboards, media messages (print and electronic), or general health education programs.
D	Indicated prevention addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder. The purpose of indicated techniques is to delay or reduce the severity of a mental disorder. Selective prevention includes interventions provided to specific subgroups that are known to be at high risk for mental disorders owing to biological, psychological, social, or environmental factors but that have not yet been diagnosed with mental disorders. High-risk subgroups include but are not limited to those with a family history of mental disorders, history of adverse childhood events, or victims of violence.

PTS:1CON:Promoting Health

5.The public health nurse (PHN) recognizes that which of the following are used as screening tools for depression?

A.	Patient Health Questionnaire 2
B.	Center for Epidemiological Studies Depression Scale (CESD-10)
C.	Brief Symptom Checklist-18 of the My Mood Monitor (M-3)
D.	Both 1 and 2

ANS: D

Objective: 5. Describe systems approaches to the promotion of mental health and the prevention and treatment of mental health disorders.

p. 232

Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Measure of Mental Health: Health-Related Quality of Life

Integrated Processes: Nursing Process

Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity

Cognitive Level: Application [Applying]

Concept: Promoting Health; Mood; Assessment

Difficulty: Moderate

	Feedback
A	Tools to screen for depression include the Patient Health Questionnaire 2 and the CESD-10.
B	Tools to screen for depression include the Patient Health Questionnaire 2 and the CESD-10.
C	This is incorrect. Tools to screen for depression include the Patient Health Questionnaire 2 and the CESD-10. Screening tools for anxiety disorders include the Brief Symptom Checklist-18 of the My Mood Monitor (M-3).
D	Tools to screen for depression include the Patient Health Questionnaire 2 and the CESD-10.

PTS:1CON:Promoting Health | Mood | Assessment

6.During a course on mental disorders, a PHN learns that the term serious mental illness (SMI) refers to diagnosable mental disorders that may disrupt a person’s ability to function and may qualify that person for support services. The PHN also notes that the mental disorders that can lead to SMI include:

A.	Mild depression
B.	Panic disorder
C.	Schizophrenia
D.	Both 2 and 3

ANS: D

Objective: 1. Define the burden of disease related to mental disorders using current epidemiological frameworks.

pp. 225-226

Heading: Introduction

Integrated Processes: Teaching/Learning

Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity

Cognitive Level: Application [Applying]

Concept: Cognition; Mood; Stress; Promoting Health; Nursing Roles

Difficulty: Moderate

	Feedback
A	This is incorrect. Major depression, however, is one of the mental disorders that can lead to SMI.
B	Both panic disorder and schizophrenia, among other mental disorders, can lead to SMI.
C	Both schizophrenia and panic disorder, among other mental disorders, can lead to SMI.
D	The mental disorders that can lead to SMI include major depression, panic disorder, schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD), post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), and borderline personality disorder.

PTS: 1 CON: Cognition | Mood | Stress | Promoting Health | Nursing Roles

7.While studying the prevalence of mental health disorders worldwide, a PHN learns about the World Mental Health Survey, which is used to determine estimates of human capital costs and prevalence of mental disorders in a wide range of countries. The survey was developed by

A.	The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
B.	The World Health Organization (WHO)
C.	The Institute of Medicine (IOM)
D.	The World Health Assembly

ANS: B

Objective: 1. Define the burden of disease related to mental disorders using current epidemiological frameworks.

p. 227

Heading: Epidemiology of Mental Disorders > Surveillance of Mental Health Disorders

Integrated Processes: Teaching/Learning

Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity

Cognitive Level: Application [Applying]

Concept: Promoting Health; Nursing Roles

Difficulty: Moderate

	Feedback
A	This is incorrect. WHO developed the World Mental Health Survey to estimate human capital costs and mental disorders prevalence on a global scale. The CDC conducts many types of surveys on the prevalence of mental disorders but the organization did not develop the World Mental Health Survey.
B	The WHO developed the World Mental Health Survey to estimate human capital costs and mental disorders prevalence on a global scale.
C	This is incorrect. WHO developed the World Mental Health Survey to estimate human capital costs and mental disorders prevalence on a global scale. The IOM is involved in screening for mental health disorders and addresses the need for appropriate behavioral health treatment in its report, Improving the Quality of Health Care for Mental and Substance-Use Conditions: Quality Chasm Series.
D	This is incorrect. WHO developed the World Mental Health Survey to estimate human capital costs and mental disorders prevalence on a global scale. The World Health Assembly issued a resolution on mental health that aims to reduce the global burden of mental disorders and improve overall mental health worldwide.

PTS: 1 CON: Promoting Health | Nursing Roles

8.Which ethnic group has the highest 12-month prevalence of a mental disorder?

A.	Hispanics
B.	African Americans
C.	Asian Americans
D.	Non-Hispanic whites

ANS: D

Objective: 1. Define the burden of disease related to mental disorders using current epidemiological frameworks.

pp. 227-228

Heading: Epidemiology of Mental Disorders > Prevalence of Mental Health Disorders

Integrated Processes: N/A

Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity

Cognitive Level: Knowledge [Remembering]

Concept: Promoting Health

Difficulty: Moderate

	Feedback
A	This is incorrect. Non-Hispanic whites have the highest 12-month prevalence rate for mental disorders at 21% compared with 16% for Hispanics.
B	This is incorrect. Non-Hispanic whites have the highest 12-month prevalence rate for mental disorders at 21% compared with 15% for African Americans.
C	This is incorrect. Non-Hispanic whites have the highest 12-month prevalence rate for mental disorders at 21% compared with 9% for Asian Americans.
D	Non-Hispanic whites have the highest 12-month prevalence rate for mental disorders at 21%.

PTS:1CON:Promoting Health

9.A PHN learns in a behavioral health class that the relationship between physiology and mental health plays an important role in mental disorders. Which of the following physiological factors may contribute to the development of mental disorders?

A.	Conditions that affect brain chemistry, such as medication side effects or toxins
B.	Physical trauma
C.	1 and 2
D.	Unstable family life

ANS: C

Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders.

pp. 228-229

Heading: Behavioral, Biological, Environmental, and Socioeconomic Risk Factors > Individual Level Risk Factors for Mental Disorders

Integrated Processes: Teaching/Learning

Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity

Cognitive Level: Application [Application]

Concept: Cognition; Trauma; Promoting Health

Difficulty: Moderate

	Feedback
A	Both conditions that affect brain chemistry and physical trauma are the physiological factors that may contribute to the development of mental disorders.
B	Both physical trauma and conditions that affect brain chemistry are physiological factors that may contribute to the development of mental disorders.
C	Conditions that affect brain chemistry and physical trauma are two of the physiological factors that may contribute to the development of mental disorders.
D	This is incorrect. Conditions that affect brain chemistry and physical trauma are two of the physiological factors that may contribute to the development of mental disorders. An unstable family life is not a physiological factor, although it may also contribute to the development of mental disorders.

