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Test Bank for Shortell and Kaluznys Healthcare Management 7th Edition by Burns

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By: Burns

Edition: 7th Edition

Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille

Resource Type: Test bank

Duration: Unlimited downloads

Delivery: Instant Download

Test Bank for Shortell and Kaluznys Healthcare Management 7th Edition by Burns

CHAPTER 1: Delivering Value: The Global Challenge in Health Care Management

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. What is one issue that health care organizations must address in order to create and deliver value?
a. To create appropriate barriers to health care for equity
b. To improve access to health care
c. To increase cost acceleration
d. To decrease the overall quality of care

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A Incorrect: Improving access to health care must be addressed to create and deliver value.
B Correct: Improving access to health care must be addressed to create and deliver value.
C Incorrect: Improving access to health care must be addressed to create and deliver value.
D Incorrect: Improving access to health care must be addressed to create and deliver value.

 

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Health care concerns shared by the United States, China, and India include concerns over ____.
a. the consolidated financial mechanism
b. lack of spending at the local level
c. the low number of specialists
d. lifestyle issues and behaviors

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A Incorrect: Health care concerns shared by the United States, China, and India include concerns over lifestyle issues and behaviors.
B Incorrect: Health care concerns shared by the United States, China, and India include concerns over lifestyle issues and behaviors.
C Incorrect: Health care concerns shared by the United States, China, and India include concerns over lifestyle issues and behaviors.
D Correct: Health care concerns shared by the United States, China, and India include concerns over lifestyle issues and behaviors.

 

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The Premier Hospital Quality Incentive Demonstration (PHQID) was launched to determine if economic incentives are effective at improving ____.
a. the cost of inpatient care c. the cost of outpatient care
b. the quality of inpatient care d. the quality of outpatient care

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A Incorrect: The Premier Hospital Quality Incentive Demonstration (PHQID) was launched to determine if economic incentives are effective at improving the quality of inpatient care.
B Correct: The Premier Hospital Quality Incentive Demonstration (PHQID) was launched to determine if economic incentives are effective at improving the quality of inpatient care.
C Incorrect: The Premier Hospital Quality Incentive Demonstration (PHQID) was launched to determine if economic incentives are effective at improving the quality of inpatient care.
D Incorrect: The Premier Hospital Quality Incentive Demonstration (PHQID) was launched to determine if economic incentives are effective at improving the quality of inpatient care.

 

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Investor-owned facilities comprise about ____ percent of the hospital sector.
a. 15–20 c. 55–60
b. 30–35 d. 75–80

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  Feedback
A Correct: Investor-owned facilities comprise about 15–20 percent of the hospital sector.
B Incorrect: Investor-owned facilities comprise about 15–20 percent of the hospital sector.
C Incorrect: Investor-owned facilities comprise about 15–20 percent of the hospital sector.
D Incorrect: Investor-owned facilities comprise about 15–20 percent of the hospital sector.

 

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Organizations within the health care industry have increasingly consolidated into ____ over the past two decades with the stated objective of being more efficient, but may not operate as such.
a. community care centers c. systems
b. corporations d. foundations

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A Incorrect: Organizations within the health care industry have increasingly consolidated into systems over the past two decades with the stated objective of being more efficient, but may not operate as such.
B Incorrect: Organizations within the health care industry have increasingly consolidated into systems over the past two decades with the stated objective of being more efficient, but may not operate as such.
C Correct: Organizations within the health care industry have increasingly consolidated into systems over the past two decades with the stated objective of being more efficient, but may not operate as such.
D Incorrect: Organizations within the health care industry have increasingly consolidated into systems over the past two decades with the stated objective of being more efficient, but may not operate as such.

 

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The Human Relations School ascertains that in order to improve productivity, management must ____.
a. implement the top-down control of work
b. minimize the input of workers
c. offer monetary incentives
d. understand the informal organization of workers

 

 

ANS:  D

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DescriptionBy: Burns Edition: 7th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadEdition: 5th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadEdition: 10th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadEdition: 8th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadBy: Townsend Edition: 8th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadBy: Ehrlich Edition: 8th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant Download
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Test Bank for Shortell and Kaluznys Healthcare Management 7th Edition by Burns

