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Test Bank for The Human Body in Health and Disease 7th Edition by Patton

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By: Patton

Edition: 7th Edition

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Test Bank for The Human Body in Health and Disease 7th Edition by Patton

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1.   Which word is derived from the Greek word meaning “cutting up”?

a. Dissection
b. Physiology
c. Pathology
d. Anatomy

ANS:   D                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Memorization

REF:    P. 3                  TOP:    Introduction

2.   Which word is defined as the study of the function of living organisms and their parts?

a. Dissection
b. Physiology
c. Pathology
d. Anatomy

ANS:   B                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Memorization

REF:    p. 3                  TOP:    Introduction

3.   Which word is defined as the scientific study of disease?

a. Dissection
b. Physiology
c. Pathology
d. Anatomy

ANS:   C                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Memorization

REF:    P. 3                  TOP:    Introduction

4.   Cells

a. are more complex than tissues.
b. are the first level of organization in the body.
c. are the smallest living units of structure and function in the body.
d. both B and C.

ANS:   C                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Application     REF:    p. 6

TOP:    Structural levels of organization

5.   A group of cells that act together to perform a function is called a(n)

a. molecule.
b. organ.
c. tissue.
d. organism.

ANS:   C                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Memorization

REF:    p. 6                  TOP:    Structural levels of organization

6.   The heart is an example of a(n)

a. organ.
b. tissue.
c. organism.
d. system.

ANS:   A                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Application     REF:    p. 6

TOP:    Structural levels of organization

7.   The levels of organization from most simple to most complex are

a. cell chemical organ tissue system.
b. tissue cell chemical organ system.
c. chemical tissue cell organ system.
d. chemical cell tissue organ system.

ANS:   D                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Memorization

REF:    p. 5                  TOP:    Structural levels of organization

8.   When using directional terms to describe the body, it is assumed that the body is in what position?

a. Supine
b. Anatomical
c. Lateral
d. Prone

ANS:   B                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Memorization

REF:    p. 7                  TOP:    Anatomical position

9.   The supine position

a. describes the body lying face up.
b. is also called anatomical position.
c. describes the body lying face down.
d. both A and B.

ANS:   A                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Memorization

REF:    p. 7                  TOP:    Anatomical position

10.   The prone position

a. describes the body lying face up.
b. is also called the anatomical position.
c. describes the body lying face down.
d. both B and C.

ANS:   C                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Memorization

REF:    p. 7                  TOP:    Anatomical position

11.   Because humans walk upright, the term dorsal can be used in place of the term

a. inferior.
b. posterior.
c. anterior.
d. distal.

ANS:   B                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Memorization

REF:    p. 7                  TOP:    Anatomical direction

12.   The opposite term for posterior in humans is

a. superior.
b. anterior.
c. ventral.
d. both B and C.

ANS:   D                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Application     REF:    p. 7

TOP:    Anatomical direction

13.   The opposite term for superficial is

a. deep.
b. inferior.
c. posterior.
d. medial.

ANS:   A                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Memorization

REF:    p. 7                  TOP:    Anatomical direction

14.   The body section that divides the right ear from the left ear is a _____ section.

a. frontal
b. sagittal
c. coronal
d. transverse

ANS:   B                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Application     REF:    p. 9

TOP:    Planes or body sections

15.   The body section that divides the nose from the back of the head is a _____ section.

a. frontal
b. sagittal
c. midsagittal
d. transverse

ANS:   A                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Application     REF:    p. 9

TOP:    Planes or body sections

16.   A section that divides the body into mirror images is a _____ section.

a. frontal
b. coronal
c. midsagittal
d. transverse

ANS:   C                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Application     REF:    p. 9

TOP:    Planes or body sections

17.   The two major body cavities are called

a. thoracic and abdominal.
b. thoracic and pelvic.
c. dorsal and ventral.
d. mediastinum and pleural.

ANS:   C                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Memorization

REF:    p. 9                  TOP:    Body cavities

18.   The liver can be found in the

a. upper right quadrant.
b. epigastric region.
c. hypogastric region.
d. both A and B.

ANS:   D                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Application     REF:    p. 10

TOP:    Body cavities

19.   The word “leg” correctly describes the

a. area from the hip to the foot.
b. area from the knee to the ankle.
c. area between the hip and the knee.
d. femoral area.

ANS:   B                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Memorization

REF:    p. 13                TOP:    Body regions

20.   The human body tries to maintain a constant body temperature. This is an example of

a. homeostasis.
b. a positive feedback loop.
c. an effector.
d. a sensor.

ANS:   A                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Application     REF:    p. 14

TOP:    The balance of body functions

21.   The part of a feedback loop that has the direct effect on the regulated condition is called

a. homeostasis.
b. the effector.
c. the sensor.
d. the control center.

ANS:   B                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Memorization

REF:    p. 14                TOP:    The balance of body functions

22.   The part of the feedback loop that detects a change in the regulated condition is called

a. homeostasis.
b. the effector.
c. the sensor.
d. the control center.

ANS:   C                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Memorization

REF:    p. 14                TOP:    The balance of body functions

23.   The part of the feedback loop that compares the present condition within a body part or region to its homeostatic condition is called

a. homeostasis.
b. the effector.
c. the sensor.
d. the control center.

ANS:   D                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Memorization

REF:    p. 14                TOP:    The balance of body functions

24.   When your body temperature drops below normal, your muscles begin to contract rapidly, making you shiver and generating heat. In this case your muscles are acting as the

a. sensor.
b. effector.
c. control center.
d. both A and C.

ANS:   B                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Synthesis         REF:    p. 14

TOP:    The balance of body functions

25.   Which of the following body functions is an example of a positive feedback loop?

a. Maintaining a pH of 7.45 in the body
b. Forming a blood clot
c. Uterine contractions during labor
d. Both B and C

ANS:   D                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Application     REF:    pp. 15-16

TOP:    The balance of body functions

26.   The level of organization that precedes the organ level is the _____ level.

a. system
b. cellular
c. tissue
d. chemical

ANS:   C                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Memorization

REF:    p. 5                  TOP:    Structural levels of organization

27.   Which of these terms cannot be applied to a body in the anatomical position?

a. Dorsal
b. Posterior
c. Supine
d. Both A and B

ANS:   C                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Memorization

REF:    p. 7                  TOP:    Anatomical position

28.   Which term means toward the head?

a. Anterior
b. Superior
c. Superficial
d. Ventral

ANS:   B                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Memorization

REF:    p. 7                  TOP:    Anatomical direction

29.   Which describes the anatomical relationship of the wrist to the elbow?

a. The elbow is proximal to the wrist.
b. The elbow is distal to the wrist.
c. The elbow is superficial to the wrist.
d. The elbow is lateral to the wrist.