PTS:1CON:Cognition | Trauma | Promoting Health

10.Which of the following community environment factors play a role in the development of mental disorders?

A.	Living in high crime areas
B.	Poverty
C.	Both 1 and 2
D.	Family instability

ANS: C

Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders.

p. 229

Heading: Behavioral, Biological, Environmental, and Socioeconomic Risk Factors > Community-Level Risk Factors for Mental Disorders

Integrated Processes: N/A

Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity

Cognitive Level: Comprehension [Understanding]

Concept: Promoting Health

Difficulty: Easy

	Feedback
A	Living in high crime areas is a factor, along with poverty.
B	Both poverty and living in high crime areas play a role in the development of mental disorders.
C	Both poverty and living in high crime areas play a role in the development of mental disorders.
D	This is incorrect. Although family instability often contributes to the development of mental disorders, it is not considered a community environment factor.

PTS:1CON:Promoting Health

11.____ is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable.

A.	Indicated prevention
B.	Stigma
C.	Risk factors
D.	Transinstitutionalization

ANS: B

Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders.

pp. 231-232

Heading: Culture, Stigma, and Mental Health Disorders

Integrated Processes: N/A

Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity

Cognitive Level: Comprehension [Understanding]

Concept: Promoting Health

Difficulty: Moderate

	Feedback
A	This is incorrect. Stigma is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable. Indicated prevention addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder.
B	Stigma is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable.
C	This is incorrect. Stigma is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable. Risk factors increase an individual’s chance of developing a mental disorder.
D	This is incorrect. Stigma is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable. Transinstitutionalization refers to the growing number of mentally ill persons who are homeless, in jail, in shelters, or in other facilities instead of being home or in a hospital.

PTS:1CON:Promoting Health

12.A nurse interested in working with persons with mental disorders who live in poverty understands that the most effective treatment involves multiple sectors of society, such as government agencies, grass roots groups, nonprofits, and businesses, working in tandem. This interrelationship is called:

A.	Indicated prevention
B.	Intersectoral strategies
C.	Health-Related Quality of Life
D.	Institute of Medicine Model of Prevention

ANS: B

Objective: 4. Apply current evidence-based population level interventions to the prevention of mental disorders and the promotion of optimal mental health for communities and populations.

p. 233

Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Promotion of Mental Health and Policy

Integrated Processes: Nursing Process

Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity

Cognitive Level: Application [Applying]

Concept: Promoting Health; Collaboration

Difficulty: Moderate

	Feedback
A	This is incorrect. Intersectoral strategies engage more than one sector of society with a shared interest such as government agencies, grass roots citizens groups, nonprofits, and businesses. Indicated prevention addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder.
B	Intersectoral strategies engage more than one sector of society with a shared interest such as government agencies, grass roots citizens groups, nonprofits, and businesses.
C	This is incorrect. Intersectoral strategies engage more than one sector of society with a shared interest such as government agencies, grass roots citizens groups, nonprofits, and businesses. Health-Related Quality of Life is the self-perceived impact of physical and emotional health on overall quality of life.
D	This is incorrect. Intersectoral strategies engage more than one sector of society with a shared interest such as government agencies, grass roots citizens groups, nonprofits, and businesses. The Institute of Medicine Model of Prevention is a framework for mental disorders that clearly separates prevention into three categories with specific interventions at each level.

PTS: 1 CON: Promoting Health | Collaboration

13.A recent graduate nurse working in an urban labor and delivery unit had a patient who experienced a difficult labor. The mother, suffering from postpartum depression (PPD), committed suicide a year after giving birth. Although the nurse knew the basics about PPD, the nurse immediately studied the condition in depth and learned that PPD:

A.	Can be triggered by a massive hormone drop following delivery
B.	Can intensify to cause delusions
C.	Occurs soon after delivery
D.	All of the above

ANS: D

Objective: 4. Apply current evidence-based population level interventions to the prevention of mental disorders and the promotion of optimal mental health for communities and populations.

pp. 233-235

Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Secondary Prevention: Screening for Mental Disorders

Integrated Processes: Nursing Process

Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity

Cognitive Level: Application [Applying]

Concept: Pregnancy; Mood; Violence; Promoting Health; Nursing Roles

Difficulty: Moderate

	Feedback
A	PPD can be triggered by a massive post-delivery hormone drop, intensify enough to cause delusions, and occur soon after delivery.
B	PPD can be triggered by a massive post-delivery hormone drop, intensify enough to cause delusions, and occur soon after delivery.
C	PPD can be triggered by a massive post-delivery hormone drop, intensify enough to cause delusions, and occur soon after delivery.
D	PPD can be triggered by a massive post-delivery hormone drop, intensify enough to cause delusions, and occur soon after delivery.

PTS: 1 CON: Pregnancy | Mood | Violence | Promoting Health | Nursing Roles

14.A nurse working in labor and delivery requested permission from the nurse manager to conduct a quality improvement project to screen patients that might be susceptible to PPD. After completing the project, which of the following screening guidelines did the unit incorporate?

A.	All patients will be screened for PPD when they are admitted to the labor and delivery unit.
B.	Patients at high risk are referred to the attending obstetrician.
C.	Before being discharged, all new mothers will complete a questionnaire specific to PPD symptoms.
D.	All of the above

ANS: D

Objective: Apply current evidence-based population level interventions to the prevention of mental disorders and the promotion of optimal mental health for communities and populations.

pp. 233-235

Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Secondary Prevention: Screening for Mental Disorders

Integrated Processes: Nursing Process

Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity

Cognitive Level: Application [Applying]

Concept: Pregnancy; Mood; Promoting Health; Assessment; Quality Improvement

Difficulty: Moderate

	Feedback
A	This is incorrect. Screening, high-risk referrals to the attending obstetrician and completion of a PPD symptom questionnaire were all incorporated.
B	This is incorrect. Screening, high-risk referrals to the attending obstetrician and completion of a PPD symptom questionnaire were all incorporated.
C	This is incorrect. Screening, high-risk referrals to the attending obstetrician and completion of a PPD symptom questionnaire were all incorporated.
D	Screening, high-risk referrals to the attending obstetrician and completion of a PPD symptom questionnaire were all incorporated.