CHAPTER 1: Delivering Value: The Global Challenge in Health Care Management   MULTIPLE CHOICE  
  1. What is one issue that health care organizations must address in order to create and deliver value?
a. To create appropriate barriers to health care for equity
b. To improve access to health care
c. To increase cost acceleration
d. To decrease the overall quality of care
    ANS:  B  
  Feedback
A Incorrect: Improving access to health care must be addressed to create and deliver value.
B Correct: Improving access to health care must be addressed to create and deliver value.
C Incorrect: Improving access to health care must be addressed to create and deliver value.
D Incorrect: Improving access to health care must be addressed to create and deliver value.
    PTS:   1  
  1. Health care concerns shared by the United States, China, and India include concerns over ____.
a. the consolidated financial mechanism
b. lack of spending at the local level
c. the low number of specialists
d. lifestyle issues and behaviors
    ANS:  D  
  Feedback
A Incorrect: Health care concerns shared by the United States, China, and India include concerns over lifestyle issues and behaviors.
B Incorrect: Health care concerns shared by the United States, China, and India include concerns over lifestyle issues and behaviors.
C Incorrect: Health care concerns shared by the United States, China, and India include concerns over lifestyle issues and behaviors.
D Correct: Health care concerns shared by the United States, China, and India include concerns over lifestyle issues and behaviors.
    PTS:   1  
  1. The Premier Hospital Quality Incentive Demonstration (PHQID) was launched to determine if economic incentives are effective at improving ____.
a. the cost of inpatient care c. the cost of outpatient care
b. the quality of inpatient care d. the quality of outpatient care
    ANS:  B  
  Feedback
A Incorrect: The Premier Hospital Quality Incentive Demonstration (PHQID) was launched to determine if economic incentives are effective at improving the quality of inpatient care.
B Correct: The Premier Hospital Quality Incentive Demonstration (PHQID) was launched to determine if economic incentives are effective at improving the quality of inpatient care.
C Incorrect: The Premier Hospital Quality Incentive Demonstration (PHQID) was launched to determine if economic incentives are effective at improving the quality of inpatient care.
D Incorrect: The Premier Hospital Quality Incentive Demonstration (PHQID) was launched to determine if economic incentives are effective at improving the quality of inpatient care.
    PTS:   1  
  1. Investor-owned facilities comprise about ____ percent of the hospital sector.
a. 15–20 c. 55–60
b. 30–35 d. 75–80
    ANS:  A  
  Feedback
A Correct: Investor-owned facilities comprise about 15–20 percent of the hospital sector.
B Incorrect: Investor-owned facilities comprise about 15–20 percent of the hospital sector.
C Incorrect: Investor-owned facilities comprise about 15–20 percent of the hospital sector.
D Incorrect: Investor-owned facilities comprise about 15–20 percent of the hospital sector.
    PTS:   1  
  1. Organizations within the health care industry have increasingly consolidated into ____ over the past two decades with the stated objective of being more efficient, but may not operate as such.
a. community care centers c. systems
b. corporations d. foundations
    ANS:  C  
  Feedback
A Incorrect: Organizations within the health care industry have increasingly consolidated into systems over the past two decades with the stated objective of being more efficient, but may not operate as such.
B Incorrect: Organizations within the health care industry have increasingly consolidated into systems over the past two decades with the stated objective of being more efficient, but may not operate as such.
C Correct: Organizations within the health care industry have increasingly consolidated into systems over the past two decades with the stated objective of being more efficient, but may not operate as such.
D Incorrect: Organizations within the health care industry have increasingly consolidated into systems over the past two decades with the stated objective of being more efficient, but may not operate as such.
    PTS:   1  
  1. The Human Relations School ascertains that in order to improve productivity, management must ____.
a. implement the top-down control of work
b. minimize the input of workers
c. offer monetary incentives
d. understand the informal organization of workers
    ANS:  D

Test Bank For Foundations for Population Health in Community Public Health Nursing 5th Edition Stanhope

