Content | TEST BANK Introduction To Maternity And Pediatric Nursing 8th Edition
Chapter 01: The Past, Present, and Future
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. A patient chooses to have the certified nurse-midwife (CNM) provide care during her
pregnancy. What does the CNMs scope of practice include?
a. Practice independent from medical supervision
b. Comprehensive prenatal care
c. Attendance at all deliveries
d. Cesarean sections
ANS: BThe CNM provides comprehensive prenatal and postnatal care, attends uncomplicated
deliveries, and ensures that a backup physician is available in case of unforeseen
problems.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: Page 6 OBJ: 12
TOP: Advance Practice Nursing Roles KEY: Nursing Process Step: Implementation
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection of
Disease
2. Which medical pioneer discovered the relationship between the incidence of puerperal
fever and unwashed hands?
a. Karl Cred
b. Ignaz Semmelweis
c. Louis Pasteur
d. Joseph Lister
ANS: B
Ignaz Semmelweis deduced that puerperal fever was septic, contagious, and transmitted by
the unwashed hands of physicians and medical students.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: Page 2 OBJ: 1
TOP: The Past KEY: Nursing Process Step: N/A
MSC: NCLEX: Safe, Effective Care Environment: Safety and Infection Control
3. A pregnant woman who has recently immigrated to the United States comments to the
nurse, I am afraid of childbirth. It is so dangerous. I am afraid I will die. What is the best
nursing response reflecting cultural sensitivity?
a. Maternal mortality in the United States is extremely low.
b. Anesthesia is available to relieve pain during labor and childbirth.
c. Tell me why you are afraid of childbirth.
d. Your condition will be monitored during labor and delivery.
ANS: C
Asking the patient about her concerns helps promote understanding and individualizes
patient care.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: Page 7-8 OBJ: 8
TOP: Cross-Cultural Care KEY: Nursing Process Step: Implementation
MSC: NCLEX: Psychosocial Integrity: Psychological Adaptation
4. An urban area has been reported to have a high perinatal mortality rate. What information
does this provide?
a. Maternal and infant deaths per 100,000 live births per year
b. Deaths of fetuses weighing more than 500 g per 10,000 births per year
c. Deaths of infants up to 1 year of age per 1000 live births per year
d. Fetal and neonatal deaths per 1000 live births per year
ANS: D
The perinatal mortality rate includes fetal and neonatal deaths per 1000 live births per year.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: Page 12, Box 1-6
OBJ: 9 TOP: The Present-Child Care
KEY: Nursing Process Step: Implementation
MSC: NCLEX: Safe, Effective Care Environment: Coordinated Care
5. What is the focus of current maternity practice?
a. Hospital births for the majority of women
b. The traditional family unit
c. Separation of labor rooms from delivery rooms
d. A quality family experience for each patient
ANS: D
Current maternity practice focuses on a high-quality family experience for all families,
traditional or otherwise.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: Page 6 OBJ: 7
TOP: The Present-Maternity Care KEY: Nursing Process Step: N/A
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance
6. Who advocated the establishment of the Childrens Bureau?
a. Lillian Wald
b. Florence Nightingale
c. Florence Kelly
d. Clara Barton
ANS: A
Lillian Wald is credited with suggesting the establishment of a federal Childrens Bureau.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: Page 4 OBJ: 1 | 2
TOP: The Past KEY: Nursing Process Step: Implementation
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Growth and Development
7. What was the result of research done in the 1930s by the Childrens Bureau?
a. Children with heart problems are now cared for by pediatric cardiologists.
b. The Child Abuse and Prevention Act was passed.
c. Hot lunch programs were established in many schools.
d. Childrens asylums were founded.
ANS: C
School hot lunch programs were developed as a result of research by the Childrens Bureau
on the effects of economic depression on children.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: Page 4 OBJ: 2 | 3
TOP: The Past KEY: Nursing Process Step: N/A
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Coordinated Care
8. What government program was implemented to increase the educational exposure of
preschool children?
a. WIC
b. Title XIX of Medicaid
c. The Childrens Charter
d. Head Start
ANS: D
Head Start programs were established to increase educational exposure of preschool
children.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: Page 3 OBJ: 5
TOP: Government Influences in Maternity and Pediatric Care KEY: Nursing Process Step:
N/A
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Growth and Development
9. What guidelines define multidisciplinary patient care in terms of expected outcome and
timeframe from different areas of care provision?
a. Clinical pathways
b. Nursing outcome criteria
c. Standards of care
d. Nursing care plan
ANS: A
Clinical pathways, also known as critical pathways or care maps, are collaborative
guidelines that define patient care across disciplines. Expected progress within a specified
timeline is identified.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: Page 12 OBJ: 14
TOP: Health Care Delivery Systems KEY: Nursing Process Step: N/A
MSC: NCLEX: Safe, Effective Care Environment: Coordinated Care
10. A nursing student has reviewed a hospitalized pediatric patient chart, interviewed her
mother, and collected admission data. What is the next step the student will take to develop
a nursing care plan for this child?
a. Identify measurable outcomes with a timeline.
b. Choose specific nursing interventions for the child.
c. Determine appropriate nursing diagnoses.
d. State nursing actions related to the childs medical diagnosis.