PTS:1

CON: Pregnancy | Mood | Promoting Health | Assessment | Quality Improvement

15.A PHN treats a patient who may be depressed. To verify suspicions, the PHN checks ____, the definitive clinical guide for diagnosing mental disorders and providing consistency and accuracy in the screening for mental disorders.

A.	The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5)
B.	The Center for Epidemiological Studies Depression Scale (CESD-10)
C.	Patient Health Questionnaire 2
D.	Brief System Checklist-18 of the My Mood Monitor

ANS: A

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Test Bank for Public Health Science and Nursing Practice Caring For Populations by Savage

Chapter 10: Mental Health MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1.According to Healthy People 2020, which of the following are characteristics of mental health? Select all that apply.

A.	Engaging in productive activities
B.	Having fulfilling relationships
C.	Experiencing alterations in thinking
D.	Adapting to change
E.	Coping with challenges

ANS: A, B, D, E Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders. pp. 225-226 Heading: Introduction Integrated Processes: N/A Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Knowledge [Remembering] Concept: Promoting Health Difficulty: Moderate

	Feedback
1.	Mental health is a state of successful performance of mental function, including engagement in productive activities.
2.	Mental health is a state of successful performance of mental function, including being able to form fulfilling relationships with other people.
3.	This is incorrect; it is an example of a mental disorder. Mental disorders are health conditions that are characterized by alterations in thinking, mood, or behavior that are associated with distress or impaired functioning.
4.	Mental health is a state of successful performance of mental function, including the ability to adapt to change.
5.	Mental health is a state of successful performance of mental function, including the ability to cope with challenges.

PTS:1CON:Promoting Health MULTIPLE CHOICE 2.In 2010, approximately how many people in the United States reported experiencing mental disorders in the previous year?

A.	15%
B.	50%
C.	30%
D.	25%

ANS: D Objective: 1. Define the burden of disease related to mental disorders using current epidemiological frameworks. pp. 226-227 Heading: Epidemiology of Mental Disorders Integrated Processes: N/A Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Comprehension [Understanding] Concept: Promoting Health Difficulty: Moderate

	Feedback
A	This is incorrect. In the United States in 2010 an estimated 25% of adults reported having mental disorders in the previous year.
B	This is incorrect. In the United States in 2010 an estimated 25% of adults reported having mental disorders in the previous year.
C	This is incorrect. In the United States in 2010 an estimated 25% of adults reported having mental disorders in the previous year.
D	In the United States in 2010 an estimated 25% of adults reported having mental disorders in the previous year.

PTS:1CON:Promoting Health 3.A student nurse is studying stress and mental health. The student nurse learns that ____ is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events.

A.	Intervention
B.	Support
C.	Resilience
D.	Therapy

ANS: C Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders. pp. 229-231 Heading: Protective Factors: Building Resilience Integrated Processes: Teaching/Learning Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Trauma; Stress; Promoting Health; Nursing Roles Difficulty: Moderate

	Feedback
A	This is incorrect. Resilience is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events. Preventive and treatment interventions are useful tools to build on an individual’s natural resilience to promote positive outcomes.
B	This is incorrect. Resilience is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events. Support from family, friends, and community is an important part of strengthening an individual’s resilience.
C	Resilience is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events.
D	This is incorrect. Resilience is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events. Therapy is an important part of an overall treatment plan, in conjunction with intervention, support, and an individual’s capacity for resilience.

PTS: 1 CON: Trauma | Stress | Promoting Health | Nursing Roles 4.____ addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder.

A.	Indicated prevention
B.	Selective prevention
C.	Universal prevention
D.	Both 1 and 2

ANS: A Objective: 4. Apply current evidence-based population level interventions to the prevention of mental disorders and the promotion of optimal mental health for communities and populations. pp. 232-233 Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Institute of Medicine Model of Prevention Integrated Processes: Nursing Process Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Comprehension [Understanding] Concept: Promoting Health Difficulty: Moderate

	Feedback
A	Indicated prevention addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder. The purpose of indicated techniques is to delay or reduce the severity of a mental disorder.
B	Selective prevention includes interventions provided to specific subgroups that are known to be at high risk for mental disorders owing to biological, psychological, social, or environmental factors but that have not yet been diagnosed with mental disorders. High-risk subgroups include but are not limited to those with a family history of mental disorders, history of adverse childhood events, or victims of violence.
C	Universal prevention refers to prevention interventions provided to the entire population, not just those who may be at risk. The interventions include but are not limited to public service announcements provided to the public at large through billboards, media messages (print and electronic), or general health education programs.
D	Indicated prevention addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder. The purpose of indicated techniques is to delay or reduce the severity of a mental disorder. Selective prevention includes interventions provided to specific subgroups that are known to be at high risk for mental disorders owing to biological, psychological, social, or environmental factors but that have not yet been diagnosed with mental disorders. High-risk subgroups include but are not limited to those with a family history of mental disorders, history of adverse childhood events, or victims of violence.

PTS:1CON:Promoting Health 5.The public health nurse (PHN) recognizes that which of the following are used as screening tools for depression?

A.	Patient Health Questionnaire 2
B.	Center for Epidemiological Studies Depression Scale (CESD-10)
C.	Brief Symptom Checklist-18 of the My Mood Monitor (M-3)
D.	Both 1 and 2

ANS: D Objective: 5. Describe systems approaches to the promotion of mental health and the prevention and treatment of mental health disorders. p. 232 Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Measure of Mental Health: Health-Related Quality of Life Integrated Processes: Nursing Process Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Promoting Health; Mood; Assessment Difficulty: Moderate

	Feedback
A	Tools to screen for depression include the Patient Health Questionnaire 2 and the CESD-10.
B	Tools to screen for depression include the Patient Health Questionnaire 2 and the CESD-10.
C	This is incorrect. Tools to screen for depression include the Patient Health Questionnaire 2 and the CESD-10. Screening tools for anxiety disorders include the Brief Symptom Checklist-18 of the My Mood Monitor (M-3).
D	Tools to screen for depression include the Patient Health Questionnaire 2 and the CESD-10.