Chapter 01: Community- and Prevention-Oriented Practice to Improve Population Health Stanhope: Foundations for Population Health in Community/Public Health Nursing,5th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following best describes community-based nursing? a. A practice in which care is provided for individuals and families b. Providing care with a focus on the group’s needs c. Giving care with a focus on the aggregate’s needs d. A value system in which all clients receive optimal care ANS: A By definition, community-based nursing is a setting-specific practice in which care is provided for “sick” individuals and families where they live, work, and attend school. The emphasis is on acute and chronic care and the provision of comprehensive, coordinated, and continuous care. These nurses may be generalists or specialists in maternal–infant, pediatric, adult, or psychiatric mental health nursing. Community-based nursing emphasizes acute and chronic care to individuals and families, rather than focusing on groups, aggregates, or systems. 2. Which of the following best describes community-oriented nursing? a. Focusing on the provision of care to individuals and families b. Providing care to manage acute or chronic conditions c. Giving direct care to ill individuals within their family setting d. Having the goal of health promotion and disease prevention ANS: D By definition, community-oriented nursing has the goal of preserving, protecting, or maintaining health and preventing disease to promote the quality of life. All nurses may focus on individuals and families, give direct care to ill persons within their family setting, and help manage acute or chronic conditions. These definitions are not specific to community-oriented nursing. 3. Which of the following is the primary focus of public health nursing? a. Families and groups b. Illness-oriented care c. Individuals within the family unit d. Health care of communities and populations ANS: D In public health nursing the primary focus is on the health care of communities and populations rather than on individuals, groups, and families. The goal is to prevent disease and preserve, promote, restore, and protect health for the community and the population within it. Community-based nurses deal primarily with illness-oriented care of individuals and families acorss the life span. The aim is to amanage acute and chronic health conditions in the community, and the focus of practice is on individual or family-centered illness care. Foundations for Population Health in Community Public Health Nursing 5th Edition Stanhope 4. Which of the following is responsible for the dramatic increase in life expectancy during the 20th century? a. Technology increases in the field of medical laboratory research b. Advances in surgical techniques and procedures c. Sanitation and other population-based prevention programs d. Use of antibiotics to fight infections ANS: C Improvements in control of infectious diseases through immunizations, sanitation, and other population-based prevention programs led to the increase in life expectancy from less than 50 years in 1900 to more than 78 years in 2013. Although people are excited when a new drug is discovered that cures a disease or when a new way to transplant organs is perfected, it is important to know about the significant gains in the health of populations that have come largely from public health accomplishments. 5. A nurse is developing a plan to decrease the number of premature deaths in the community. Which of the following interventions would most likely be implemented by the nurse? a. Increase the community’s knowledge about hospice care. b. Promote healthy lifestyle behavior choices among the community members. c. Encourage employers to have wellness centers at each industrial site. d. Ensure timely and effective medical intervention and treatment for community members. ANS: B Public health approaches could help prevent premature deaths by influencing the way people eat, drink, drive, engage in exercise, and treat the environment. Increasing knowledge of hospice care, encouraging on-site wellness centers, and ensuring timely treatment of medical conditions do not address the focus of improving overall health through health promotion strategies. This is the major method that is suggested to decrease the incidence of premature death. 6. Which of the following is a basic assumption of public health efforts? a. Health disparities among any groups are morally and legally wrong. b. Health care is the most important priority in government planning and funding. c. The health of individuals cannot be separated from the health of the community. d. The government is responsible for lengthening the life span of Americans. ANS: C Public health practice focuses on the community as a whole, and the effect of the community’s health status (resources) on the health of individuals, families, and groups. The goal is to prevent disease and disability and promote and protect the health of the community as a whole. Public health can be described as what society collectively does to ensure that conditions exist in which people can be healthy. The basic assumptions of public health do not judge the morality of health disparities. The focus is on prevention of illness not on spending more on illness care. Additionally, individual responsibility for making healthy choices is the directive for lengthening life span not the role of the government. 7. Which of the following actions would most likely be performed by a public health nurse? a. Asking community leaders what interventions should be chosen b. Assessing the community and deciding on appropriate interventions c. Using data from the main health care institutions in the community to determine Foundations for Population Health in Community Public Health Nursing 5th Edition Stanhope needed health services d. Working with community groups to create policies to improve the environment ANS: D Although the public health nurse might engage in any of the tasks listed, he or she works primarily with members of the community to carry out core public health functions, including assessment of the population as a whole and engaging in promoting health and improving the environment. The interventions of asking community leaders which interventions should be chosen, asessing the community and deciding on appropriate interventions, and using data from health care institutions do not demonstrate the engagement of the community when making decisions about what the community actually wants and needs. 8. Which of the following public health nurses most clearly fulfills the responsibilities of this role? a. The nurse who met with several groups to discuss community recreation issues b. The nurse who spent the day attending meetings of various health agencies c. The nurse who talked to several people about their particular health concerns d. The nurse who watched the city council meeting on local cable television ANS: B Any of these descriptions might represent a nurse communicating, cooperating, or collaborating with community residents or groups about health concerns. However, the nurse who spent the day attending meetings of various health agencies is the most representative, because in public health, concerns are addressed from a broader perspective. In public health, broad concerns of the community should be addressed. Concerns are broader than recreation, individual concerns are not as important as aggregate priorities, and watching television (a one-way form of communication) is less effective than interacting with others. 9. Which of the following best defines aggregate? a. A large group of persons b. A collection of individuals and families c. A collection of people who share one or more characteristics d. Another name for demographic group ANS: C An aggregate is defined a collection of people who share one or more personal or environmental characteristics. Members of a community can be defined in terms of either geography (e.g., a county, a group of counties, or a state) or a special interest (e.g., children attending a particular school). These members make up a population. The term population may be used interchangeably with the term aggregate. A large group of persons, a collection of individuals and families, and another name for demograhpic group are not accurate definitions of the term aggregate. 10. A registered nurse was just employed as a public health nurse. Which question would be the most relevant for the nurse to ask? a. “Which groups are at the greatest risk for problems?” b. “Which patients should I see first as I begin my day?” c. “With which physicians will I be most closely collaborating?” d. “With which nursing assistants will I partner the most?” ANS: A NURSINGTB.COM Foundations for Population Health in Community Public Health Nursing 5th Edition Stanhope Asking which groups are at greatest risk reflects a community-oriented perspective. The incorrect responses reflect a focus on individuals rather than a community-oriented perspective. 11. Making sure that essential community-oriented health services are available defines which of the core public health functions? a. Policy development b. Assessment c. Assurance d. Scientific knowledge-based care ANS: C Assurance includes making sure that essential community-oriented health services are available in the community. The definition does not fit the terms assessment, policy development. Scientific knowledge-based care is not a core function of public health. Assessment is systematic data collection on the population, monitoring the population’s health status, and making information available about the health of the community. Policy development refers to efforts to develop policies that support the health of the population, including using a scientific knowledge base to make policy decisions. 12. When talking to a women’s group at the senior citizens’ center, the nurse reminded them that the only way the center would be able to afford to provide transportation services for them would be for them to continue to write letters to their local city council representatives requesting funding for such a service. What was the nurse trying to accomplish through this action? a. Ensure that the women did not expect the nurse to solve their problem. b. Demonstrate that the nurse understood the women’s concerns and needs. c. Express empathy, support, and concern. d. Help the women engage in political action. ANS: D Public health nurses engage themselves and others in policy development and encourage and assist persons to communicate their needs to those with the power to take action. The nurse is demonstrating the role of advocate through this action, it goes beyond merely understanding the women’s concern, and instead mobilizes them to take action. This action does not demonstrate the nurse showing empathy rather the nurse is empowering these women.