ANS: C
The nurse uses assessment data to select appropriate nursing diagnoses from the NANDAI list. Outcomes and interventions are then developed to address the relevant nursing
diagnoses.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: Page 11 OBJ: 13
TOP: Nursing Process KEY: Nursing Process Step: Nursing Diagnosis
MSC: NCLEX: Safe, Effective Care Environment: Coordinated Care
11. A nursing student on an obstetric rotation question the floor nurse about the definition
of the LVN/LPN scope of practice. What resource can the nurse suggest to the student?
a. American Nurses Association
b. States board of nursingc. Joint Commission
d. Association of Womens Health, Obstetric and Neonatal Nurses
ANS: B
The scope of practice of the LVN/LPN is published by the states board of nursing.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: Page 3, Legal and Ethical Considerations
OBJ: 18 TOP: Critical Thinking
KEY: Nursing Process Step: Implementation
MSC: NCLEX: Safe, Effective Care Environment: Coordinated Care
12. What was recommended by Karl Cred in 1884?
a. All women should be delivered in a hospital setting.
b. Chemical means should be used to combat infection.
c. Podalic version should be done on all fetuses.
d. Silver nitrate should be placed in the eyes of newborns.
ANS: D
In 1884 Karl Cred recommended the use of 2% silver nitrate in the eyes of newborns to
reduce the incidence of blindness.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: Page 2 OBJ: 1
TOP: Use of Silver Nitrate KEY: Nursing Process Step: N/A
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection of
Disease | Chapter 01: Using Evidence in Practice
Perry et al.: Clinical Nursing Skills & Techniques, 9th Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
- Evidence-based practice is a problem-solving approach to making decisions about patient care that is grounded in:
a. |
the latest information found in textbooks. |
b. |
systematically conducted research studies. |
c. |
tradition in clinical practice. |
d. |
quality improvement and risk-management data. |
ANS: B
The best evidence comes from well-designed, systematically conducted research studies described in scientific journals. Portions of a textbook often become outdated by the time it is published. Many health care settings do not have a process to help staff adopt new evidence in practice, and nurses in practice settings lack easy access to risk-management data, relying instead on tradition or convenience. Some sources of evidence do not originate from research. These include quality improvement and risk-management data; infection control data; retrospective or concurrent chart reviews; and clinicians’ expertise. Although non–research-based evidence is often very valuable, it is important that you learn to rely more on research-based evidence.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: Text reference: p. 2
OBJ: Discuss the benefits of evidence-based practice.
TOP: Evidence-Based Practice KEY: Nursing Process Step: Assessment
MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment (management of care)
- When evidence-based practice is used, patient care will be:
a. |
standardized for all. |
b. |
unhampered by patient culture. |
c. |
variable according to the situation. |
d. |
safe from the hazards of critical thinking. |
ANS: C
Using your clinical expertise and considering patients’ cultures, values, and preferences ensures that you will apply available evidence in practice ethically and appropriately. Even when you use the best evidence available, application and outcomes will differ; as a nurse, you will develop critical thinking skills to determine whether evidence is relevant and appropriate.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: Text reference: p. 2
OBJ: Discuss the benefits of evidence-based practice.
TOP: Evidence-Based Practice KEY: Nursing Process Step: Assessment
MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment (management of care)
- When a PICOT question is developed, the letter that corresponds with the usual standard of care is:
ANS: C
C = Comparison of interest. What standard of care or current intervention do you usually use now in practice?
P = Patient population of interest. Identify your patient by age, gender, ethnicity, disease, or health problem.
I = Intervention of interest. What intervention (e.g., treatment, diagnostic test, and prognostic factor) do you think is worthwhile to use in practice?
O = Outcome. What result (e.g., change in patient’s behavior, physical finding, and change in patient’s perception) do you wish to achieve or observe as the result of an intervention?
DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: Text reference: p. 3
OBJ: Develop a PICO question. TOP: PICO
KEY: Nursing Process Step: Implementation
MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment (management of care)
- A well-developed PICOT question helps the nurse:
a. |
search for evidence. |
b. |
include all five elements of the sequence. |
c. |
find as many articles as possible in a literature search. |
d. |
accept standard clinical routines. |
ANS: A
The more focused a question that you ask is, the easier it is to search for evidence in the scientific literature. A well-designed PICOT question does not have to include all five elements, nor does it have to follow the PICOT sequence. Do not be satisfied with clinical routines. Always question and use critical thinking to consider better ways to provide patient care.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis REF: Text reference: p. 3
OBJ: Describe the six steps of evidence-based practice.
TOP: Evidence-Based Practice KEY: Nursing Process Step: Implementation
MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment (management of care)
- The nurse is not sure that the procedure the patient requires is the best possible for the situation. Utilizing which of the following resources would be the quickest way to review research on the topic?
a. |
CINAHL |
b. |
PubMed |
c. |
MEDLINE |
d. |
The Cochrane Database |
ANS: D
The Cochrane Community Database of Systematic Reviews is a valuable source of synthesized evidence (i.e., pre-appraised evidence). The Cochrane Database includes the full text of regularly updated systematic reviews and protocols for reviews currently happening. MEDLINE, CINAHL, and PubMed are among the most comprehensive databases and represent the scientific knowledge base of health care.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Synthesis REF: Text reference: p. 4
OBJ: Describe the six steps of evidence-based practice.