ANS:   A                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Application     REF:    p. 7

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DescriptionBy: Patton Edition: 7th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadBy: Varcarolis Edition: 3rd Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadEdition: 8th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadBy: Savage Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadBy: Townsend Edition: 8th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant DownloadBy: Burns Edition: 7th Edition Format: Downloadable ZIP Fille Resource Type: Test bank Duration: Unlimited downloads Delivery: Instant Download
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Test Bank for The Human Body in Health and Disease 7th Edition by Patton

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.   Which word is derived from the Greek word meaning “cutting up”?
a. Dissection
b. Physiology
c. Pathology
d. Anatomy
ANS:   D                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Memorization REF:    P. 3                  TOP:    Introduction 2.   Which word is defined as the study of the function of living organisms and their parts?
a. Dissection
b. Physiology
c. Pathology
d. Anatomy
ANS:   B                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Memorization REF:    p. 3                  TOP:    Introduction 3.   Which word is defined as the scientific study of disease?
a. Dissection
b. Physiology
c. Pathology
d. Anatomy
ANS:   C                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Memorization REF:    P. 3                  TOP:    Introduction 4.   Cells
a. are more complex than tissues.
b. are the first level of organization in the body.
c. are the smallest living units of structure and function in the body.
d. both B and C.
ANS:   C                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Application     REF:    p. 6 TOP:    Structural levels of organization 5.   A group of cells that act together to perform a function is called a(n)
a. molecule.
b. organ.
c. tissue.
d. organism.
ANS:   C                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Memorization REF:    p. 6                  TOP:    Structural levels of organization 6.   The heart is an example of a(n)
a. organ.
b. tissue.
c. organism.
d. system.
ANS:   A                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Application     REF:    p. 6 TOP:    Structural levels of organization 7.   The levels of organization from most simple to most complex are
a. cell chemical organ tissue system.
b. tissue cell chemical organ system.
c. chemical tissue cell organ system.
d. chemical cell tissue organ system.
ANS:   D                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Memorization REF:    p. 5                  TOP:    Structural levels of organization 8.   When using directional terms to describe the body, it is assumed that the body is in what position?
a. Supine
b. Anatomical
c. Lateral
d. Prone
ANS:   B                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Memorization REF:    p. 7                  TOP:    Anatomical position 9.   The supine position
a. describes the body lying face up.
b. is also called anatomical position.
c. describes the body lying face down.
d. both A and B.
ANS:   A                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Memorization REF:    p. 7                  TOP:    Anatomical position 10.   The prone position
a. describes the body lying face up.
b. is also called the anatomical position.
c. describes the body lying face down.
d. both B and C.
ANS:   C                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Memorization REF:    p. 7                  TOP:    Anatomical position 11.   Because humans walk upright, the term dorsal can be used in place of the term
a. inferior.
b. posterior.
c. anterior.
d. distal.
ANS:   B                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Memorization REF:    p. 7                  TOP:    Anatomical direction 12.   The opposite term for posterior in humans is
a. superior.
b. anterior.
c. ventral.
d. both B and C.
ANS:   D                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Application     REF:    p. 7 TOP:    Anatomical direction 13.   The opposite term for superficial is
a. deep.
b. inferior.
c. posterior.
d. medial.
ANS:   A                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Memorization REF:    p. 7                  TOP:    Anatomical direction 14.   The body section that divides the right ear from the left ear is a _____ section.
a. frontal
b. sagittal
c. coronal
d. transverse
ANS:   B                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Application     REF:    p. 9 TOP:    Planes or body sections 15.   The body section that divides the nose from the back of the head is a _____ section.
a. frontal
b. sagittal
c. midsagittal
d. transverse
ANS:   A                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Application     REF:    p. 9 TOP:    Planes or body sections 16.   A section that divides the body into mirror images is a _____ section.
a. frontal
b. coronal
c. midsagittal
d. transverse
ANS:   C                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Application     REF:    p. 9 TOP:    Planes or body sections 17.   The two major body cavities are called
a. thoracic and abdominal.
b. thoracic and pelvic.
c. dorsal and ventral.
d. mediastinum and pleural.
ANS:   C                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Memorization REF:    p. 9                  TOP:    Body cavities 18.   The liver can be found in the
a. upper right quadrant.
b. epigastric region.
c. hypogastric region.
d. both A and B.
ANS:   D                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Application     REF:    p. 10 TOP:    Body cavities 19.   The word “leg” correctly describes the
a. area from the hip to the foot.
b. area from the knee to the ankle.
c. area between the hip and the knee.
d. femoral area.
ANS:   B                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Memorization REF:    p. 13                TOP:    Body regions 20.   The human body tries to maintain a constant body temperature. This is an example of
a. homeostasis.
b. a positive feedback loop.
c. an effector.
d. a sensor.
ANS:   A                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Application     REF:    p. 14 TOP:    The balance of body functions 21.   The part of a feedback loop that has the direct effect on the regulated condition is called
a. homeostasis.
b. the effector.
c. the sensor.
d. the control center.
ANS:   B                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Memorization REF:    p. 14                TOP:    The balance of body functions 22.   The part of the feedback loop that detects a change in the regulated condition is called
a. homeostasis.
b. the effector.
c. the sensor.
d. the control center.
ANS:   C                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Memorization REF:    p. 14                TOP:    The balance of body functions 23.   The part of the feedback loop that compares the present condition within a body part or region to its homeostatic condition is called
a. homeostasis.
b. the effector.
c. the sensor.
d. the control center.
ANS:   D                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Memorization REF:    p. 14                TOP:    The balance of body functions 24.   When your body temperature drops below normal, your muscles begin to contract rapidly, making you shiver and generating heat. In this case your muscles are acting as the
a. sensor.
b. effector.
c. control center.
d. both A and C.
ANS:   B                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Synthesis         REF:    p. 14 TOP:    The balance of body functions 25.   Which of the following body functions is an example of a positive feedback loop?
a. Maintaining a pH of 7.45 in the body
b. Forming a blood clot
c. Uterine contractions during labor
d. Both B and C
ANS:   D                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Application     REF:    pp. 15-16 TOP:    The balance of body functions 26.   The level of organization that precedes the organ level is the _____ level.
a. system
b. cellular
c. tissue
d. chemical
ANS:   C                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Memorization REF:    p. 5                  TOP:    Structural levels of organization 27.   Which of these terms cannot be applied to a body in the anatomical position?
a. Dorsal
b. Posterior
c. Supine
d. Both A and B
ANS:   C                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Memorization REF:    p. 7                  TOP:    Anatomical position 28.   Which term means toward the head?
a. Anterior
b. Superior
c. Superficial
d. Ventral
ANS:   B                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Memorization REF:    p. 7                  TOP:    Anatomical direction 29.   Which describes the anatomical relationship of the wrist to the elbow?
a. The elbow is proximal to the wrist.
b. The elbow is distal to the wrist.
c. The elbow is superficial to the wrist.
d. The elbow is lateral to the wrist.
ANS:   A                     PTS:    1                      DIF:    Application     REF:    p. 7

Test Bank for Essentials of Psychiatric Mental Health Nursing 3rd Edition by Varcarolis