PTS:1CON:Promoting Health | Mood | Assessment 6.During a course on mental disorders, a PHN learns that the term serious mental illness (SMI) refers to diagnosable mental disorders that may disrupt a person’s ability to function and may qualify that person for support services. The PHN also notes that the mental disorders that can lead to SMI include:

A.	Mild depression
B.	Panic disorder
C.	Schizophrenia
D.	Both 2 and 3

ANS: D Objective: 1. Define the burden of disease related to mental disorders using current epidemiological frameworks. pp. 225-226 Heading: Introduction Integrated Processes: Teaching/Learning Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Cognition; Mood; Stress; Promoting Health; Nursing Roles Difficulty: Moderate

	Feedback
A	This is incorrect. Major depression, however, is one of the mental disorders that can lead to SMI.
B	Both panic disorder and schizophrenia, among other mental disorders, can lead to SMI.
C	Both schizophrenia and panic disorder, among other mental disorders, can lead to SMI.
D	The mental disorders that can lead to SMI include major depression, panic disorder, schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD), post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), and borderline personality disorder.

PTS: 1 CON: Cognition | Mood | Stress | Promoting Health | Nursing Roles 7.While studying the prevalence of mental health disorders worldwide, a PHN learns about the World Mental Health Survey, which is used to determine estimates of human capital costs and prevalence of mental disorders in a wide range of countries. The survey was developed by

A.	The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
B.	The World Health Organization (WHO)
C.	The Institute of Medicine (IOM)
D.	The World Health Assembly

ANS: B Objective: 1. Define the burden of disease related to mental disorders using current epidemiological frameworks. p. 227 Heading: Epidemiology of Mental Disorders > Surveillance of Mental Health Disorders Integrated Processes: Teaching/Learning Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Promoting Health; Nursing Roles Difficulty: Moderate

	Feedback
A	This is incorrect. WHO developed the World Mental Health Survey to estimate human capital costs and mental disorders prevalence on a global scale. The CDC conducts many types of surveys on the prevalence of mental disorders but the organization did not develop the World Mental Health Survey.
B	The WHO developed the World Mental Health Survey to estimate human capital costs and mental disorders prevalence on a global scale.
C	This is incorrect. WHO developed the World Mental Health Survey to estimate human capital costs and mental disorders prevalence on a global scale. The IOM is involved in screening for mental health disorders and addresses the need for appropriate behavioral health treatment in its report, Improving the Quality of Health Care for Mental and Substance-Use Conditions: Quality Chasm Series.
D	This is incorrect. WHO developed the World Mental Health Survey to estimate human capital costs and mental disorders prevalence on a global scale. The World Health Assembly issued a resolution on mental health that aims to reduce the global burden of mental disorders and improve overall mental health worldwide.

PTS: 1 CON: Promoting Health | Nursing Roles 8.Which ethnic group has the highest 12-month prevalence of a mental disorder?

A.	Hispanics
B.	African Americans
C.	Asian Americans
D.	Non-Hispanic whites

ANS: D Objective: 1. Define the burden of disease related to mental disorders using current epidemiological frameworks. pp. 227-228 Heading: Epidemiology of Mental Disorders > Prevalence of Mental Health Disorders Integrated Processes: N/A Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Knowledge [Remembering] Concept: Promoting Health Difficulty: Moderate

	Feedback
A	This is incorrect. Non-Hispanic whites have the highest 12-month prevalence rate for mental disorders at 21% compared with 16% for Hispanics.
B	This is incorrect. Non-Hispanic whites have the highest 12-month prevalence rate for mental disorders at 21% compared with 15% for African Americans.
C	This is incorrect. Non-Hispanic whites have the highest 12-month prevalence rate for mental disorders at 21% compared with 9% for Asian Americans.
D	Non-Hispanic whites have the highest 12-month prevalence rate for mental disorders at 21%.

PTS:1CON:Promoting Health 9.A PHN learns in a behavioral health class that the relationship between physiology and mental health plays an important role in mental disorders. Which of the following physiological factors may contribute to the development of mental disorders?

A.	Conditions that affect brain chemistry, such as medication side effects or toxins
B.	Physical trauma
C.	1 and 2
D.	Unstable family life

ANS: C Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders. pp. 228-229 Heading: Behavioral, Biological, Environmental, and Socioeconomic Risk Factors > Individual Level Risk Factors for Mental Disorders Integrated Processes: Teaching/Learning Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Application] Concept: Cognition; Trauma; Promoting Health Difficulty: Moderate

	Feedback
A	Both conditions that affect brain chemistry and physical trauma are the physiological factors that may contribute to the development of mental disorders.
B	Both physical trauma and conditions that affect brain chemistry are physiological factors that may contribute to the development of mental disorders.
C	Conditions that affect brain chemistry and physical trauma are two of the physiological factors that may contribute to the development of mental disorders.
D	This is incorrect. Conditions that affect brain chemistry and physical trauma are two of the physiological factors that may contribute to the development of mental disorders. An unstable family life is not a physiological factor, although it may also contribute to the development of mental disorders.

PTS:1CON:Cognition | Trauma | Promoting Health 10.Which of the following community environment factors play a role in the development of mental disorders?

A.	Living in high crime areas
B.	Poverty
C.	Both 1 and 2
D.	Family instability

ANS: C Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders. p. 229 Heading: Behavioral, Biological, Environmental, and Socioeconomic Risk Factors > Community-Level Risk Factors for Mental Disorders Integrated Processes: N/A Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Comprehension [Understanding] Concept: Promoting Health Difficulty: Easy

	Feedback
A	Living in high crime areas is a factor, along with poverty.
B	Both poverty and living in high crime areas play a role in the development of mental disorders.
C	Both poverty and living in high crime areas play a role in the development of mental disorders.
D	This is incorrect. Although family instability often contributes to the development of mental disorders, it is not considered a community environment factor.

PTS:1CON:Promoting Health 11.____ is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable.

A.	Indicated prevention
B.	Stigma
C.	Risk factors
D.	Transinstitutionalization

ANS: B Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders. pp. 231-232 Heading: Culture, Stigma, and Mental Health Disorders Integrated Processes: N/A Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Comprehension [Understanding] Concept: Promoting Health Difficulty: Moderate

	Feedback
A	This is incorrect. Stigma is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable. Indicated prevention addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder.
B	Stigma is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable.
C	This is incorrect. Stigma is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable. Risk factors increase an individual’s chance of developing a mental disorder.
D	This is incorrect. Stigma is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable. Transinstitutionalization refers to the growing number of mentally ill persons who are homeless, in jail, in shelters, or in other facilities instead of being home or in a hospital.