Test Bank Ebersole and Hess’ Toward Healthy Aging 10th Edition Touhy

Chapter 01: Health and Wellness in an Aging Society Touhy: Ebersole & Hess' Toward Healthy Aging, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. When asked by new parents what the life expectancy is for their African American newborn, the nurse replies that, “2010 statistics indicate that your son: a. will have a life expectancy of approximately 65 years.” b. can realistically expect to live into his late 80s.” c. has a good chance of celebrating his 75th birthday.” d. is likely to live into his late 90s.” ANS: C In 2010, men in the United States at age 60 can expect to live another 22 years. The life expectancy of African American men is about 4.7 years less than white men. Of the options above, C is the only response that fits into those parameters. The other options are not supported by reliable research. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understanding REF: p. 3 TOP: Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 2. A nurse is planning care for a group of super-centenarians in an assisted living facility. The nurse considers which of the following? a. Most super-centenarians are functionally independent or require minimal assistance with activities of daily living b. The majority of super-centenarians have cognitive impairment c. The number of super-centenarians is expected to decrease in coming years as a result of heart disease and stroke d. It is theorized that super-centenarians survived as long as they have due to genetic mutations that made them less susceptible to common diseases ANS: A Research supports that most super-centenarians are functionally and cognitively intact, requiring minimal assistance with ADLs. The number of super-centenarians is expected to increase in coming years as the number of older adults increases. The reason why individuals survived as long as they have is not known. DIF: Cognitive Level: Remembering REF: p. 4 TOP: Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 3. One reason why many “baby boomers” have multiple chronic conditions such as heart disease, diabetes, and arthritis is that: a. they have less access to medication and other treatment regimens. b. there was a lack of importance placed on healthy living as they were growing up. c. they did not have access to immunizations against communicable disease when they were children. d. they grew up in an era of rampant poverty and malnutrition. ANS: B The baby boomers, individuals born between 1946 and 1964, post-WWII, have better access to medication and treatment regimens than other cohorts. They have had the benefit of the development of immunizations against communicable diseases. They grew up in an era of prosperity post-WWII. However, there was a lack of importance placed on what we now consider healthy living when they were younger. Smoking, for example, was not condoned, but was considered a symbol of status. Candy in the shape of cigarettes was popular, and there was much secondhand smoke. DIF: Cognitive Level: Remembering REF: p. 6 TOP: Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 4. A nurse is planning an education program on wellness in a local senior citizen center. The nurse plans to provide education on the importance of immunizations, annual physical examinations, screening for diabetes, and vision and hearing screening. It is important for the nurse to understand which of the following? a. Approximately 40% of older adults (ages 65 and older) utilize available preventive services b. Preventive strategies are more widely used in the 40-64 age group than in the 65 and over age group c. The research on health promotion strategies in older adults demonstrates that they have low efficacy d. There is an abundance of research specific to health promotion and aging ANS: A Approximately 40% of individuals, ages 65 and older, utilize the preventive services that are available to them. However, only 24% of those between the ages of 40 and 64 do so. There is a paucity of research specific to health promotion and aging; however, the research that exists demonstrates that health promotion strategies are highly effective. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understanding REF: p. 7 TOP: Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 5. A nurse is caring for an 85-year-old male client with diabetes in a community setting. The nurse promotes functional wellness by which of the following activities? a. Encouraging the client maintains current levels of physical activity b. Assisting the client to receive all the recommended preventive screenings that are appropriate for his age group c. Teaching the patient how to use a rolling walker so that he can ambulate for longer distances d. Encouraging the client to attend his weekly chess games ANS: A Maintaining existing levels of physical activity is consistent with functional wellness. Teaching the client how to use a rolling walker enables the client to remain active at the highest level possible, which is an example of promoting functional wellness. Receiving recommended screening is an example of promoting biological wellness. The use of a rolling walker should be based on assessment of physical ability. Encouraging the client to attend weekly chess games is an example of promoting social wellness. DIF: Cognitive Level: Applying REF: p. 10 TOP: Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 6. Based on the census reports of 2010, the typical profile of a centenarian in the United States includes which of the following characteristics? a. A Caucasian woman who lives in an urban area of a Southern state b. An African American woman who lives in a rural area of a Southern state c. A Hispanic man who lives in an urban area of a Midwestern state d. A Caucasian man who lives in a rural area of a Midwestern state ANS: A Based on the 2010 U.S. Census data, centenarians were overwhelmingly white (82.5%), women (82.8%), and living in urban areas of the Southern states. DIF: Cognitive Level: Applying REF: p. 5 TOP: Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance

Test Bank for Psychiatric Mental Health Nursing, 8th Edition Wanda Mohr

Chapter 01- Introduction to Psychiatric-Mental Health Nursing

  1. A nurse is giving a presentation about preventing mental illness to college freshmen. A student asks, “What does it mean to be mentally healthy?” Which of the following potential responses by the nurse is best?
  A)           “Mental health is difficult to define and depends on cultural norms.”   B)            “Mental health is marked by productivity, fulfilling relationships, and adaptability.”   C)            “Mental health is characterized by the absence of mental illness.”   D)           “Mental health is the performance of behavior that is accepted as normal.”  
  1. A 48-year-old independent, successful woman is recovering from a modified radical mastectomy. She states she was grateful that during the first few weeks after surgery her mother stayed with her and did “everything” for her. Which element of mental health does this reflect?
  A)           Reality orientation   B)            Mastery of the environment   C)            Self-governance   D)           Tolerance of the unknown  
  1. Why is the document Mental Health: A Report of the Surgeon General (1999) most significant?
  A)           Because it states clearly that there are effective treatments for mental illness   B)            Because it allocates research money to psychiatric facilities   C)            Because it sets new guidelines for use of restraints   D)           Because it establishes reimbursement guidelines for third-party payers  
  1. While a nurse is performing an admission assessment for a mental health client, the client states that all of his problems have been caused by his parents. The nurse knows that psychological factors that can influence mental health include which of the following?
 