Table of Contents

Unit I: Essential Theoretical Concepts for Practice 1. Practicing the Science and the Art of Psychiatric Nursing 2. Mental Health and Mental Illness 3. Theories and Therapies 4. Biological Basis for Understanding Psychopharmacology 5. Settings for Psychiatric Care 6. Legal and Ethical Basis for Practice Unit II: Tools for Practice of the Art 7. Nursing Process and QSEN: The Foundation for Safe and Effective Care 8. Skills: Medium for All Nursing Practice 9. Therapeutic Relationships and the Clinical Interview Unit III: Caring for Patients with Psychobiological Disorders 10. Stress and Stress-Related Disorders 11. Anxiety, Anxiety Disorders, and Obsessive-Compulsive Disorders 12. Somatic Symptom Disorders and Related Disorders 13. Personality Disorders 14. Eating Disorders 15. Mood Disorders: Depression 16. Bipolar Spectrum Disorders 17. Schizophrenia Spectrum Disorders and Other Psychotic Disorders 18. Neurocognitive Disorders 19. Substance-Related and Addictive Disorders Unit IV: Caring for Patients Experiencing Psychiatric Emergencies 20. Crisis and Mass Disaster 21. Child, Partner, and Elder Violence 22. Sexual Violence 23. Suicidal Thoughts and Behaviors 24. Anger, Aggression, and Violence 25. Care for the Dying and Those Who Grieve Unit V: Age-Related Mental Health Disorders 26. Children and Adolescents 27. Adults 28. Older Adults  

Test Bank for Psychiatric Mental Health Nursing, 8th Edition Wanda Mohr

Chapter 01- Introduction to Psychiatric-Mental Health Nursing

  1. A nurse is giving a presentation about preventing mental illness to college freshmen. A student asks, “What does it mean to be mentally healthy?” Which of the following potential responses by the nurse is best?
  A)           “Mental health is difficult to define and depends on cultural norms.”   B)            “Mental health is marked by productivity, fulfilling relationships, and adaptability.”   C)            “Mental health is characterized by the absence of mental illness.”   D)           “Mental health is the performance of behavior that is accepted as normal.”  
  1. A 48-year-old independent, successful woman is recovering from a modified radical mastectomy. She states she was grateful that during the first few weeks after surgery her mother stayed with her and did “everything” for her. Which element of mental health does this reflect?
  A)           Reality orientation   B)            Mastery of the environment   C)            Self-governance   D)           Tolerance of the unknown  
  1. Why is the document Mental Health: A Report of the Surgeon General (1999) most significant?
  A)           Because it states clearly that there are effective treatments for mental illness   B)            Because it allocates research money to psychiatric facilities   C)            Because it sets new guidelines for use of restraints   D)           Because it establishes reimbursement guidelines for third-party payers  
  1. While a nurse is performing an admission assessment for a mental health client, the client states that all of his problems have been caused by his parents. The nurse knows that psychological factors that can influence mental health include which of the following?
 
A)           Neuroanatomy   B)            Emotional developmental level   C)            Values and beliefs   D)           Religion  
  1. What is the primary purpose of the five-axis system used in the fourth edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 4th edition, text revision(DSM-IV-TR)?
  A)           To separate the various mental disorders into five related categories   B)            To give a comprehensive picture of client functioning   C)            To improve prognostic ability   D)           To provide a decision-making algorithm for pharmacologic treatment  
  1. One limitation of the DSM relates to diagnostic labels given to children. The most problematic issue caused by applying adult categories to children is which of the following?
  A)           It prevents the proper treatment of childhood disorders.   B)            The criteria for diagnosis of a disorder are flexible for an adult, but not for children.   C)            Categories are based on manifestations of adult disorders, not research in children.   D)           The DSM was written before childhood psychological conditions were recognized.  
  1. Which of the following represents a problem complicating the treatment of people with mental illness?
  A)           Insurers' reimbursement decisions   B)            Increased responsibility for care by state mental hospitals   C)            Overuse of the well-coordinated mental health care system   D)           Lack of effective treatments  
  1. Julie, a 47-year-old woman, missed 1 week of work when she was hospitalized with bipolar disorder. She was placed on medication and was able to return to work. When asked about her absence, Julie informed coworkers that she was suffering from influenza. What is the most likely reason Julie lied about her illness?
  A)           This is a sign that the medication is not effectively treating her illness.   B)            Fear of rejection, isolation, and discrimination based on her mental health diagnosis
 
C)            Due to workplace policies that encourage the firing of those with mental illnesses   D)           To avoid eliciting sympathy among her coworkers  
  1. A 22-year-old man with a history of a recent suicide attempt is being treated for depression. Prior to becoming depressed, the client attended a prestigious art school and enjoyed many social and leisure activities. Of the following long-term goals for this client, which is consistent with an overarching recovery goal for all clients with mental disorders?
  A)           The client will not injure himself.   B)            The client's symptoms will be reduced.   C)            The client will show interest in social and leisure activities.   D)           The client will resume pre-illness functioning.  
  1. Which of the following approaches to care best reflects cultural competence?
  A)           Always assign nurses of a specific ethnic background to clients with the same ethnic background.   B)            Learn the behaviors and values associated with people of specific ethnic backgrounds.   C)            Assess the culturally mediated beliefs of each client.   D)           Believe that people are more alike than they are different.       Chapter 02- Neuroscience-Biology and Behavior  
  1. The basic units of structure and function in the nervous system are called which of the following?
  A)            Glial cells   B)            Neurons   C)            Axons   D)            Dendrites  
  1. The structure and function of a neuron form the basis for the overall function of the nervous system. What are the components of a neuron?
  A)            A glial cell, nucleus, organelles, dendrites, and axons   B)            A glial cell, nucleus, dendrites, and synapses   C)            A cell body, nucleus, organelles, dendrites, and axons   D)            A cell body, nucleus, axon, and synapses  
  1. A patient has researched the role of neurotransmitters in her mental illness. What is the role of neurotransmitters?
 
A)            Excite the receptor cell located inside the synaptic cleft.   B)            Inhibit the receptor cell found inside of glial cells.   C)            Communicate information within the receptor cell.   D)            Communicate information from one cell or cell group to another.  
  1. Because neurotransmitters are responsible for immediately transmitting impulses between nerve cells, they are known as which of the following?
  A)            First messengers   B)            Second messengers   C)            Receptors   D)            Synapses  
  1. A nurse is caring for a patient who is addicted to alcohol and drugs and is discussing the pathway of the brain responsible for this behavior. The nurse should know that the pathway of the brain thought to be involved in pleasurable sensations and the euphoria resulting from use of drugs is called the:
  A)            Tuberinfundibular dopamine pathway   B)            Nigrostriatal dopamine pathway   C)            Mesocortical dopamine pathway   D)            Mesolimbic dopamine pathway  
  1. A client lives with acquired deficits in emotional control, memory, and learning. What part of this client's brain is most likely affected?
  A)            Basal ganglia   B)            Brainstem   C)            Limbic system   D)            Cerebellum  
  1. You are caring for a mental health client who has developed difficulty with balance and muscle tone after a car accident that involved a head injury. Based on this information, what area of the brain was most likely injured in the accident?
  A)            Diencephalon   B)            Brainstem   C)            Cerebellum   D)            Pons  
  1. A client who experiences dysfunction in the hypothalamus is most likely to have
  A)            Maintaining homeostasis   B)            Processing sensory input
 