PTS:1CON:Promoting Health 12.A nurse interested in working with persons with mental disorders who live in poverty understands that the most effective treatment involves multiple sectors of society, such as government agencies, grass roots groups, nonprofits, and businesses, working in tandem. This interrelationship is called:

A.	Indicated prevention
B.	Intersectoral strategies
C.	Health-Related Quality of Life
D.	Institute of Medicine Model of Prevention

ANS: B Objective: 4. Apply current evidence-based population level interventions to the prevention of mental disorders and the promotion of optimal mental health for communities and populations. p. 233 Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Promotion of Mental Health and Policy Integrated Processes: Nursing Process Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Promoting Health; Collaboration Difficulty: Moderate

	Feedback
A	This is incorrect. Intersectoral strategies engage more than one sector of society with a shared interest such as government agencies, grass roots citizens groups, nonprofits, and businesses. Indicated prevention addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder.
B	Intersectoral strategies engage more than one sector of society with a shared interest such as government agencies, grass roots citizens groups, nonprofits, and businesses.
C	This is incorrect. Intersectoral strategies engage more than one sector of society with a shared interest such as government agencies, grass roots citizens groups, nonprofits, and businesses. Health-Related Quality of Life is the self-perceived impact of physical and emotional health on overall quality of life.
D	This is incorrect. Intersectoral strategies engage more than one sector of society with a shared interest such as government agencies, grass roots citizens groups, nonprofits, and businesses. The Institute of Medicine Model of Prevention is a framework for mental disorders that clearly separates prevention into three categories with specific interventions at each level.

PTS: 1 CON: Promoting Health | Collaboration 13.A recent graduate nurse working in an urban labor and delivery unit had a patient who experienced a difficult labor. The mother, suffering from postpartum depression (PPD), committed suicide a year after giving birth. Although the nurse knew the basics about PPD, the nurse immediately studied the condition in depth and learned that PPD:

A.	Can be triggered by a massive hormone drop following delivery
B.	Can intensify to cause delusions
C.	Occurs soon after delivery
D.	All of the above

ANS: D Objective: 4. Apply current evidence-based population level interventions to the prevention of mental disorders and the promotion of optimal mental health for communities and populations. pp. 233-235 Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Secondary Prevention: Screening for Mental Disorders Integrated Processes: Nursing Process Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Pregnancy; Mood; Violence; Promoting Health; Nursing Roles Difficulty: Moderate

	Feedback
A	PPD can be triggered by a massive post-delivery hormone drop, intensify enough to cause delusions, and occur soon after delivery.
B	PPD can be triggered by a massive post-delivery hormone drop, intensify enough to cause delusions, and occur soon after delivery.
C	PPD can be triggered by a massive post-delivery hormone drop, intensify enough to cause delusions, and occur soon after delivery.
D	PPD can be triggered by a massive post-delivery hormone drop, intensify enough to cause delusions, and occur soon after delivery.

PTS: 1 CON: Pregnancy | Mood | Violence | Promoting Health | Nursing Roles 14.A nurse working in labor and delivery requested permission from the nurse manager to conduct a quality improvement project to screen patients that might be susceptible to PPD. After completing the project, which of the following screening guidelines did the unit incorporate?

A.	All patients will be screened for PPD when they are admitted to the labor and delivery unit.
B.	Patients at high risk are referred to the attending obstetrician.
C.	Before being discharged, all new mothers will complete a questionnaire specific to PPD symptoms.
D.	All of the above

ANS: D Objective: Apply current evidence-based population level interventions to the prevention of mental disorders and the promotion of optimal mental health for communities and populations. pp. 233-235 Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Secondary Prevention: Screening for Mental Disorders Integrated Processes: Nursing Process Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Pregnancy; Mood; Promoting Health; Assessment; Quality Improvement Difficulty: Moderate

	Feedback
A	This is incorrect. Screening, high-risk referrals to the attending obstetrician and completion of a PPD symptom questionnaire were all incorporated.
B	This is incorrect. Screening, high-risk referrals to the attending obstetrician and completion of a PPD symptom questionnaire were all incorporated.
C	This is incorrect. Screening, high-risk referrals to the attending obstetrician and completion of a PPD symptom questionnaire were all incorporated.
D	Screening, high-risk referrals to the attending obstetrician and completion of a PPD symptom questionnaire were all incorporated.

PTS:1 CON: Pregnancy | Mood | Promoting Health | Assessment | Quality Improvement 15.A PHN treats a patient who may be depressed. To verify suspicions, the PHN checks ____, the definitive clinical guide for diagnosing mental disorders and providing consistency and accuracy in the screening for mental disorders.

A.	The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5)
B.	The Center for Epidemiological Studies Depression Scale (CESD-10)
C.	Patient Health Questionnaire 2
D.	Brief System Checklist-18 of the My Mood Monitor

ANS: A

Test Bank for Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Care , (4th Edition)

CONTENTS SECTION 1: FETAL DEVELOPMENT, ASSESSMENT, AND DELIVERY 1. Fetal Lung Development 2. Fetal Gas Exchange and Circulation 3. Antenatal Assessment and High-Risk Delivery SECTION 2: ASSESSMENT AND MONITORING OF THE NEONATAL AND PEDIATRIC PATIENT 4. Exam and Assessment of the Neonatal and Pediatric Patient 5. Pulmonary Function Testing and Bedside Pulmonary Mechanics 6. Radiographic Assessment 7. Bronchoscopy 8. Invasive Blood Gas Analysis and Monitoring 9. Non-Invasive Monitoring in Neonatal and Pediatric Care SECTION 3: THERAPEUTIC PROCEDURES FOR TREATMENT OF NEONATAL AND PEDIATRIC DISORDERS 10. Oxygen Administration 11. Aerosols and Administration of Medication 12. Airway Clearance Techniques and Lung Volume Expansion 13. Airway Management 14. Surfactant Replacement 15. Non-Invasive Mechanical Ventilation and Continuous Positive Pressure of the Neonate 16. Non-Invasive Mechanical Ventilation of the Child 17. Mechanical Ventilation of the Neonatal and Pediatric Patient 18. Administration of Gas Mixtures 19. Extracorporeal Life Support 20. Pharmacology 21. Thoracic Organ Transplantation 22. Neonatal Complications and Pulmonary Disorders SECTION 4: NEONATAL AND PEDIATRIC DISORDERS: PRESENTATION, DIAGNOSIS, AND TREATMENT 23. Congenital and Surgical Disorders that Affect Respiratory Care 24. Congenital Cardiac Defects 25. Sudden Infant Death Syndrome and Sleep Disorders 26. Pediatric Airway Disorders and Pulmonary Infections 27. Asthma 28. Cystic Fibrosis 29. Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome 30. Shock, Sepsis, and Anaphylaxis 31. Pediatric Trauma 32. Disorders of the Pleura 33. Neurological and Neuromuscular Disorders SECTION 5: NEONATAL AND PEDIATRIC TRANSIENT AND AMBULATORY CARE 34. Transport of Infants and Children 35. Home Care 36. Quality and Safety NEW!