TOP: Evidence-Based Practice KEY: Nursing Process Step: Implementation
MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment (management of care)
- The nurse is getting ready to develop a plan of care for a patient who has a specific need. The best source for developing this plan of care would probably be:
a. |
The Cochrane Database. |
b. |
MEDLINE. |
c. |
NGC. |
d. |
CINAHL. |
ANS: C
The National Guidelines Clearinghouse (NGC) is a database supported by the Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ). It contains clinical guidelines—systematically developed statements about a plan of care for a specific set of clinical circumstances involving a specific patient population. The NGC is a valuable source when you want to develop a plan of care for a patient. The Cochrane Community Database of Systematic Reviews, MEDLINE, and CINAHL are all valuable sources of synthesized evidence (i.e., pre-appraised evidence).
DIF: Cognitive Level: Synthesis REF: Text reference: p. 4
OBJ: Describe the six steps of evidence-based practice.
TOP: Evidence-Based Practice KEY: Nursing Process Step: Implementation
MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment (management of care)
- The nurse has done a literature search and found 25 possible articles on the topic that she is studying. To determine which of those 25 best fit her inquiry, the nurse first should look at:
a. |
the abstracts. |
b. |
the literature reviews. |
c. |
the “Methods” sections. |
d. |
the narrative sections. |
ANS: A
An abstract is a brief summary of an article that quickly tells you whether the article is research based or clinically based. An abstract summarizes the purpose of the study or clinical query, the major themes or findings, and the implications for nursing practice. The literature review usually gives you a good idea of how past research led to the researcher’s question. The “Methods” or “Design” section explains how a research study is organized and conducted to answer the research question or to test the hypothesis. The narrative of a manuscript differs according to the type of evidence-based article—clinical or research.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: Text reference: p. 7
OBJ: Discuss elements to review when critiquing the scientific literature.
TOP: Randomized Controlled Trials KEY: Nursing Process Step: Implementation
MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment (management of care)
- The nurse wants to determine the effects of cardiac rehabilitation program attendance on the level of postmyocardial depression for individuals who have had a myocardial infarction. The type of study that would best capture this information would be a:
a. |
randomized controlled trial. |
b. |
qualitative study. |
c. |
case control study. |
d. |
descriptive study. |
ANS: B
Qualitative studies examine individuals’ experiences with health problems and the contexts in which these experiences occur. A qualitative study is best in this case of an individual nurse who wants to examine the effectiveness of a local program. Randomized controlled trials involve close monitoring of control groups and treatment groups to test an intervention against the usual standard of care. Case control studies typically compare one group of subjects with a certain condition against another group without the condition, to look for associations between the condition and predictor variables. Descriptive studies focus mainly on describing the concepts under study.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Synthesis REF: Text reference: p. 6
OBJ: Discuss ways to apply evidence in nursing practice.
TOP: Randomized Controlled Trials KEY: Nursing Process Step: Implementation
MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment (management of care)
- Six months after an early mobility protocol was implemented, the incidence of deep vein thrombosis in patients was decreased. This is an example of what stage in the EBP process?
a. |
Asking a clinical question |
b. |
Applying the evidence |
c. |
Evaluating the practice decision |
d. |
Communicating your results |
ANS: C
After implementing a practice change, your next step is to evaluate the effect. You do this by analyzing the outcomes data that you collected during the pilot project. Outcomes evaluation tells you whether your practice change improved conditions, created no change, or worsened conditions.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: Text reference: p. 9
OBJ: Discuss ways to apply evidence in nursing practice.
TOP: Evidence-Based Practice KEY: Nursing Process Step: Evaluation
MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment (safety and infection control)
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
- To use evidence-based practice appropriately, you need to collect the most relevant and best evidence and to critically appraise the evidence you gather. This process also includes: (Select all that apply.)
a. |
asking a clinical question. |
b. |
applying the evidence. |
c. |
evaluating the practice decision. |
d. |
communicating your results. |
ANS: A, B, C, D | Medical-Surgical Nursing: Making Connections to Practice 1st edition Hoffman, Sullivan Test Bank
Chapter 1: Foundations for Medical-Surgical Nursing
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. The medical-surgical nurse identifies a clinical practice issue and wants to determine if there is sufficient evidence to support a change in practice. Which type of study provides the strongest evidence to support a
practice change?
1) Randomized control study
2) Quasi-experimental study
3) Case-control study
4) Cohort study
____ 2. The medical-surgical unit recently implemented a patient-centered care model. Which action implemented by
the nurse supports this model?
1) Evaluating care
2) Assessing needs
3) Diagnosing problems
4) Providing compassion
____ 3. Which action should the nurse implement when providing patient care in order to support The Joint
Commission’s (TJC) National Patient Safety Goals (NPSG)?
1) Silencing a cardiorespiratory monitor
2) Identifying each patient using one source
3) Determining patient safety issues upon admission
4) Decreasing the amount of pain medication administered
____ 4. Which interprofessional role does the nurse often assume when providing patient care in an acute care
setting?
1) Social worker
2) Client advocate
3) Care coordinator
4) Massage therapist
____ 5. The medical-surgical nurse wants to determine if a policy change is needed for an identified clinical problem.
Which is the first action the nurse should implement?
1) Developing a question
2) Disseminating the findings
3) Conducting a review of the literature
4) Evaluating outcomes of practice change
____ 6. The nurse is evaluating the level of evidence found during a recent review of the literature. Which evidence
carries the lowest level of support for a practice change?
1) Level IV
2) Level V
3) Level VI
4) Level VII
____ 7. The nurse is reviewing evidence from a quasi-experimental research study. Which level of evidence should
the nurse identify for this research study?