C)            Secreting melatonin   D)            Integrating motor activities  
  1. Sensory deprivation in infancy and childhood has adversely affected a boy's brain development. Which characteristic of the brain was most directly involved in this process?
  A)            Neuroplasticity   B)            Reactive plasticity   C)            Adaptive plasticity   D)            Synaptic plasticity  
  1. Rather than being 100%, concordance rates for schizophrenia in monozygotic twins are only 50%. Which of the following statements best explains this phenomenon?
  A)            Genetic predisposition to disease is frequently overstated.   B)            One twin is inherently more vulnerable in every case.   C)            Environmental experiences affect gene expression.   D)            The genetic pathway responsible for vulnerability is unrelated to being a twin.       Chapter 03- Conceptual Frameworks and Theories  
  1. A psychiatric–mental health nurse is aware of the importance of theories in the development and delivery of care. Which of the following is the best definition of a theory?
  A)            A group of related concepts or ideas   B)            A person's or group's beliefs about how something happens or works   C)            A prediction about two or more concepts   D)            A researchable question related to health care  
  1. Which of the following explains why theories are important to psychiatric–mental health nursing?
  A)            Theories provide more treatment options for clients.   B)            Theories add professionalism to health care.   C)            Theories simplify treatment decisions for most clients.   D)            Theories lead to the expansion of knowledge.  
  1. A client has been told by a psychologist that memories in his unconscious are contributing to his depression. This reasoning implies that the psychologist ascribes to what theory?
  A)            Psychoanalytic theory   B)            Behavior theory   C)            Cognitive–behavioral theory
 
D)            The humanistic perspective  
  1. A client's current plan of care includes interventions that are rooted in the concepts of reinforcement. Which theory of human behavior is being prioritized during this client's care?
  A)            Humanistic theory   B)            Sociocultural theory   C)            Behavioral theory   D)            Psychoanalytic theory  
  1. A client and her therapist have been discussing the notion that her psychopathology results from the blocking or distortion of personal growth, excessive stress, and unfavorable social conditions. This discussion is congruent with what theory?
  A)            Humanistic theory   B)            Interpersonal theory   C)            Biophysiological theory   D)            Sociocultural theory  
  1. During marital counseling, a man complains that his wife often “bombards” him with problems as soon as he settles down at home after work, which results in a prolonged argument. The wife admits that she does this but states she feels neglected and that her husband does not take the family problems seriously. She doesn't want her marriage to turn out like her parents' marriage. The wife admits that she sometimes provokes an argument in order to gain her husband's attention. How would a behaviorist most likely explain the wife's actions?
  A)            She has repressed painful memories about her emotionally distant father and is working out her anger at the parent in the marital relationship.   B)            Her thoughts about her parents' unhappy marriage are a justification for her behavior.   C)            She has an underlying anxiety disorder.   D)            The long argument in which she and her husband participate positively reinforces her behavior.  
  1. An adult man recalls that he was teased as a child about his inability to participate in sports. He began to avoid situations in which others might evaluate his behavior. He seeks treatment now because he is an accomplished musician but cannot perform for an audience. According to behavioral theory, his behavior is an example of which of the following concepts?
  A)            Discrimination   B)            Modeling   C)            Generalization   D)            Shaping  
  1. The nurse is working with a client who admits to having low self-esteem. The care team has determined that cognitive restructuring will likely enhance the client's self-esteem. Which of the following best describes the goals of this intervention?
 
A)            Avoid negative self-talk   B)            Replace negative self-talk with positive statements   C)            Change distorted thinking and the subsequent behaviors   D)            Use adaptive defense mechanisms  
  1. A 55-year-old woman is being treated for narcissistic personality disorder. The therapist demonstrates caring and appropriate regard for the client. The therapist's behavior is an example of which concept of behavior theory?
  A)            Shaping   B)            Discrimination   C)            Modeling   D)            Conditioning  
  1. In a group therapy session, group members confront a 35-year-old woman about her abuse of prescription pain medications. The woman states that, because a physician has prescribed her medication, she is not a drug addict. The nurse identifies this as an example of which of the following defense mechanisms?
  A)            Regression   B)            Projection   C)            Denial   D)            Sublimation     Chapter 04- Evidence-Based Practice  
  1. The nurse demonstrates a commitment to the health, safety, and welfare of people by providing evidence-based practice. What does the term “evidence-based practice” mean?
  A)            Care that integrates research and clinical expertise with the client's characteristics, culture, and preferences   B)            Care that bases decision making on established clinical protocols   C)            Care based on prior outcomes from the nurse's practice   D)            Care based on outcomes and research conducted by the practitioner  
  1. Many pseudoscientific practitioners function openly and market themselves as mainstream
  “therapists.” Why does the public often respond favorably to unconventional therapies?   A)            Pseudoscientific therapies are frequently more effective than conventional therapies.   B)            Further advancements can be made in effective pseudoscientific treatments with continued practice.   C)            Malpractice is minimized because pseudoscientific treatments are not empirically supported.
 
D)            Some clients and families are disenchanted with the outcomes of professionally approved treatments.  
  1. Nursing is both an art and a science. Which statement best represents how evidence-based practice encompasses these two aspects of nursing?
  A)            The art of nursing has been replaced by evidence-based practice.   B)            Multiple theoretical perspectives no longer guide evidence-based nursing care.   C)            The art of nursing is demonstrated through carrying out the science of nursing in a skillful, knowledgeable, intelligent, and ethical manner.   D)            The artful side of nursing is of less value to positive patient outcomes than is the science of nursing.  
  1. Evidence-based practice is based on the scientific method and empirical evidence. Which of the following is a principle of empirical evidence?
  A)            Scientific observations are subjective inferences made by the knowledgeable nurse researcher.   B)            Empirical studies may be designed to report the physical and mental effects of subjective experiences.   C)            Empirical evidence is not appropriate in the field of mental health because cognitions and emotions are subjective and unpredictable.   D)            Empirical knowledge is verifiable only with valid and reliable measurement instruments.  
  1. The nurse is part of team conducting a research study that involves controlled observations. Controlled observations involve which of the following activities?
  A)            Putting information together to form a new understanding   B)            Watching something carefully and noting events   C)            Testing a hypothesis or prediction   D)            Determining whether data are reliable and supportive  
  1. Two patients with schizophrenia have consented to be involved in clinical trials to determine the efficacy of a new antipsychotic medication. The researcher administers the new drug to one subject and a sugar pill to another subject. The patient who received the sugar pill received a treatment that is considered which of the following?
  A)            Sham treatment   B)            Unethical treatment   C)            Placebo   D)            Supplemental therapy  
  1. A research team has been formed to study a new medication and its effects on depression. The researcher wants to use a design where neither the clients nor the research staff will know who is receiving the medication or the placebo. What type of study is this group conducting?
  A)            An empirical study   B)            An evidence-based study   C)            A case-control study
 