A)           Neuroanatomy   B)            Emotional developmental level   C)            Values and beliefs   D)           Religion  
  1. What is the primary purpose of the five-axis system used in the fourth edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 4th edition, text revision(DSM-IV-TR)?
  A)           To separate the various mental disorders into five related categories   B)            To give a comprehensive picture of client functioning   C)            To improve prognostic ability   D)           To provide a decision-making algorithm for pharmacologic treatment  
  1. One limitation of the DSM relates to diagnostic labels given to children. The most problematic issue caused by applying adult categories to children is which of the following?
  A)           It prevents the proper treatment of childhood disorders.   B)            The criteria for diagnosis of a disorder are flexible for an adult, but not for children.   C)            Categories are based on manifestations of adult disorders, not research in children.   D)           The DSM was written before childhood psychological conditions were recognized.  
  1. Which of the following represents a problem complicating the treatment of people with mental illness?
  A)           Insurers' reimbursement decisions   B)            Increased responsibility for care by state mental hospitals   C)            Overuse of the well-coordinated mental health care system   D)           Lack of effective treatments  
  1. Julie, a 47-year-old woman, missed 1 week of work when she was hospitalized with bipolar disorder. She was placed on medication and was able to return to work. When asked about her absence, Julie informed coworkers that she was suffering from influenza. What is the most likely reason Julie lied about her illness?
  A)           This is a sign that the medication is not effectively treating her illness.   B)            Fear of rejection, isolation, and discrimination based on her mental health diagnosis
 
C)            Due to workplace policies that encourage the firing of those with mental illnesses   D)           To avoid eliciting sympathy among her coworkers  
  1. A 22-year-old man with a history of a recent suicide attempt is being treated for depression. Prior to becoming depressed, the client attended a prestigious art school and enjoyed many social and leisure activities. Of the following long-term goals for this client, which is consistent with an overarching recovery goal for all clients with mental disorders?
  A)           The client will not injure himself.   B)            The client's symptoms will be reduced.   C)            The client will show interest in social and leisure activities.   D)           The client will resume pre-illness functioning.  
  1. Which of the following approaches to care best reflects cultural competence?
  A)           Always assign nurses of a specific ethnic background to clients with the same ethnic background.   B)            Learn the behaviors and values associated with people of specific ethnic backgrounds.   C)            Assess the culturally mediated beliefs of each client.   D)           Believe that people are more alike than they are different.       Chapter 02- Neuroscience-Biology and Behavior  
  1. The basic units of structure and function in the nervous system are called which of the following?
  A)            Glial cells   B)            Neurons   C)            Axons   D)            Dendrites  
  1. The structure and function of a neuron form the basis for the overall function of the nervous system. What are the components of a neuron?
  A)            A glial cell, nucleus, organelles, dendrites, and axons   B)            A glial cell, nucleus, dendrites, and synapses   C)            A cell body, nucleus, organelles, dendrites, and axons   D)            A cell body, nucleus, axon, and synapses  
  1. A patient has researched the role of neurotransmitters in her mental illness. What is the role of neurotransmitters?
 
A)            Excite the receptor cell located inside the synaptic cleft.   B)            Inhibit the receptor cell found inside of glial cells.   C)            Communicate information within the receptor cell.   D)            Communicate information from one cell or cell group to another.  
  1. Because neurotransmitters are responsible for immediately transmitting impulses between nerve cells, they are known as which of the following?
  A)            First messengers   B)            Second messengers   C)            Receptors   D)            Synapses  
  1. A nurse is caring for a patient who is addicted to alcohol and drugs and is discussing the pathway of the brain responsible for this behavior. The nurse should know that the pathway of the brain thought to be involved in pleasurable sensations and the euphoria resulting from use of drugs is called the:
  A)            Tuberinfundibular dopamine pathway   B)            Nigrostriatal dopamine pathway   C)            Mesocortical dopamine pathway   D)            Mesolimbic dopamine pathway  
  1. A client lives with acquired deficits in emotional control, memory, and learning. What part of this client's brain is most likely affected?
  A)            Basal ganglia   B)            Brainstem   C)            Limbic system   D)            Cerebellum  
  1. You are caring for a mental health client who has developed difficulty with balance and muscle tone after a car accident that involved a head injury. Based on this information, what area of the brain was most likely injured in the accident?
  A)            Diencephalon   B)            Brainstem   C)            Cerebellum   D)            Pons  
  1. A client who experiences dysfunction in the hypothalamus is most likely to have
  A)            Maintaining homeostasis   B)            Processing sensory input
 
C)            Secreting melatonin   D)            Integrating motor activities  
  1. Sensory deprivation in infancy and childhood has adversely affected a boy's brain development. Which characteristic of the brain was most directly involved in this process?
  A)            Neuroplasticity   B)            Reactive plasticity   C)            Adaptive plasticity   D)            Synaptic plasticity  
  1. Rather than being 100%, concordance rates for schizophrenia in monozygotic twins are only 50%. Which of the following statements best explains this phenomenon?
  A)            Genetic predisposition to disease is frequently overstated.   B)            One twin is inherently more vulnerable in every case.   C)            Environmental experiences affect gene expression.   D)            The genetic pathway responsible for vulnerability is unrelated to being a twin.       Chapter 03- Conceptual Frameworks and Theories  
  1. A psychiatric–mental health nurse is aware of the importance of theories in the development and delivery of care. Which of the following is the best definition of a theory?
  A)            A group of related concepts or ideas   B)            A person's or group's beliefs about how something happens or works   C)            A prediction about two or more concepts   D)            A researchable question related to health care  
  1. Which of the following explains why theories are important to psychiatric–mental health nursing?
  A)            Theories provide more treatment options for clients.   B)            Theories add professionalism to health care.   C)            Theories simplify treatment decisions for most clients.   D)            Theories lead to the expansion of knowledge.  
  1. A client has been told by a psychologist that memories in his unconscious are contributing to his depression. This reasoning implies that the psychologist ascribes to what theory?
  A)            Psychoanalytic theory   B)            Behavior theory   C)            Cognitive–behavioral theory
 