1) Level ITestBankWorld.org
2) Level II
3) Level III
4) Level IV
____ 8. Which level of evidence should the nurse identify when reviewing evidence from a single descriptive research
study?
1) Level IV
2) Level V
3) Level VI
4) Level VII
____ 9. Which statement should the nurse make when communicating the “S” in the SBAR approach for effective
communication?
1) “The patient presented to the emergency department at 0200 with lower left abdominal
pain.”
2) “The patient rated the pain upon admission as a 9 on a 10-point numeric scale.”
3) “The patient has no significant issues in the medical history.”
4) “The patient was given a prescribed opioid analgesic at 0300.”
____ 10. The staff nurse is communicating with the change nurse about the change of status of the patient. The nurse
would begin her communication with which statement if correctly using the SBAR format?
1) “The patient’s heartrate is 110.”
2) “I think this patient needs to be transferred to the critical care unit.”
3) “The patient is a 68-year-old male patient admitted last night.”
4) “The patient is complaining of chest pain.”
____ 11. Which nursing action exemplifies the Quality and Safety Education for Nursing (QSEN) competency of
safety?
1) Advocating for a patient who is experiencing pain
2) Considering the patient’s culture when planning care
3) Evaluating patient learning style prior to implementing discharge instructions
4) Assessing the right drug prior to administering a prescribed patient medication
____ 12. Which type of nursing is the root of all other nursing practice areas?
1) Pediatric nursing
2) Geriatric nursing
3) Medical-surgical nursing
4) Mental health-psychiatric nursing
____ 13. Which did the Nursing Executive Center of The Advisory Board identify as an academic-practice gap for new
graduate nurses?
1) Patient advocacy
2) Patient education
3) Disease pathophysiology
4) Therapeutic communication
____ 14. Which statement regarding the use of the nursing process in clinical practice is accurate?
1) “The nursing process is closely related to clinical decision-making.”
2) “The nursing process is used by all members of the interprofessional team to plan care.”
3) “The nursing process has 4 basic steps: assessment, planning, implementation,
evaluation.”
4) “The nursing process is being replaced by the implementation of evidence-based practice.”TestBankWorld.org
____ 15. Which is the basis of nursing care practices and protocols?
1) Assessment
2) Evaluation
3) Diagnosis
4) Research
____ 16. Which is a common theme regarding patient dissatisfaction related to care provided in the hospital setting?
1) Space in hospital rooms
2) Medications received to treat pain
3) Time spent with the health-care team
4) Poor quality food received from dietary
____ 17. The nurse manager is preparing a medical-surgical unit for The Joint Commission (TJC) visit With the nurse
manager presenting staff education focusing on TJC benchmarks, which of the following topics would be
most appropriate?
1) Implementation of evidence-based practice
2) Implementation of patient-centered care
3) Implementation of medical asepsis practices
4) Implementation of interprofessional care
____ 18. Which aspect of patient-centered care should the nurse manager evaluate prior to The Joint Commission site
visit for accreditation?
1) Visitation rights
2) Education level of staff
3) Fall prevention protocol
4) Infection control practices
____ 19. The medical-surgical nurse is providing patient care. Which circumstance would necessitate the nurse
verifying the patient’s identification using at least two sources?
1) Prior to delivering a meal tray
2) Prior to passive range of motion
3) Prior to medication administration
4) Prior to documenting in the medical record
____ 20. The nurse is providing care to several patients on a medical-surgical unit. Which situation would necessitate
the nurse to use SBAR during the hand-off process?
1) Wound care
2) Discharge to home
3) Transfer to radiology
4) Medication education
Multiple Response
Identify one or more choices that best complete the statement or answer the question.
____ 21. The staff nurse is teaching a group of student nurses the situations that necessitate hand-off communication.
Which student responses indicate the need for further education related to this procedure? Select all that
apply.
1) “A hand-off is required prior to administering a medication.”
2) “A hand-off is required during change of shift.”
3) “A hand-off is required for a patient is transferred to the surgical suite.”TestBankWorld.org
4) “A hand-off is required whenever the nurse receives a new patient assignment.”
5) “A hand-off is required prior to family visitation.”
____ 22. Which actions by the nurse enhance patient safety during medication administration? Select all that apply.
1) Answering the call bell while transporting medications for a different patient
2) Identifying the patient using two sources prior to administering the medication
3) Holding a medication if the patient’s diagnosis does not support its use
4) Administering the medication two hours after the scheduled time
5) Having another nurse verify the prescribed dose of insulin the patient is to receive
____ 23. The medical-surgical nurse assumes care for a patient who is receiving continuous cardiopulmonary
monitoring. Which actions by the nurse enhance safety for this patient? Select all that apply.
1) Silencing the alarm during family visitation
2) Assessing the alarm parameters at the start of the shift
3) Responding to the alarm in a timely fashion
4) Decreasing the alarm volume to enhance restful sleep
5) Adjusting alarm parameters based on specified practitioner prescription
____ 24. The nurse is planning an interprofessional care conference for a patient who is approaching discharge from
the hospital. Which members of the interprofessional team should the nurse invite to attend? Select all that
apply.
1) Physician
2) Pharmacist
3) Unit secretary
4) Social worker
5) Home care aide
____ 25. The nurse manager wants to designate a member of the nursing team as the care coordinator for a patient who
will require significant care during the hospitalization. Which skills should this nurse possess in order to
assume this role? Select all that apply.