D)            A double-blind study  
  1. A researcher is determining whether data that were obtained in a psychiatric nursing study are reliable and whether the data support the study hypothesis. In what part of the scientific process is the researcher functioning?
  A)            Experimentation   B)            Analysis   C)            Synthesis   D)            Prediction  
  1. The nurse is working with a 42-year-old female patient who is mildly overweight. The patient expresses a desire to “tone up” before summer and is interested in trying an over-the-counter weight loss remedy. The nurse should perform health education related to what subject?
  A)            To be wary of any product that claims rapid or effortless results without exercise   B)            The relatively low risk of using natural remedies   C)            The small amount of active ingredient in most over-the-counter treatments   D)            To choose a product that reports data indicating a high degree of effectiveness  
  1. Many people get health care information from the Internet. Hence, evidence-based health care can be threatened by the proliferation of pseudoscientific information available to the public. Which measure is currently being taken to prevent the misinformation of the healthcare consumer?
  A)            Evidence-based knowledge is currently only disseminated in professional journals and publications.   B)            The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has been denied the jurisdiction to prosecute unscrupulous internet marketers.   C)            Public education is being performed by the Federal Trade Commission (FTC) through a campaign called Operation Cure All.   D)            Websites publicizing misinformation on the Internet are being screened and blocked.       Chapter 05- Legal and Ethical Aspects  
  1. A psychiatric–mental health nurse has been consistently aware of the need to adhere to standards of practice during interactions with clients and their families. What is a standard of nursing practice?
  A)            The body of text in the state nurse practice act   B)            A document outlining minimum expectations for safe nursing practice   C)            Unwritten but traditional practices that constitute safe nursing care
 
D)            Part of the federal nurse practice act  
  1. Nursing students are reviewing the nurse practice act in the state where they reside. A state's nurse practice act has which of the following functions?
  A)            Makes recommendations for how nurses should practice   B)            Defines the scope and limit of nursing practice   C)            Defines specific situations that constitute malpractice   D)            Follows federal laws about nursing practice

Test Bank for Public Health Science and Nursing Practice Caring For Populations by Savage