LeMone & Burke's Medical-Surgical Nursing, 7e (Bauldoff/Gubrud/Carno)

Chapter 1 Medical-Surgical Nursing in the 21st Century

1) A patient is instructed on the role of diet, exercise, and medication to control type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which core competency for healthcare professionals is the nurse implementing?

Quality improvement
Evidence-based practice
Patient-centered care
Teamwork and collaboration

Answer: 3 Explanation: 1. Identifying safety hazards and measuring quality is an example of the core competency quality improvement.

Using best research when providing patient care is an example of the core competency evidence-based practice.
Patient teaching is an example of the competency patient-centered care.
The core competency teamwork and collaboration involves collaboration between disciplines to provide continuous and reliable care.

Page Ref: 5 Cognitive Level: Applying Client Need & Sub: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care Standards: QSEN Competencies: I.A.1. Integrate understanding of multiple dimensions of patient-centered care | AACN Essentials Competencies: IX.7. Provide appropriate patient teaching that reflects developmental stage, age, culture, spirituality, patient preferences, and health literacy considerations to foster patient engagement in their care | NLN Competencies: Relationship-Centered Care; Practice-Know-How; Communicate information effectively; listen openly and cooperatively | Nursing/Integrated Concepts: Nursing Process: Implementation/Teaching/Learning Learning Outcome: 1.1 Describe the core competencies for healthcare professionals: Patient-centered care, interprofessional teams, evidence-based practice, quality improvement, safety, and health information technology. MNL Learning Outcome: 1. Demonstrate use of the core competencies for healthcare professionals in nursing practice.

2) The nurse is planning to utilize the core competency use informatics when providing patient care. Which action should the nurse perform when using this core competency?

Change the sharps container in a patient's room.
Document the effectiveness of pain medication for a patient.
Discuss the effectiveness of bedside physical therapy with the therapist.
Search through a database of articles to find current research on wound care.

Answer: 4 Explanation: 1. Changing the sharps container is an example of quality improvement.

Documenting the effectiveness of pain medication for a patient is an example of patient-centered care.
Discussing the effectiveness of bedside physical therapy with the therapist is an example of teamwork and collaboration.
Searching through a database of articles to find current research on wound care is an example of use informatics.

Page Ref: 5 Cognitive Level: Applying Client Need & Sub: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care Standards: QSEN Competencies: VI.B.2. Apply technology and information management tools to support safe processes of care | AACN Essentials Competencies: IV.1. Demonstrate skills in using patient care technologies, information systems, and communication devices that support safe nursing practice | NLN Competencies: Knowledge and Science: Practice-Know-How: Retrieve research findings and other sources of information | Nursing/Integrated Concepts:

Chapter 01: Using Evidence in Practice Perry et al.: Clinical Nursing Skills & Techniques, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE

Evidence-based practice is a problem-solving approach to making decisions about patient care that is grounded in:

a.	the latest information found in textbooks.
b.	systematically conducted research studies.
c.	tradition in clinical practice.
d.	quality improvement and risk-management data.

ANS: B The best evidence comes from well-designed, systematically conducted research studies described in scientific journals. Portions of a textbook often become outdated by the time it is published. Many health care settings do not have a process to help staff adopt new evidence in practice, and nurses in practice settings lack easy access to risk-management data, relying instead on tradition or convenience. Some sources of evidence do not originate from research. These include quality improvement and risk-management data; infection control data; retrospective or concurrent chart reviews; and clinicians’ expertise. Although non–research-based evidence is often very valuable, it is important that you learn to rely more on research-based evidence. DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: Text reference: p. 2 OBJ: Discuss the benefits of evidence-based practice. TOP: Evidence-Based Practice KEY: Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment (management of care)

When evidence-based practice is used, patient care will be:

a.	standardized for all.
b.	unhampered by patient culture.
c.	variable according to the situation.
d.	safe from the hazards of critical thinking.

ANS: C Using your clinical expertise and considering patients’ cultures, values, and preferences ensures that you will apply available evidence in practice ethically and appropriately. Even when you use the best evidence available, application and outcomes will differ; as a nurse, you will develop critical thinking skills to determine whether evidence is relevant and appropriate. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: Text reference: p. 2 OBJ: Discuss the benefits of evidence-based practice. TOP: Evidence-Based Practice KEY: Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment (management of care)

When a PICOT question is developed, the letter that corresponds with the usual standard of care is:

a.	P.
b.	I.
c.	C.
d.	O.

ANS: C C = Comparison of interest. What standard of care or current intervention do you usually use now in practice? P = Patient population of interest. Identify your patient by age, gender, ethnicity, disease, or health problem. I = Intervention of interest. What intervention (e.g., treatment, diagnostic test, and prognostic factor) do you think is worthwhile to use in practice? O = Outcome. What result (e.g., change in patient’s behavior, physical finding, and change in patient’s perception) do you wish to achieve or observe as the result of an intervention? DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: Text reference: p. 3 OBJ: Develop a PICO question. TOP: PICO KEY: Nursing Process Step: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment (management of care)

A well-developed PICOT question helps the nurse:

a.	search for evidence.
b.	include all five elements of the sequence.
c.	find as many articles as possible in a literature search.
d.	accept standard clinical routines.

ANS: A The more focused a question that you ask is, the easier it is to search for evidence in the scientific literature. A well-designed PICOT question does not have to include all five elements, nor does it have to follow the PICOT sequence. Do not be satisfied with clinical routines. Always question and use critical thinking to consider better ways to provide patient care. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis REF: Text reference: p. 3 OBJ: Describe the six steps of evidence-based practice. TOP: Evidence-Based Practice KEY: Nursing Process Step: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment (management of care)

The nurse is not sure that the procedure the patient requires is the best possible for the situation. Utilizing which of the following resources would be the quickest way to review research on the topic?

a.	CINAHL
b.	PubMed
c.	MEDLINE
d.	The Cochrane Database

ANS: D The Cochrane Community Database of Systematic Reviews is a valuable source of synthesized evidence (i.e., pre-appraised evidence). The Cochrane Database includes the full text of regularly updated systematic reviews and protocols for reviews currently happening. MEDLINE, CINAHL, and PubMed are among the most comprehensive databases and represent the scientific knowledge base of health care. DIF: Cognitive Level: Synthesis REF: Text reference: p. 4 OBJ: Describe the six steps of evidence-based practice. TOP: Evidence-Based Practice KEY: Nursing Process Step: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment (management of care)

The nurse is getting ready to develop a plan of care for a patient who has a specific need. The best source for developing this plan of care would probably be:

a.	The Cochrane Database.
b.	MEDLINE.
c.	NGC.
d.	CINAHL.