1) Effective clinical reasoning
2) Effective communication skills
3) Effective infection control procedures
4) Effective documentation
5) Effective intravenous skillsTestBankWorld.org
Chapter 1: Foundations for Medical-Surgical Nursing
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. ANS: 1
Chapter number and title: 1, Foundations for Medical Surgical Practice
Chapter learning objective: Discussing the incorporation of evidence-based practices into medical-surgical
nursing
Chapter page reference: 003-004
Heading: Evidence-Based Nursing Care
Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Planning
Client Need: Safe and Effective Care Environment/Management of Care
Cognitive level: Comprehension [Understanding]
Concept: Evidence-Based Practice
Difficulty: Easy
Feedback
1 Systematic reviews of randomized control studies (Level I) are the highest level of
evidence because they include data from selected studies that randomly assigned
participants to control and experimental groups. The lower the numerical rating of the
level of evidence indicates the highest level of evidence; therefore, this type of study
provides the strongest evidence to support a practice change.
2 Quasi-experimental studies are considered Level III; therefore, this study does not
provide the strongest evidence to support a practice change.
3 Case-control studies are considered Level IV; therefore, this study does not provide the
strongest evidence to support a practice change.
4 Cohort studies are considered Level IV; therefore, this study does not provide the
strongest evidence to support a practice change.
PTS: 1 CON: Evidence-Based Practice
2. ANS: 4
Chapter number and title: 1, Foundations of Medical-Surgical Practice
Chapter learning objective: Explaining the importance of patient-centered care in the management of
medical-surgical patients
Chapter page reference: 004-005
Heading: Patient-Centered Care in the Medical-Surgical Setting
Integrated Processes: Caring
Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity
Cognitive level: Application [Applying]
Concept: Nursing Roles
Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
1 Evaluation is a step in the nursing process; however, this is not an action that supports
the patient-centered care model.
2 Assessment is a step in the nursing process; however, this is not an action that supports
the patient-centered care model.TestBankWorld.org
3 Diagnosis is a step in the nursing process; however, this is not an action that supports
the patient-centered care model.
4 Compassion is a competency closely associated with patient-centered care; therefore,
this action supports the patient-centered model of care.
PTS: 1 CON: Nursing Roles
3. ANS: 3
Chapter number and title: 1, Foundations of Medical-Surgical Nursing Practice
Chapter learning objective: Discussing implications to medical-surgical nurses of Quality and Safety
Education for Nurses (QSEN) competencies
Chapter page reference: 005-006
Heading: Patient Safety Outcomes
Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Implementation
Client Need: Safe and Effective Care Environment/Management of Care
Cognitive level: Application [Applying]
Concept: Safety
Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
1 Safely using alarms is a NPSG identified by TJC. Silencing a cardiorespiratory monitor
is not nursing action that supports this NPSG.
2 Patient identification using two separate resources is a NPSG identified by TJC.
Identifying a patient using only one source does not support this NPSG.
3 Identification of patient safety risks is a NPSG identified by the TJC. Determining
patient safety issues upon admission supports this NPSG.
4 Safe use of medication is a NPSG identified by the TJC. Decreasing the amount of pain
medication administered does not support this NPSG.
PTS: 1 CON: Safety
4. ANS: 3
Chapter number and title: 1, Foundations of Medical-Surgical Nursing Practice
Chapter learning objective: Describing the role and competencies of medical-surgical nursing
Chapter page reference: 006-007
Heading: Interprofessional Collaboration and Communication
Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Implementation
Client Need: Safe and Effective Care Environment/Management of Care
Cognitive level: Comprehension [Understanding]
Concept: Nursing Roles
Difficulty: Easy
Feedback
1 The nurse does not often assume the interprofessional role of social worker when
providing patient care in an acute care setting.
2 The nurse does not often assume the interprofessional role of client advocate role when
providing patient care in an acute care setting.
3 The nurse often assumes the interprofessional role of care coordinator when providing
patient care in an acute care setting.
4 The nurse does not often assume the interprofessional role of massage therapist when
providing patient care in an acute care setting.TestBankWorld.org
PTS: 1 CON: Nursing Roles
5. ANS: 1
Chapter number and title: 1, Foundations of Medical-Surgical Practice
Chapter learning objective: Discussing the incorporation of evidence-based practices into medical-surgical
nursing
Chapter page reference: 003
Heading: Box 1.3 Steps of Evidence-Based Practice
Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Implementation
Client Need: Safe and Effective Care Environment/Management of Care
Cognitive level: Analysis [Analyzing]
Concept: Evidence-Based Practice
Difficulty: Difficult
Feedback
1 The first step of evidence-based practice is to develop a question based on the clinical
issue.
2 The last step of evidence-based practice is to disseminate findings.
3 The second step of evidence-based practice is to conduct a review of the literature, or
current evidence, available.
4 The fifth step of evidence-based practice is to evaluate the outcomes associated with the
practice change.
PTS: 1 CON: Evidence-Based Practice
6. ANS: 4
Chapter number and title: 1, Foundations of Medical-Surgical Nursing Practice
Chapter learning objective: Discussing the incorporation of evidence-based practices into medical-surgical
nursing
Chapter page reference: 004
Heading: Box 1.4 Evaluating Levels of Evidence
Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Planning
Client Need: Safe and Effective Care Environment/Management of Care
Cognitive level: Comprehension [Understanding]
Concept: Evidence-Based Practice
Difficulty: Easy
Feedback
1 The lower the numeric value of the evidence the greater the support for a change in
practice. Level IV evidence does not carry the lowest level of support for a practice
change.