Chapter 10: Mental Health MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1.According to Healthy People 2020, which of the following are characteristics of mental health? Select all that apply.
A. Engaging in productive activities
B. Having fulfilling relationships
C. Experiencing alterations in thinking
D. Adapting to change
E. Coping with challenges
ANS: A, B, D, E Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders. pp. 225-226 Heading: Introduction Integrated Processes: N/A Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Knowledge [Remembering] Concept: Promoting Health Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
1. Mental health is a state of successful performance of mental function, including engagement in productive activities.
2. Mental health is a state of successful performance of mental function, including being able to form fulfilling relationships with other people.
3. This is incorrect; it is an example of a mental disorder. Mental disorders are health conditions that are characterized by alterations in thinking, mood, or behavior that are associated with distress or impaired functioning.
4. Mental health is a state of successful performance of mental function, including the ability to adapt to change.
5. Mental health is a state of successful performance of mental function, including the ability to cope with challenges.
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health MULTIPLE CHOICE 2.In 2010, approximately how many people in the United States reported experiencing mental disorders in the previous year?
A. 15%
B. 50%
C. 30%
D. 25%
ANS: D Objective: 1. Define the burden of disease related to mental disorders using current epidemiological frameworks. pp. 226-227 Heading: Epidemiology of Mental Disorders Integrated Processes: N/A Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Comprehension [Understanding] Concept: Promoting Health Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A This is incorrect. In the United States in 2010 an estimated 25% of adults reported having mental disorders in the previous year.
B This is incorrect. In the United States in 2010 an estimated 25% of adults reported having mental disorders in the previous year.
C This is incorrect. In the United States in 2010 an estimated 25% of adults reported having mental disorders in the previous year.
D In the United States in 2010 an estimated 25% of adults reported having mental disorders in the previous year.
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health 3.A student nurse is studying stress and mental health. The student nurse learns that ____ is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events.
A. Intervention
B. Support
C. Resilience
D. Therapy
ANS: C Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders. pp. 229-231 Heading: Protective Factors: Building Resilience Integrated Processes: Teaching/Learning Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Trauma; Stress; Promoting Health; Nursing Roles Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A This is incorrect. Resilience is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events. Preventive and treatment interventions are useful tools to build on an individual’s natural resilience to promote positive outcomes.
B This is incorrect. Resilience is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events. Support from family, friends, and community is an important part of strengthening an individual’s resilience.
C Resilience is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events.
D This is incorrect. Resilience is based on an individual’s ability to access protective factors that exist at different levels in order to withstand chronic stress or recover from traumatic life events. Therapy is an important part of an overall treatment plan, in conjunction with intervention, support, and an individual’s capacity for resilience.
PTS: 1 CON: Trauma | Stress | Promoting Health | Nursing Roles 4.____ addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder.
A. Indicated prevention
B. Selective prevention
C. Universal prevention
D. Both 1 and 2
ANS: A Objective: 4. Apply current evidence-based population level interventions to the prevention of mental disorders and the promotion of optimal mental health for communities and populations. pp. 232-233 Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Institute of Medicine Model of Prevention Integrated Processes: Nursing Process Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Comprehension [Understanding] Concept: Promoting Health Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A Indicated prevention addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder. The purpose of indicated techniques is to delay or reduce the severity of a mental disorder.
B Selective prevention includes interventions provided to specific subgroups that are known to be at high risk for mental disorders owing to biological, psychological, social, or environmental factors but that have not yet been diagnosed with mental disorders. High-risk subgroups include but are not limited to those with a family history of mental disorders, history of adverse childhood events, or victims of violence.
C Universal prevention refers to prevention interventions provided to the entire population, not just those who may be at risk. The interventions include but are not limited to public service announcements provided to the public at large through billboards, media messages (print and electronic), or general health education programs.
D Indicated prevention addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder. The purpose of indicated techniques is to delay or reduce the severity of a mental disorder. Selective prevention includes interventions provided to specific subgroups that are known to be at high risk for mental disorders owing to biological, psychological, social, or environmental factors but that have not yet been diagnosed with mental disorders. High-risk subgroups include but are not limited to those with a family history of mental disorders, history of adverse childhood events, or victims of violence.
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health 5.The public health nurse (PHN) recognizes that which of the following are used as screening tools for depression?
A. Patient Health Questionnaire 2
B. Center for Epidemiological Studies Depression Scale (CESD-10)
C. Brief Symptom Checklist-18 of the My Mood Monitor (M-3)
D. Both 1 and 2
ANS: D Objective: 5. Describe systems approaches to the promotion of mental health and the prevention and treatment of mental health disorders. p. 232 Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Measure of Mental Health: Health-Related Quality of Life Integrated Processes: Nursing Process Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Promoting Health; Mood; Assessment Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A Tools to screen for depression include the Patient Health Questionnaire 2 and the CESD-10.
B Tools to screen for depression include the Patient Health Questionnaire 2 and the CESD-10.
C This is incorrect. Tools to screen for depression include the Patient Health Questionnaire 2 and the CESD-10. Screening tools for anxiety disorders include the Brief Symptom Checklist-18 of the My Mood Monitor (M-3).
D Tools to screen for depression include the Patient Health Questionnaire 2 and the CESD-10.
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health | Mood | Assessment 6.During a course on mental disorders, a PHN learns that the term serious mental illness (SMI) refers to diagnosable mental disorders that may disrupt a person’s ability to function and may qualify that person for support services. The PHN also notes that the mental disorders that can lead to SMI include:
A. Mild depression
B. Panic disorder
C. Schizophrenia
D. Both 2 and 3
ANS: D Objective: 1. Define the burden of disease related to mental disorders using current epidemiological frameworks. pp. 225-226 Heading: Introduction Integrated Processes: Teaching/Learning Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Cognition; Mood; Stress; Promoting Health; Nursing Roles Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A This is incorrect. Major depression, however, is one of the mental disorders that can lead to SMI.
B Both panic disorder and schizophrenia, among other mental disorders, can lead to SMI.
C Both schizophrenia and panic disorder, among other mental disorders, can lead to SMI.
D The mental disorders that can lead to SMI include major depression, panic disorder, schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD), post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), and borderline personality disorder.
PTS: 1 CON: Cognition | Mood | Stress | Promoting Health | Nursing Roles 7.While studying the prevalence of mental health disorders worldwide, a PHN learns about the World Mental Health Survey, which is used to determine estimates of human capital costs and prevalence of mental disorders in a wide range of countries. The survey was developed by
A. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
B. The World Health Organization (WHO)
C. The Institute of Medicine (IOM)
D. The World Health Assembly
ANS: B Objective: 1. Define the burden of disease related to mental disorders using current epidemiological frameworks. p. 227 Heading: Epidemiology of Mental Disorders > Surveillance of Mental Health Disorders Integrated Processes: Teaching/Learning Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Promoting Health; Nursing Roles Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A This is incorrect. WHO developed the World Mental Health Survey to estimate human capital costs and mental disorders prevalence on a global scale. The CDC conducts many types of surveys on the prevalence of mental disorders but the organization did not develop the World Mental Health Survey.
B The WHO developed the World Mental Health Survey to estimate human capital costs and mental disorders prevalence on a global scale.
C This is incorrect. WHO developed the World Mental Health Survey to estimate human capital costs and mental disorders prevalence on a global scale. The IOM is involved in screening for mental health disorders and addresses the need for appropriate behavioral health treatment in its report, Improving the Quality of Health Care for Mental and Substance-Use Conditions: Quality Chasm Series.
D This is incorrect. WHO developed the World Mental Health Survey to estimate human capital costs and mental disorders prevalence on a global scale. The World Health Assembly issued a resolution on mental health that aims to reduce the global burden of mental disorders and improve overall mental health worldwide.
PTS: 1 CON: Promoting Health | Nursing Roles 8.Which ethnic group has the highest 12-month prevalence of a mental disorder?
A. Hispanics
B. African Americans
C. Asian Americans
D. Non-Hispanic whites