D)            The humanistic perspective  
  1. A client's current plan of care includes interventions that are rooted in the concepts of reinforcement. Which theory of human behavior is being prioritized during this client's care?
  A)            Humanistic theory   B)            Sociocultural theory   C)            Behavioral theory   D)            Psychoanalytic theory  
  1. A client and her therapist have been discussing the notion that her psychopathology results from the blocking or distortion of personal growth, excessive stress, and unfavorable social conditions. This discussion is congruent with what theory?
  A)            Humanistic theory   B)            Interpersonal theory   C)            Biophysiological theory   D)            Sociocultural theory  
  1. During marital counseling, a man complains that his wife often “bombards” him with problems as soon as he settles down at home after work, which results in a prolonged argument. The wife admits that she does this but states she feels neglected and that her husband does not take the family problems seriously. She doesn't want her marriage to turn out like her parents' marriage. The wife admits that she sometimes provokes an argument in order to gain her husband's attention. How would a behaviorist most likely explain the wife's actions?
  A)            She has repressed painful memories about her emotionally distant father and is working out her anger at the parent in the marital relationship.   B)            Her thoughts about her parents' unhappy marriage are a justification for her behavior.   C)            She has an underlying anxiety disorder.   D)            The long argument in which she and her husband participate positively reinforces her behavior.  
  1. An adult man recalls that he was teased as a child about his inability to participate in sports. He began to avoid situations in which others might evaluate his behavior. He seeks treatment now because he is an accomplished musician but cannot perform for an audience. According to behavioral theory, his behavior is an example of which of the following concepts?
  A)            Discrimination   B)            Modeling   C)            Generalization   D)            Shaping  
  1. The nurse is working with a client who admits to having low self-esteem. The care team has determined that cognitive restructuring will likely enhance the client's self-esteem. Which of the following best describes the goals of this intervention?
 
A)            Avoid negative self-talk   B)            Replace negative self-talk with positive statements   C)            Change distorted thinking and the subsequent behaviors   D)            Use adaptive defense mechanisms  
  1. A 55-year-old woman is being treated for narcissistic personality disorder. The therapist demonstrates caring and appropriate regard for the client. The therapist's behavior is an example of which concept of behavior theory?
  A)            Shaping   B)            Discrimination   C)            Modeling   D)            Conditioning  
  1. In a group therapy session, group members confront a 35-year-old woman about her abuse of prescription pain medications. The woman states that, because a physician has prescribed her medication, she is not a drug addict. The nurse identifies this as an example of which of the following defense mechanisms?
  A)            Regression   B)            Projection   C)            Denial   D)            Sublimation     Chapter 04- Evidence-Based Practice  
  1. The nurse demonstrates a commitment to the health, safety, and welfare of people by providing evidence-based practice. What does the term “evidence-based practice” mean?
  A)            Care that integrates research and clinical expertise with the client's characteristics, culture, and preferences   B)            Care that bases decision making on established clinical protocols   C)            Care based on prior outcomes from the nurse's practice   D)            Care based on outcomes and research conducted by the practitioner  
  1. Many pseudoscientific practitioners function openly and market themselves as mainstream
  “therapists.” Why does the public often respond favorably to unconventional therapies?   A)            Pseudoscientific therapies are frequently more effective than conventional therapies.   B)            Further advancements can be made in effective pseudoscientific treatments with continued practice.   C)            Malpractice is minimized because pseudoscientific treatments are not empirically supported.
 
D)            Some clients and families are disenchanted with the outcomes of professionally approved treatments.  
  1. Nursing is both an art and a science. Which statement best represents how evidence-based practice encompasses these two aspects of nursing?
  A)            The art of nursing has been replaced by evidence-based practice.   B)            Multiple theoretical perspectives no longer guide evidence-based nursing care.   C)            The art of nursing is demonstrated through carrying out the science of nursing in a skillful, knowledgeable, intelligent, and ethical manner.   D)            The artful side of nursing is of less value to positive patient outcomes than is the science of nursing.  
  1. Evidence-based practice is based on the scientific method and empirical evidence. Which of the following is a principle of empirical evidence?
  A)            Scientific observations are subjective inferences made by the knowledgeable nurse researcher.   B)            Empirical studies may be designed to report the physical and mental effects of subjective experiences.   C)            Empirical evidence is not appropriate in the field of mental health because cognitions and emotions are subjective and unpredictable.   D)            Empirical knowledge is verifiable only with valid and reliable measurement instruments.  
  1. The nurse is part of team conducting a research study that involves controlled observations. Controlled observations involve which of the following activities?
  A)            Putting information together to form a new understanding   B)            Watching something carefully and noting events   C)            Testing a hypothesis or prediction   D)            Determining whether data are reliable and supportive  
  1. Two patients with schizophrenia have consented to be involved in clinical trials to determine the efficacy of a new antipsychotic medication. The researcher administers the new drug to one subject and a sugar pill to another subject. The patient who received the sugar pill received a treatment that is considered which of the following?
  A)            Sham treatment   B)            Unethical treatment   C)            Placebo   D)            Supplemental therapy  
  1. A research team has been formed to study a new medication and its effects on depression. The researcher wants to use a design where neither the clients nor the research staff will know who is receiving the medication or the placebo. What type of study is this group conducting?
  A)            An empirical study   B)            An evidence-based study   C)            A case-control study
 