2 The lower the numeric value of the evidence the greater the support for a change in
practice. Level V evidence does not carry the lowest level of support for a practice
change.
3 The lower the numeric value of the evidence the greater the support for a change in
practice. Level VI evidence does not carry the lowest level of support for a practice
change.
4 The lower the numeric value of the evidence the greater the support for a change in
practice. Level VII evidence carries the lowest level of support for a practice change.
| Chapter 01: Foundations of Maternity, Women’s Health, and Child Health Nursing
MULTIPLE CHOICE
- Which factor significantly contributed to the shift from home births to hospital births in the early 20th century?
a. |
Puerperal sepsis was identified as a risk factor in labor and delivery. |
b. |
Forceps were developed to facilitate difficult births. |
c. |
The importance of early parental-infant contact was identified. |
d. |
Technologic developments became available to physicians. |
ANS: D
Technologic developments were available to physicians, not lay midwives. So in-hospital births increased in order to take advantage of these advancements. Puerperal sepsis has been a known problem for generations. In the late 19th century, Semmelweis discovered how it could be prevented with improved hygienic practices. The development of forceps is an example of a technology advance made in the early 20th century but is not the only reason birthplaces moved. Unlike home births, early hospital births hindered bonding between parents and their infants.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remembering
REF: p. 1 OBJ: Integrated Process: Teaching-Learning
MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
- Family-centered maternity care developed in response to
a. |
demands by physicians for family involvement in childbirth. |
b. |
the Sheppard-Towner Act of 1921. |
c. |
parental requests that infants be allowed to remain with them rather than in a nursery. |
d. |
changes in pharmacologic management of labor. |
ANS: C
As research began to identify the benefits of early extended parent-infant contact, parents began to insist that the infant remain with them. This gradually developed into the practice of rooming-in and finally to family-centered maternity care. Family-centered care was a request by parents, not physicians. The Sheppard-Towner Act of 1921 provided funds for state-managed programs for mothers and children. The changes in pharmacologic management of labor were not a factor in family-centered maternity care.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remembering
REF: p. 2 OBJ: Integrated Process: Teaching-Learning
MSC: Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity
- Which setting for childbirth allows the least amount of parent-infant contact?
a. |
Labor/delivery/recovery/postpartum room |
b. |
Birth center |
c. |
Traditional hospital birth |
d. |
Home birth |
ANS: C
In the traditional hospital setting, the mother may see the infant for only short feeding periods, and the infant is cared for in a separate nursery. The labor/delivery/recovery/postpartum room setting allows increased parent-infant contact. Birth centers are set up to allow an increase in parent-infant contact. Home births allow an increase in parent-infant contact.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remembering
REF: p. 2 OBJ: Nursing Process: Planning
MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
- As a result of changes in health care delivery and funding, a current trend seen in the pediatric setting is
a. |
increased hospitalization of children. |
b. |
decreased number of children living in poverty. |
c. |
an increase in ambulatory care. |
d. |
decreased use of managed care. |
ANS: C
One effect of managed care has been that pediatric health care delivery has shifted dramatically from the acute care setting to the ambulatory setting in order to provide more cost-efficient care. The number of hospital beds being used has decreased as more care is given in outpatient settings and in the home. The number of children living in poverty has increased over the past decade. One of the biggest changes in health care has been the growth of managed care.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remembering
REF: p. 5 OBJ: Nursing Process: Planning
MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
- The Women, Infants, and Children (WIC) program provides
a. |
well-child examinations for infants and children living at the poverty level. |
b. |
immunizations for high-risk infants and children. |
c. |
screening for infants with developmental disorders. |
d. |
supplemental food supplies to low-income pregnant or breastfeeding women. |
ANS: D
WIC is a federal program that provides supplemental food supplies to low-income women who are pregnant or breastfeeding and to their children until age 5 years. Medicaid’s Early and Periodic Screening, Diagnosis, and Treatment Program provides for well-child examinations and for treatment of any medical problems diagnosed during such checkups. Children in the WIC program are often referred for immunizations, but that is not the primary focus of the program. Public Law 99-457 is part of the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act that provides financial incentives to states to establish comprehensive early intervention services for infants and toddlers with, or at risk for, developmental disabilities.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 8
OBJ: Integrated Process: Teaching-Learning
MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
- In most states, adolescents who are not emancipated minors must have the permission of their parents before
a. |
treatment for drug abuse. |
b. |
treatment for sexually transmitted diseases (STDs). |
c. |
accessing birth control. |
d. |
surgery. |
ANS: D
Minors are not considered capable of giving informed consent, so a surgical procedure would require consent of the parent or guardian. Exceptions exist for obtaining treatment for drug abuse or STDs or for getting birth control in most states.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remembering
REF: p. 17 OBJ: Nursing Process: Planning
MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
- The maternity nurse should have a clear understanding of the correct use of a clinical pathway. One characteristic of clinical pathways is that they
a. |
are developed and implemented by nurses. |
b. |
are used primarily in the pediatric setting. |
c. |
set specific time lines for sequencing interventions. |
d. |
are part of the nursing process. |
ANS: C
Clinical pathways are standardized, interdisciplinary plans of care devised for patients with a particular health problem. They are used to identify patient outcomes, specify time lines to achieve those outcomes, direct appropriate interventions and sequencing of interventions, include interventions from a variety of disciplines, promote collaboration, and involve a comprehensive approach to care. They are developed by multiple health care professionals and reflect interdisciplinary care. They can be used in multiple settings and for patients throughout the life span. They are not part of the nursing process but can be used in conjunction with the nursing process to provide care to patients.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remembering
REF: p. 7 OBJ: Nursing Process: Planning
MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
- The fastest growing group of homeless people is
a. |
men and women preparing for retirement. |
b. |
migrant workers. |
c. |
single women and their children. |
d. |
intravenous (IV) substance abusers. |
ANS: C
Pregnancy and birth, especially for a teenager, are important contributing factors for becoming homeless. People preparing for retirement, migrant workers, and IV substance abusers are not among the fastest growing groups of homeless people.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remembering
REF: p. 14 OBJ: Nursing Process: Assessment
MSC: Client Needs: Physiologic Integrity
- A nurse wishes to work to reduce infant mortality in the United States. Which activity would this nurse most likely participate in?