ANS: D Objective: 1. Define the burden of disease related to mental disorders using current epidemiological frameworks. pp. 227-228 Heading: Epidemiology of Mental Disorders > Prevalence of Mental Health Disorders Integrated Processes: N/A Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Knowledge [Remembering] Concept: Promoting Health Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A This is incorrect. Non-Hispanic whites have the highest 12-month prevalence rate for mental disorders at 21% compared with 16% for Hispanics.
B This is incorrect. Non-Hispanic whites have the highest 12-month prevalence rate for mental disorders at 21% compared with 15% for African Americans.
C This is incorrect. Non-Hispanic whites have the highest 12-month prevalence rate for mental disorders at 21% compared with 9% for Asian Americans.
D Non-Hispanic whites have the highest 12-month prevalence rate for mental disorders at 21%.
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health 9.A PHN learns in a behavioral health class that the relationship between physiology and mental health plays an important role in mental disorders. Which of the following physiological factors may contribute to the development of mental disorders?
A. Conditions that affect brain chemistry, such as medication side effects or toxins
B. Physical trauma
C. 1 and 2
D. Unstable family life
ANS: C Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders. pp. 228-229 Heading: Behavioral, Biological, Environmental, and Socioeconomic Risk Factors > Individual Level Risk Factors for Mental Disorders Integrated Processes: Teaching/Learning Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Application] Concept: Cognition; Trauma; Promoting Health Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A Both conditions that affect brain chemistry and physical trauma are the physiological factors that may contribute to the development of mental disorders.
B Both physical trauma and conditions that affect brain chemistry are physiological factors that may contribute to the development of mental disorders.
C Conditions that affect brain chemistry and physical trauma are two of the physiological factors that may contribute to the development of mental disorders.
D This is incorrect. Conditions that affect brain chemistry and physical trauma are two of the physiological factors that may contribute to the development of mental disorders. An unstable family life is not a physiological factor, although it may also contribute to the development of mental disorders.
PTS:1CON:Cognition | Trauma | Promoting Health 10.Which of the following community environment factors play a role in the development of mental disorders?
A. Living in high crime areas
B. Poverty
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Family instability
ANS: C Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders. p. 229 Heading: Behavioral, Biological, Environmental, and Socioeconomic Risk Factors > Community-Level Risk Factors for Mental Disorders Integrated Processes: N/A Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Comprehension [Understanding] Concept: Promoting Health Difficulty: Easy
Feedback
A Living in high crime areas is a factor, along with poverty.
B Both poverty and living in high crime areas play a role in the development of mental disorders.
C Both poverty and living in high crime areas play a role in the development of mental disorders.
D This is incorrect. Although family instability often contributes to the development of mental disorders, it is not considered a community environment factor.
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health 11.____ is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable.
A. Indicated prevention
B. Stigma
C. Risk factors
D. Transinstitutionalization
ANS: B Objective: 3. Define the difference between behavioral, biological, environmental, and socioeconomic risk factors related to mental health disorders. pp. 231-232 Heading: Culture, Stigma, and Mental Health Disorders Integrated Processes: N/A Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Comprehension [Understanding] Concept: Promoting Health Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A This is incorrect. Stigma is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable. Indicated prevention addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder.
B Stigma is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable.
C This is incorrect. Stigma is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable. Risk factors increase an individual’s chance of developing a mental disorder.
D This is incorrect. Stigma is a combination of personal attributes and societal stereotypes related to human characteristics viewed as unacceptable. Transinstitutionalization refers to the growing number of mentally ill persons who are homeless, in jail, in shelters, or in other facilities instead of being home or in a hospital.
PTS:1CON:Promoting Health 12.A nurse interested in working with persons with mental disorders who live in poverty understands that the most effective treatment involves multiple sectors of society, such as government agencies, grass roots groups, nonprofits, and businesses, working in tandem. This interrelationship is called:
A. Indicated prevention
B. Intersectoral strategies
C. Health-Related Quality of Life
D. Institute of Medicine Model of Prevention
ANS: B Objective: 4. Apply current evidence-based population level interventions to the prevention of mental disorders and the promotion of optimal mental health for communities and populations. p. 233 Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Promotion of Mental Health and Policy Integrated Processes: Nursing Process Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Promoting Health; Collaboration Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A This is incorrect. Intersectoral strategies engage more than one sector of society with a shared interest such as government agencies, grass roots citizens groups, nonprofits, and businesses. Indicated prevention addresses specific subgroups at highest risk for development of a mental disorder or those that are showing early signs of a mental disorder.
B Intersectoral strategies engage more than one sector of society with a shared interest such as government agencies, grass roots citizens groups, nonprofits, and businesses.
C This is incorrect. Intersectoral strategies engage more than one sector of society with a shared interest such as government agencies, grass roots citizens groups, nonprofits, and businesses. Health-Related Quality of Life is the self-perceived impact of physical and emotional health on overall quality of life.
D This is incorrect. Intersectoral strategies engage more than one sector of society with a shared interest such as government agencies, grass roots citizens groups, nonprofits, and businesses. The Institute of Medicine Model of Prevention is a framework for mental disorders that clearly separates prevention into three categories with specific interventions at each level.
PTS: 1 CON: Promoting Health | Collaboration 13.A recent graduate nurse working in an urban labor and delivery unit had a patient who experienced a difficult labor. The mother, suffering from postpartum depression (PPD), committed suicide a year after giving birth. Although the nurse knew the basics about PPD, the nurse immediately studied the condition in depth and learned that PPD:
A. Can be triggered by a massive hormone drop following delivery
B. Can intensify to cause delusions
C. Occurs soon after delivery
D. All of the above
ANS: D Objective: 4. Apply current evidence-based population level interventions to the prevention of mental disorders and the promotion of optimal mental health for communities and populations. pp. 233-235 Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Secondary Prevention: Screening for Mental Disorders Integrated Processes: Nursing Process Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Pregnancy; Mood; Violence; Promoting Health; Nursing Roles Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A PPD can be triggered by a massive post-delivery hormone drop, intensify enough to cause delusions, and occur soon after delivery.
B PPD can be triggered by a massive post-delivery hormone drop, intensify enough to cause delusions, and occur soon after delivery.
C PPD can be triggered by a massive post-delivery hormone drop, intensify enough to cause delusions, and occur soon after delivery.
D PPD can be triggered by a massive post-delivery hormone drop, intensify enough to cause delusions, and occur soon after delivery.
PTS: 1 CON: Pregnancy | Mood | Violence | Promoting Health | Nursing Roles 14.A nurse working in labor and delivery requested permission from the nurse manager to conduct a quality improvement project to screen patients that might be susceptible to PPD. After completing the project, which of the following screening guidelines did the unit incorporate?
A. All patients will be screened for PPD when they are admitted to the labor and delivery unit.
B. Patients at high risk are referred to the attending obstetrician.
C. Before being discharged, all new mothers will complete a questionnaire specific to PPD symptoms.
D. All of the above
ANS: D Objective: Apply current evidence-based population level interventions to the prevention of mental disorders and the promotion of optimal mental health for communities and populations. pp. 233-235 Heading: Prevention of Mental Disorders and Promotion of Mental Health > Secondary Prevention: Screening for Mental Disorders Integrated Processes: Nursing Process Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application [Applying] Concept: Pregnancy; Mood; Promoting Health; Assessment; Quality Improvement Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
A This is incorrect. Screening, high-risk referrals to the attending obstetrician and completion of a PPD symptom questionnaire were all incorporated.
B This is incorrect. Screening, high-risk referrals to the attending obstetrician and completion of a PPD symptom questionnaire were all incorporated.
C This is incorrect. Screening, high-risk referrals to the attending obstetrician and completion of a PPD symptom questionnaire were all incorporated.
D Screening, high-risk referrals to the attending obstetrician and completion of a PPD symptom questionnaire were all incorporated.
PTS:1 CON: Pregnancy | Mood | Promoting Health | Assessment | Quality Improvement 15.A PHN treats a patient who may be depressed. To verify suspicions, the PHN checks ____, the definitive clinical guide for diagnosing mental disorders and providing consistency and accuracy in the screening for mental disorders.
A. The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5)
B. The Center for Epidemiological Studies Depression Scale (CESD-10)
C. Patient Health Questionnaire 2
D. Brief System Checklist-18 of the My Mood Monitor
ANS: A
Chapter 1. The Concept of Stress Adaptation