ANS: C The National Guidelines Clearinghouse (NGC) is a database supported by the Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ). It contains clinical guidelines—systematically developed statements about a plan of care for a specific set of clinical circumstances involving a specific patient population. The NGC is a valuable source when you want to develop a plan of care for a patient. The Cochrane Community Database of Systematic Reviews, MEDLINE, and CINAHL are all valuable sources of synthesized evidence (i.e., pre-appraised evidence). DIF: Cognitive Level: Synthesis REF: Text reference: p. 4 OBJ: Describe the six steps of evidence-based practice. TOP: Evidence-Based Practice KEY: Nursing Process Step: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment (management of care)

The nurse has done a literature search and found 25 possible articles on the topic that she is studying. To determine which of those 25 best fit her inquiry, the nurse first should look at:

a.	the abstracts.
b.	the literature reviews.
c.	the “Methods” sections.
d.	the narrative sections.

ANS: A An abstract is a brief summary of an article that quickly tells you whether the article is research based or clinically based. An abstract summarizes the purpose of the study or clinical query, the major themes or findings, and the implications for nursing practice. The literature review usually gives you a good idea of how past research led to the researcher’s question. The “Methods” or “Design” section explains how a research study is organized and conducted to answer the research question or to test the hypothesis. The narrative of a manuscript differs according to the type of evidence-based article—clinical or research. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: Text reference: p. 7 OBJ: Discuss elements to review when critiquing the scientific literature. TOP: Randomized Controlled Trials KEY: Nursing Process Step: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment (management of care)

The nurse wants to determine the effects of cardiac rehabilitation program attendance on the level of postmyocardial depression for individuals who have had a myocardial infarction. The type of study that would best capture this information would be a:

a.	randomized controlled trial.
b.	qualitative study.
c.	case control study.
d.	descriptive study.

ANS: B Qualitative studies examine individuals’ experiences with health problems and the contexts in which these experiences occur. A qualitative study is best in this case of an individual nurse who wants to examine the effectiveness of a local program. Randomized controlled trials involve close monitoring of control groups and treatment groups to test an intervention against the usual standard of care. Case control studies typically compare one group of subjects with a certain condition against another group without the condition, to look for associations between the condition and predictor variables. Descriptive studies focus mainly on describing the concepts under study. DIF: Cognitive Level: Synthesis REF: Text reference: p. 6 OBJ: Discuss ways to apply evidence in nursing practice. TOP: Randomized Controlled Trials KEY: Nursing Process Step: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment (management of care)

Six months after an early mobility protocol was implemented, the incidence of deep vein thrombosis in patients was decreased. This is an example of what stage in the EBP process?

a.	Asking a clinical question
b.	Applying the evidence
c.	Evaluating the practice decision
d.	Communicating your results

ANS: C After implementing a practice change, your next step is to evaluate the effect. You do this by analyzing the outcomes data that you collected during the pilot project. Outcomes evaluation tells you whether your practice change improved conditions, created no change, or worsened conditions. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: Text reference: p. 9 OBJ: Discuss ways to apply evidence in nursing practice. TOP: Evidence-Based Practice KEY: Nursing Process Step: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment (safety and infection control) MULTIPLE RESPONSE

To use evidence-based practice appropriately, you need to collect the most relevant and best evidence and to critically appraise the evidence you gather. This process also includes: (Select all that apply.)

a.	asking a clinical question.
b.	applying the evidence.
c.	evaluating the practice decision.
d.	communicating your results.

ANS: A, B, C, D

Chapter 1. The Concept of Stress Adaptation

Test Bank for Psychiatric Mental Health Nursing 8th Edition by Townsend

Multiple Choice

A client has experienced the death of a close family member and at the same time becomes unemployed. This situation has resulted in a 6-month score of 110 on the Recent Life Changes Questionnaire. How should the nurse evaluate this client data?
The client is experiencing severe distress and is at risk for physical and psychological illness.
A score of 110 on the Miller and Rahe Recent Life Changes Questionnaire indicates no significant threat of stress-related illness.
Susceptibility to stress-related physical or psychological illness cannot be estimated without knowledge of coping resources and available supports.
The client may view these losses as challenges and perceive them as opportunities.

ANS: C The Recent Life Changes Questionnaire is an expanded version of the Schedule of Recent Experiences and the Rahe-Holmes Social Readjustment Rating Scale. A 6-month score of 300 or more, or a year-score total of 500 or more, indicates high stress in a client’s life. However, positive coping mechanisms and strong social support can limit susceptibility to stress-related illnesses. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Evaluation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity

A physically and emotionally healthy client has just been fired. During a routine office visit he states to a nurse: “Perhaps this was the best thing to happen. Maybe I’ll look into pursuing an art degree.” How should the nurse characterize the client’s appraisal of the job loss stressor?
Irrelevant
Harm/loss
Threatening
Challenging

ANS: D The client perceives the situation of job loss as a challenge and an opportunity for growth. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Assessment | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity

Which client statement should alert a nurse that a client may be responding maladaptively to stress?
“I’ve found that avoiding contact with others helps me cope.”
“I really enjoy journaling; it’s my private time.”
“I signed up for a yoga class this week.”
“I made an appointment to meet with a therapist.”

ANS: A Reliance on social isolation as a coping mechanism is a maladaptive method to relieve stress. It can prevent learning appropriate coping skills and can prevent access to needed support systems. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Evaluation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity

A nursing student finds that she comes down with a sinus infection toward the end of every semester. When this occurs, which stage of stress is the student most likely experiencing?
Alarm reaction stage
Stage of resistance
Stage of exhaustion
Fight-or-flight stage

ANS: C At the stage of exhaustion, the student’s exposure to stress has been prolonged and adaptive energy has been depleted. Diseases of adaptation occur more frequently in this stage. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Assessment | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity

A school nurse is assessing a female high school student who is overly concerned about her appearance. The client’s mother states, “That’s not something to be stressed about!” Which is the most appropriate nursing response?
“Teenagers! They don’t know a thing about real stress.”
“Stress occurs only when there is a loss.”
“When you are in poor physical condition, you can’t experience psychological well-being.”
“Stress can be psychological. A threat to self-esteem may result in high stress levels.”