a. |
Creating pamphlets in several different languages using an interpreter. |
b. |
Assisting women to enroll in Medicaid by their third trimester. |
c. |
Volunteering to provide prenatal care at community centers. |
d. |
Working as an intake counselor at a women’s shelter. |
ANS: C
Prenatal care is vital to reducing infant mortality and medical costs. This nurse would most likely participate in community service providing prenatal care outreach activities in community centers, particularly in low-income areas. Pamphlets in other languages, enrolling in Medicaid, and working at a women’s shelter all might impact infant mortality, but the greatest effect would be from assisting women to get consistent prenatal care.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application/Applying
REF: p. 14 OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation
MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
- The intrapartum woman sees no need for a routine admission fetal monitoring strip. If she continues to refuse, what is the first action the nurse should take?
a. |
Consult the family of the woman. |
b. |
Notify the provider of the situation. |
c. |
Document the woman’s refusal in the nurse’s notes. |
d. |
Make a referral to the hospital ethics committee. |
ANS: B
Patients must be allowed to make choices voluntarily without undue influence or coercion from others. The physician, especially if unaware of the patient’s decision, should be notified immediately. Both professionals can work to ensure the mother understands the rationale for the action and the possible consequences of refusal. The woman herself is the decision-maker, unless incapacitated. Documentation should occur but is not the first action. This situation does not rise to the level of an ethical issue so there is no reason to call the ethics committee.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application/Applying
REF: p. 18 OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation
MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
- Which statement is true regarding the “quality assurance” or “incident” report?
a. |
The report assures the legal department that no problem exists. |
b. |
Reports are a permanent part of the patient’s chart. |
c. |
The nurse’s notes should contain, “Incident report filed, and copy placed in chart.” |
d. |
This report is a form of documentation of an event that may result in legal action. |
ANS: D
An incident report is used when something occurs that might result in legal action, such as a patient fall or medication error. It warns the legal department that there may be a problem in a particular patient’s care. Incident reports are not part of the patient’s chart; thus the nurses’ notes should not contain any reference to them.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge/Remembering
REF: p. 18 OBJ: Integrated Process: Communication and Documentation
MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
- Elective abortion is considered an ethical issue because
a. |
abortion law is unclear about a woman’s constitutional rights. |
b. |
the Supreme Court ruled that life begins at conception. |
c. |
a conflict exists between the rights of the woman and the rights of the fetus. |
d. |
it requires third-party consent. |
ANS: C |
Sample Questions
Chapter 04: Genetic Issues
Urden: Critical Care Nursing, 8th Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
- What is a genetic variant that exists in greater than 1% of the population termed?
a. |
Genetic mutation |
b. |
Genetic polymorphism |
c. |
Genetic deletion |
d. |
Tandem repeat |
ANS: B
When a genetic variant occurs frequently and is present in 1% or more of the population, it is described as a genetic polymorphism. The term genetic mutation refers to a change in the DNA genetic sequence that can be inherited that occurs in less than 1% of the population. Genetic material in the chromosome can also be deleted and new information from another chromosome can be inserted or can be a tandem repeat (multiple repeats of the same sequence).
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Remembering REF: p. 43
OBJ: Nursing Process Step: General TOP: Genetics in Critical Care
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance
- Which type of genetic disorder occurs when there is an interaction between genetic and environmental factors such as that which occurs with type 2 diabetes?
a. |
Chromosome |
b. |
Mitochondrial |
c. |
Multifactorial disorders |
d. |
Allele dysfunction |
ANS: C
In multifactorial disorders there is an interaction between vulnerable genes and the environment. Cardiovascular atherosclerotic diseases and type 2 diabetes are examples of multifactorial disorders that result from an interaction of genetic and environmental factors.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Understanding REF: p. 46
OBJ: Nursing Process Step: General TOP: Genetics in Critical Care
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance
- Prader-Willi syndrome (PWS) is a rare genetic disorder in which genes on chromosome 15 (q11.2-13) are deleted. What type of disorder is PWS?
a. |
Chromosome disorder |
b. |
Mitochondrial disorder |
c. |
Complex gene disorder |
d. |
Multifactorial disorder |
ANS: A
Prader-Willi syndrome (PWS) is a chromosome disorder as a result of several missing genes on chromosome 15. In chromosome disorders, the entire chromosome or very large segments of the chromosome are damaged, missing, duplicated, or otherwise altered.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Applying REF: p. 45
OBJ: Nursing Process Step: General TOP: Genetics in Critical Care
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance
- A family pedigree is used to determine whether a disease has a genetic component. What does a proband indicate in a family pedigree?