D)            A double-blind study  
  1. A researcher is determining whether data that were obtained in a psychiatric nursing study are reliable and whether the data support the study hypothesis. In what part of the scientific process is the researcher functioning?
  A)            Experimentation   B)            Analysis   C)            Synthesis   D)            Prediction  
  1. The nurse is working with a 42-year-old female patient who is mildly overweight. The patient expresses a desire to “tone up” before summer and is interested in trying an over-the-counter weight loss remedy. The nurse should perform health education related to what subject?
  A)            To be wary of any product that claims rapid or effortless results without exercise   B)            The relatively low risk of using natural remedies   C)            The small amount of active ingredient in most over-the-counter treatments   D)            To choose a product that reports data indicating a high degree of effectiveness  
  1. Many people get health care information from the Internet. Hence, evidence-based health care can be threatened by the proliferation of pseudoscientific information available to the public. Which measure is currently being taken to prevent the misinformation of the healthcare consumer?
  A)            Evidence-based knowledge is currently only disseminated in professional journals and publications.   B)            The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has been denied the jurisdiction to prosecute unscrupulous internet marketers.   C)            Public education is being performed by the Federal Trade Commission (FTC) through a campaign called Operation Cure All.   D)            Websites publicizing misinformation on the Internet are being screened and blocked.       Chapter 05- Legal and Ethical Aspects  
  1. A psychiatric–mental health nurse has been consistently aware of the need to adhere to standards of practice during interactions with clients and their families. What is a standard of nursing practice?
  A)            The body of text in the state nurse practice act   B)            A document outlining minimum expectations for safe nursing practice   C)            Unwritten but traditional practices that constitute safe nursing care
 
D)            Part of the federal nurse practice act  
  1. Nursing students are reviewing the nurse practice act in the state where they reside. A state's nurse practice act has which of the following functions?
  A)            Makes recommendations for how nurses should practice   B)            Defines the scope and limit of nursing practice   C)            Defines specific situations that constitute malpractice   D)            Follows federal laws about nursing practice

Chapter 1. The Concept of Stress Adaptation

Test Bank for Psychiatric Mental Health Nursing 8th Edition by Townsend

Multiple Choice
  1. A client has experienced the death of a close family member and at the same time becomes unemployed. This situation has resulted in a 6-month score of 110 on the Recent Life Changes Questionnaire. How should the nurse evaluate this client data?
  2. The client is experiencing severe distress and is at risk for physical and psychological illness.
  3. A score of 110 on the Miller and Rahe Recent Life Changes Questionnaire indicates no significant threat of stress-related illness.
  4. Susceptibility to stress-related physical or psychological illness cannot be estimated without knowledge of coping resources and available supports.
  5. The client may view these losses as challenges and perceive them as opportunities.
ANS: C The Recent Life Changes Questionnaire is an expanded version of the Schedule of Recent Experiences and the Rahe-Holmes Social Readjustment Rating Scale. A 6-month score of 300 or more, or a year-score total of 500 or more, indicates high stress in a client’s life. However, positive coping mechanisms and strong social support can limit susceptibility to stress-related illnesses. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Evaluation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
  1. A physically and emotionally healthy client has just been fired. During a routine office visit he states to a nurse: “Perhaps this was the best thing to happen. Maybe I’ll look into pursuing an art degree.” How should the nurse characterize the client’s appraisal of the job loss stressor?
  2. Irrelevant
  3. Harm/loss
  4. Threatening
  5. Challenging
ANS: D The client perceives the situation of job loss as a challenge and an opportunity for growth. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Assessment | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
  1. Which client statement should alert a nurse that a client may be responding maladaptively to stress?
  2. “I’ve found that avoiding contact with others helps me cope.”
  3. “I really enjoy journaling; it’s my private time.”
  4. “I signed up for a yoga class this week.”
  5. “I made an appointment to meet with a therapist.”
ANS: A Reliance on social isolation as a coping mechanism is a maladaptive method to relieve stress. It can prevent learning appropriate coping skills and can prevent access to needed support systems.  KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Evaluation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
  1. A nursing student finds that she comes down with a sinus infection toward the end of every semester. When this occurs, which stage of stress is the student most likely experiencing?
  2. Alarm reaction stage
  3. Stage of resistance
  4. Stage of exhaustion
  5. Fight-or-flight stage
ANS: C At the stage of exhaustion, the student’s exposure to stress has been prolonged and adaptive energy has been depleted. Diseases of adaptation occur more frequently in this stage. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Assessment | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
  1. A school nurse is assessing a female high school student who is overly concerned about her appearance. The client’s mother states, “That’s not something to be stressed about!” Which is the most appropriate nursing response?
  2. “Teenagers! They don’t know a thing about real stress.”
  3. “Stress occurs only when there is a loss.”
  4. “When you are in poor physical condition, you can’t experience psychological well-being.”
  5. “Stress can be psychological. A threat to self-esteem may result in high stress levels.”
ANS: D Stress can be physical or psychological in nature. A perceived threat to self-esteem can be as stressful as a physiological change. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Implementation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
  1. A bright student confides in the school nurse about conflicts related to attending college or working to add needed financial support to the family. Which coping strategy is most appropriate for the nurse to recommend to the student at this time?
  2. Meditation
  3. Problem-solving training
  4. Relaxation
  5. Journaling
ANS: B The student must assess his or her situation and determine the best course of action. Problem-solving training, by providing structure and objectivity, can assist in decision making. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Implementation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
  1. An unemployed college graduate is experiencing severe anxiety over not finding a teaching position and has difficulty with independent problem-solving. During a routine physical examination, the graduate confides in the clinic nurse. Which is the most appropriate nursing intervention?
  2. Encourage the student to use the alternative coping mechanism of relaxation exercises.
  3. Complete the problem-solving process for the client.
  4. Work through the problem-solving process with the client.
  5. Encourage the client to keep a journal.
ANS: C During times of high anxiety and stress, clients will need more assistance in problem-solving and decision making. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Implementation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
  1. A school nurse is assessing a distraught female high school student who is overly concerned because her parents can’t afford horseback riding lessons. How should the nurse interpret the student’s reaction to her perceived problem?
  2. The problem is endangering her well-being.
  3. The problem is personally relevant to her.
  4. The problem is based on immaturity.
  5. The problem is exceeding her capacity to cope.
ANS: B Psychological stressors to self-esteem and self-image are related to how the individual perceives the situation or event. Self-image is of particular importance to adolescents, who feel entitled to have all the advantages that other adolescents experience. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Evaluation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
  1. Meditation has been shown to be an effective stress management technique. When meditation is effective, what should a nurse expect to assess?
  2. An achieved state of relaxation
  3. An achieved insight into one’s feelings
  4. A demonstration of appropriate role behaviors
  5. An enhanced ability to problem-solve
ANS: A Meditation produces relaxation by creating a special state of consciousness through focused concentration. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Evaluation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
  1. A distraught, single, first-time mother cries and asks a nurse, “How can I go to work if I can’t afford childcare?” What is the nurse’s initial action in assisting the client with the problem-solving process?
  2. Determine the risks and benefits for each alternative.
  3. Formulate goals for resolution of the problem.
  4. Evaluate the outcome of the implemented alternative.
  5. Assess the facts of the situation.
ANS: D Before any other steps can be taken, accurate information about the situation must be gathered and assessed. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Implementation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity

Test Bank for Medical Terminology for Health Professions 8th Edition by Ehrlich

Match each definition with the correct word part.
a. ​abnormal condition
b. ​deficient
c. ​excessive
d. ​pain, suffering
e. ​surgical removal
 
1. ​-algia
ANSWER:   d
 
2. ​-ectomy
ANSWER:   e
 
3. ​hyper-
ANSWER:   c
 
4. ​hypo-
ANSWER:   b
 
5. ​-osis
ANSWER:   a
 
Match each definition with the correct word part.
a. ​excessive bleeding
b. ​flow or discharge
c. ​rupture
d. ​surgical repair
e. ​surgical suturing
 
6. ​-plasty
ANSWER:   d
 
7. ​-rrhage
ANSWER:   a
 
8. ​-rrhaphy
ANSWER:   e
 
9. ​-rrhea
ANSWER:   b
 
10. ​-rrhexis
ANSWER:   c
 
Match each definition with the correct word part.
a. abnormal hardening​
b. ​surgical incision
c. ​bad, difficult, painful
d. ​creation of an artificial opening
e. ​inflammation
 
11. ​dys-
ANSWER:   c
 
12. ​-itis
ANSWER:   e
 
13. ​-ostomy
ANSWER:   d
 
14. ​-otomy
ANSWER:   b
 
15. ​-sclerosis
ANSWER:   a
 
Match each definition with the correct term.
a. subjective evidence of disease​
b. ​objective evidence of disease
c. ​signs and symptoms that occur together
d. ​sudden onset of a disease
e. ​temporary disappearance of symptoms
 
16. ​acute
ANSWER:   d
 
17. ​remission
ANSWER:   e
 
18. ​sign
ANSWER:   b
 
19. ​symptom
ANSWER:   a
 
20. ​syndrome
ANSWER:   c
 
Match each definition with the correct term.
a. any disease of the stomach​
b. ​frequent watery stools
c. ​pertaining to the lining of an artery
d. ​swelling
e. ​formation of pus
 
21. ​diarrhea
ANSWER:   b
 
22. ​edema
ANSWER:   d
 
23. ​endarterial
ANSWER:   c
 
24. ​gastrosis
ANSWER:   a
 
25. ​suppuration
ANSWER:   e
 
Match each definition with the correct term.
a. ​torn and jagged wound
b. ​higher-than-normal blood pressure
c. ​localized response to a tissue injury
d. ​lower-than-normal blood pressure
e. ​pathologic tissue change caused by disease or injury
 
26. ​hypertension
ANSWER:   b
 
27. ​hypotension
ANSWER:   d
 
28. ​inflammation
ANSWER:   c
 
29. ​laceration
ANSWER:   a
 
30. ​lesion
ANSWER:   e
 
Match each definition with the correct term.
a. abnormal passage between organs
b. crack-like sore of the skin
c. identification of a disease
d. prediction of a disease outcome
e. the study of all aspects of diseases
 
31. ​diagnosis
ANSWER:   c
 
32. ​fissure
ANSWER:   b
 
33. ​fistula
ANSWER:   a
 
34. ​pathology
ANSWER:   e
 
35. ​prognosis
ANSWER:   d
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