Test Bank for Psychiatric Mental Health Nursing 8th Edition by Townsend

Multiple Choice
  1. A client has experienced the death of a close family member and at the same time becomes unemployed. This situation has resulted in a 6-month score of 110 on the Recent Life Changes Questionnaire. How should the nurse evaluate this client data?
  2. The client is experiencing severe distress and is at risk for physical and psychological illness.
  3. A score of 110 on the Miller and Rahe Recent Life Changes Questionnaire indicates no significant threat of stress-related illness.
  4. Susceptibility to stress-related physical or psychological illness cannot be estimated without knowledge of coping resources and available supports.
  5. The client may view these losses as challenges and perceive them as opportunities.
ANS: C The Recent Life Changes Questionnaire is an expanded version of the Schedule of Recent Experiences and the Rahe-Holmes Social Readjustment Rating Scale. A 6-month score of 300 or more, or a year-score total of 500 or more, indicates high stress in a client’s life. However, positive coping mechanisms and strong social support can limit susceptibility to stress-related illnesses. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Evaluation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
  1. A physically and emotionally healthy client has just been fired. During a routine office visit he states to a nurse: “Perhaps this was the best thing to happen. Maybe I’ll look into pursuing an art degree.” How should the nurse characterize the client’s appraisal of the job loss stressor?
  2. Irrelevant
  3. Harm/loss
  4. Threatening
  5. Challenging
ANS: D The client perceives the situation of job loss as a challenge and an opportunity for growth. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Assessment | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
  1. Which client statement should alert a nurse that a client may be responding maladaptively to stress?
  2. “I’ve found that avoiding contact with others helps me cope.”
  3. “I really enjoy journaling; it’s my private time.”
  4. “I signed up for a yoga class this week.”
  5. “I made an appointment to meet with a therapist.”
ANS: A Reliance on social isolation as a coping mechanism is a maladaptive method to relieve stress. It can prevent learning appropriate coping skills and can prevent access to needed support systems.  KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Evaluation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
  1. A nursing student finds that she comes down with a sinus infection toward the end of every semester. When this occurs, which stage of stress is the student most likely experiencing?
  2. Alarm reaction stage
  3. Stage of resistance
  4. Stage of exhaustion
  5. Fight-or-flight stage
ANS: C At the stage of exhaustion, the student’s exposure to stress has been prolonged and adaptive energy has been depleted. Diseases of adaptation occur more frequently in this stage. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Assessment | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
  1. A school nurse is assessing a female high school student who is overly concerned about her appearance. The client’s mother states, “That’s not something to be stressed about!” Which is the most appropriate nursing response?
  2. “Teenagers! They don’t know a thing about real stress.”
  3. “Stress occurs only when there is a loss.”
  4. “When you are in poor physical condition, you can’t experience psychological well-being.”
  5. “Stress can be psychological. A threat to self-esteem may result in high stress levels.”
ANS: D Stress can be physical or psychological in nature. A perceived threat to self-esteem can be as stressful as a physiological change. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Implementation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
  1. A bright student confides in the school nurse about conflicts related to attending college or working to add needed financial support to the family. Which coping strategy is most appropriate for the nurse to recommend to the student at this time?
  2. Meditation
  3. Problem-solving training
  4. Relaxation
  5. Journaling
ANS: B The student must assess his or her situation and determine the best course of action. Problem-solving training, by providing structure and objectivity, can assist in decision making. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Implementation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
  1. An unemployed college graduate is experiencing severe anxiety over not finding a teaching position and has difficulty with independent problem-solving. During a routine physical examination, the graduate confides in the clinic nurse. Which is the most appropriate nursing intervention?
  2. Encourage the student to use the alternative coping mechanism of relaxation exercises.
  3. Complete the problem-solving process for the client.
  4. Work through the problem-solving process with the client.
  5. Encourage the client to keep a journal.
ANS: C During times of high anxiety and stress, clients will need more assistance in problem-solving and decision making. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Implementation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
  1. A school nurse is assessing a distraught female high school student who is overly concerned because her parents can’t afford horseback riding lessons. How should the nurse interpret the student’s reaction to her perceived problem?
  2. The problem is endangering her well-being.
  3. The problem is personally relevant to her.
  4. The problem is based on immaturity.
  5. The problem is exceeding her capacity to cope.
ANS: B Psychological stressors to self-esteem and self-image are related to how the individual perceives the situation or event. Self-image is of particular importance to adolescents, who feel entitled to have all the advantages that other adolescents experience. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Evaluation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
  1. Meditation has been shown to be an effective stress management technique. When meditation is effective, what should a nurse expect to assess?
  2. An achieved state of relaxation
  3. An achieved insight into one’s feelings
  4. A demonstration of appropriate role behaviors
  5. An enhanced ability to problem-solve
ANS: A Meditation produces relaxation by creating a special state of consciousness through focused concentration. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Evaluation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
  1. A distraught, single, first-time mother cries and asks a nurse, “How can I go to work if I can’t afford childcare?” What is the nurse’s initial action in assisting the client with the problem-solving process?
  2. Determine the risks and benefits for each alternative.
  3. Formulate goals for resolution of the problem.
  4. Evaluate the outcome of the implemented alternative.
  5. Assess the facts of the situation.
ANS: D Before any other steps can be taken, accurate information about the situation must be gathered and assessed. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Implementation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity

Test Bank for Shortell and Kaluznys Healthcare Management 7th Edition by Burns

CHAPTER 1: Delivering Value: The Global Challenge in Health Care Management   MULTIPLE CHOICE  
  1. What is one issue that health care organizations must address in order to create and deliver value?
a. To create appropriate barriers to health care for equity
b. To improve access to health care
c. To increase cost acceleration
d. To decrease the overall quality of care
    ANS:  B  
  Feedback
A Incorrect: Improving access to health care must be addressed to create and deliver value.
B Correct: Improving access to health care must be addressed to create and deliver value.
C Incorrect: Improving access to health care must be addressed to create and deliver value.
D Incorrect: Improving access to health care must be addressed to create and deliver value.
    PTS:   1  
  1. Health care concerns shared by the United States, China, and India include concerns over ____.
a. the consolidated financial mechanism
b. lack of spending at the local level
c. the low number of specialists
d. lifestyle issues and behaviors
    ANS:  D  
  Feedback
A Incorrect: Health care concerns shared by the United States, China, and India include concerns over lifestyle issues and behaviors.
B Incorrect: Health care concerns shared by the United States, China, and India include concerns over lifestyle issues and behaviors.
C Incorrect: Health care concerns shared by the United States, China, and India include concerns over lifestyle issues and behaviors.
D Correct: Health care concerns shared by the United States, China, and India include concerns over lifestyle issues and behaviors.
    PTS:   1  
  1. The Premier Hospital Quality Incentive Demonstration (PHQID) was launched to determine if economic incentives are effective at improving ____.
a. the cost of inpatient care c. the cost of outpatient care
b. the quality of inpatient care d. the quality of outpatient care
    ANS:  B  
  Feedback
A Incorrect: The Premier Hospital Quality Incentive Demonstration (PHQID) was launched to determine if economic incentives are effective at improving the quality of inpatient care.
B Correct: The Premier Hospital Quality Incentive Demonstration (PHQID) was launched to determine if economic incentives are effective at improving the quality of inpatient care.
C Incorrect: The Premier Hospital Quality Incentive Demonstration (PHQID) was launched to determine if economic incentives are effective at improving the quality of inpatient care.
D Incorrect: The Premier Hospital Quality Incentive Demonstration (PHQID) was launched to determine if economic incentives are effective at improving the quality of inpatient care.
    PTS:   1  
  1. Investor-owned facilities comprise about ____ percent of the hospital sector.
a. 15–20 c. 55–60
b. 30–35 d. 75–80
    ANS:  A  
  Feedback
A Correct: Investor-owned facilities comprise about 15–20 percent of the hospital sector.
B Incorrect: Investor-owned facilities comprise about 15–20 percent of the hospital sector.
C Incorrect: Investor-owned facilities comprise about 15–20 percent of the hospital sector.
D Incorrect: Investor-owned facilities comprise about 15–20 percent of the hospital sector.
    PTS:   1  
  1. Organizations within the health care industry have increasingly consolidated into ____ over the past two decades with the stated objective of being more efficient, but may not operate as such.
a. community care centers c. systems
b. corporations d. foundations
    ANS:  C  
  Feedback
A Incorrect: Organizations within the health care industry have increasingly consolidated into systems over the past two decades with the stated objective of being more efficient, but may not operate as such.
B Incorrect: Organizations within the health care industry have increasingly consolidated into systems over the past two decades with the stated objective of being more efficient, but may not operate as such.
C Correct: Organizations within the health care industry have increasingly consolidated into systems over the past two decades with the stated objective of being more efficient, but may not operate as such.
D Incorrect: Organizations within the health care industry have increasingly consolidated into systems over the past two decades with the stated objective of being more efficient, but may not operate as such.
    PTS:   1  
  1. The Human Relations School ascertains that in order to improve productivity, management must ____.
a. implement the top-down control of work
b. minimize the input of workers
c. offer monetary incentives
d. understand the informal organization of workers
    ANS:  D
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