ANS: D Stress can be physical or psychological in nature. A perceived threat to self-esteem can be as stressful as a physiological change. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Implementation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity

A bright student confides in the school nurse about conflicts related to attending college or working to add needed financial support to the family. Which coping strategy is most appropriate for the nurse to recommend to the student at this time?
Meditation
Problem-solving training
Relaxation
Journaling

ANS: B The student must assess his or her situation and determine the best course of action. Problem-solving training, by providing structure and objectivity, can assist in decision making. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Implementation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity

An unemployed college graduate is experiencing severe anxiety over not finding a teaching position and has difficulty with independent problem-solving. During a routine physical examination, the graduate confides in the clinic nurse. Which is the most appropriate nursing intervention?
Encourage the student to use the alternative coping mechanism of relaxation exercises.
Complete the problem-solving process for the client.
Work through the problem-solving process with the client.
Encourage the client to keep a journal.

ANS: C During times of high anxiety and stress, clients will need more assistance in problem-solving and decision making. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Implementation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity

A school nurse is assessing a distraught female high school student who is overly concerned because her parents can’t afford horseback riding lessons. How should the nurse interpret the student’s reaction to her perceived problem?
The problem is endangering her well-being.
The problem is personally relevant to her.
The problem is based on immaturity.
The problem is exceeding her capacity to cope.

ANS: B Psychological stressors to self-esteem and self-image are related to how the individual perceives the situation or event. Self-image is of particular importance to adolescents, who feel entitled to have all the advantages that other adolescents experience. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Evaluation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity

Meditation has been shown to be an effective stress management technique. When meditation is effective, what should a nurse expect to assess?
An achieved state of relaxation
An achieved insight into one’s feelings
A demonstration of appropriate role behaviors
An enhanced ability to problem-solve

ANS: A Meditation produces relaxation by creating a special state of consciousness through focused concentration. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Evaluation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity

A distraught, single, first-time mother cries and asks a nurse, “How can I go to work if I can’t afford childcare?” What is the nurse’s initial action in assisting the client with the problem-solving process?
Determine the risks and benefits for each alternative.
Formulate goals for resolution of the problem.
Evaluate the outcome of the implemented alternative.
Assess the facts of the situation.

ANS: D Before any other steps can be taken, accurate information about the situation must be gathered and assessed. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Implementation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity

Test Bank Focus on Nursing Pharmacology 8th Edition

Test Bank - Focus on Nursing Pharmacology (8th Edition by Karch) Table of Contents Chapter 01 - Introduction to Drugs Chapter 02 - Drugs and the Body Chapter 03 - Toxic Effects of Drugs Chapter 04 - The Nursing Process in Drug Therapy and Patient Safety Chapter 05 - Dosage Calculations Chapter 06 - Challenges to Effective Drug Therapy Chapter 07 - Introduction to Cell Physiology Chapter 08 - Antiinfective Agents Chapter 09 - Antibiotics Chapter 10 - Antiviral Agents Chapter 11 - Antifungal Agents Chapter 12 - Antiprotozoal Agents Chapter 13 - Anthelmintic Agents Chapter 14 - Antineoplastic Agents Chapter 15 - Introduction to the Immune Response and Inflammation Chapter 16 - Antiinflammatory, Antiarthritis, and Related Agents Chapter 17 - Immune Modulators Chapter 18 - Vaccines and Sera Chapter 19 - Introduction to Nerves and the Nervous System Chapter 20 - Anxiolytic and Hypnotic Agents Chapter 21 - Antidepressant Agents Chapter 22 - Psychotherapeutic Agents Chapter 23 - Antiseizure Agents Chapter 24 - Antiparkinsonism Agents Chapter 25 - Muscle Relaxants Chapter 26 - Narcotics, Narcotic Antagonists, and Antimigraine Agents Chapter 27 - General and Local Anesthetic Agents Chapter 28 - Neuromuscular Junction Blocking Agents Chapter 29 - Introduction to the Autonomic Nervous System Chapter 30 - Adrenergic Agonists Chapter 31 - Adrenergic Antagonists Chapter 32 - Cholinergic Agonists Chapter 33 - Anticholinergic Agents Chapter 34 - Introduction to the Endocrine System Chapter 35 - Hypothalamic and Pituitary Agents Chapter 36 - Adrenocortical Agents Chapter 37 - Thyroid and Parathyroid Agents Chapter 38 - Agents to Control Blood Glucose Levels Chapter 39 - Introduction to the Reproductive System Chapter 40 - Drugs Affecting the Female Reproductive System Chapter 41 - Drugs Affecting the Male Reproductive System Chapter 42 - Introduction to the Cardiovascular System Chapter 43 - Drugs Affecting Blood Pressure Chapter 44 - Agents for Treating Heart Failure Chapter 45 - Antiarrhythmic Agents Chapter 46 - Antianginal Agents Chapter 47 - Lipid-Lowering Agents Chapter 48 - Drugs Affecting Blood Coagulation Chapter 49 - Drugs Used to Treat Anemias Chapter 50 - Introduction to the Renal System Test Bank - Focus on Nursing Pharmacology (8th Edition by Karch) 2 Chapter 51 - Diuretic Agents Chapter 52 - Drugs Affecting the Urinary Tract and the Bladder Chapter 53 - Introduction to the Respiratory System Chapter 54 - Drugs Acting on the Upper Respiratory Tract Chapter 55 - Drugs Acting on the Lower Respiratory Tract Chapter 56 - Introduction to the Gastrointestinal System Chapter 57 - Drugs Affecting Gastrointestinal Secretions Chapter 58 - Drugs Affecting Gastrointestinal Motility Chapter 59 - Antiemetic Agents

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Test Bank for Public Health Science and Nursing Practice Caring For Populations by Savage

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Test Bank for Public Health Science and Nursing Practice Caring For Populations by Savage

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Test Bank for Public Health Science and Nursing Practice Caring For Populations by Savage

Test Bank for Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Care , (4th Edition)

LeMone & Burke's Medical-Surgical Nursing, 7e (Bauldoff/Gubrud/Carno)

Chapter 1 Medical-Surgical Nursing in the 21st Century

2) The nurse is planning to utilize the core competency use informatics when providing patient care. Which action should the nurse perform when using this core competency?

Test Bank for Psychiatric Mental Health Nursing 8th Edition by Townsend

Test Bank Focus on Nursing Pharmacology 8th Edition