a. |
The disease being mother related or father related |
b. |
The first person in the family who was diagnosed with the disorder |
c. |
Who in the family is the xy band |
d. |
The disease genotype including locus |
ANS: B
For nurses, it is important to ask questions that elucidate which family members are affected versus those who are unaffected and then to identify the individuals who may carry the gene in question but who do not have symptoms (carriers). The proband is the name given to the first person diagnosed in the family pedigree. Homozygous versus heterozygous determines if the disorder is carried by a gene from one or both parents. The xy band determines if the disorder is carried through the sex genes. A disease locus is the genetic address of the disorder.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Remembering REF: p. 46
OBJ: Nursing Process Step: General TOP: Genetics in Critical Care
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance
- Philadelphia translocation is a specific chromosomal abnormality that occurs from a reciprocal translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22, where parts of these two chromosomes switch places. This abnormality is associated with which disease?
a. |
Hemophilia A |
b. |
Chronic myelogenous leukemia |
c. |
Obesity |
d. |
Marfan syndrome |
ANS: B
Philadelphia chromosome or Philadelphia translocation is a specific chromosomal abnormality associated with chronic myelogenous leukemia. It occurs from a reciprocal translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22, where parts of these two chromosomes switch places. Hemophilia A is a sex-linked inheritance. Obesity is being studied with the FTO gene on chromosome 16. Marfan syndrome is classified as a single-gene disorder.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Remembering REF: p. 42
OBJ: Nursing Process Step: General TOP: Genetics in Critical Care
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance
- What was the goal of the Human Genome Project?
a. |
Identifying haplotype tags |
b. |
Exposing untaggable SNPs and recombination hot spots |
c. |
Producing a catalog of human genome variation |
d. |
Mapping all the human genes |
ANS: D
The Human Genome Project was a huge international collaborative project that began in 1990 with the goal of making a map of all the human genes (the genome). The final genome sequence was published in 2003. The HapMap project was to identify haplotype tags. The Genome-Wide Association Studies was used to expose untaggable SNPs and recombination hot spots. The 1000 Genomes project was used to map all the human genes.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Remembering REF: p. 49
OBJ: Nursing Process Step: General TOP: Genetics in Critical Care
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance
- The patient is placed under general anesthesia for a carotid endarterectomy. During the surgery, the patient develops muscle contracture with skeletal muscle rigidity, acidosis, and elevated temperature. What is a possible cause for malignant hyperthermia?
a. |
Polymorphism in RYR1 at chromosome 19q13.1 |
b. |
Variant in the VKOR1 gene |
c. |
Variant in the cytochrome P450 enzyme CYP2C9 gene |
d. |
Halothane overdose |
ANS: A
Individuals with polymorphisms in the ryanodine receptor gene (RYR1) at chromosome 19q13.1 are at risk of a rare pharmacogenetic condition known as malignant hyperthermia. In affected individuals, exposure to inhalation anesthetics and depolarizing muscle relaxants during general anesthesia induces life-threatening muscle contracture with skeletal muscle rigidity, acidosis, and elevated temperature. Warfarin is being researched as a variant in the VKOR1 gene and in the cytochrome P450 enzyme CYP2C9 gene.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Evaluating REF: p. 53|Box 4-3
OBJ: Nursing Process Step: Diagnosis TOP: Genetics in Critical Care
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance
- What is the study of heredity particularly as it relates to the transfer heritable physical characteristics called?
a. |
Chromatids |
b. |
Karyotype |
c. |
Genetics |
d. |
Histones |
ANS: C
Genetics refers to the study of heredity, particularly as it relates to the ability of individual genes to transfer heritable physical characteristics. Each somatic chromosome, also called an autosome, is made of two strands, called chromatids, which are joined near the center. A karyotype is the arrangement of human chromosomes from largest to smallest. A specialized class of proteins called histones organizes the double-stranded DNA into what looks like a tightly coiled telephone cord.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Remembering REF: p. 54
OBJ: Nursing Process Step: General TOP: Genetics in Critical Care
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance
- Each chromosome consists of an unbroken strand of DNA inside the nucleus of the cell. What is the arrangement of human chromosomes termed?
a. |
Chromatids |
b. |
Karyotype |
c. |
Genomics |
d. |
Histones |
ANS: B
A karyotype is the arrangement of human chromosomes from largest to smallest. Each somatic chromosome, also called an autosome, is made of two strands, called chromatids, which are joined near the center. Genomics refers to the study of all of the genetic material within cells and encompasses the environmental interaction and impact on biologic and physical characteristics. A specialized class of proteins called histones organizes the double-stranded DNA into what looks like a tightly coiled telephone cord.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Remembering REF: p. 39
OBJ: Nursing Process Step: General TOP: Genetics in Critical Care
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance
- What is the study of all the genetic material within the cell and its impact on biologic and physical characteristics called?
a. |
Chromatids |
b. |
Karyotype |
c. |
Genomics |
d. |
Histones |
ANS: C
Genomics refers to the study of all of the genetic material within cells and encompasses the environmental interaction and impact on biologic and physical characteristics. Each somatic chromosome, also called an autosome, is made of two strands, called chromatids, which are joined near the center. A karyotype is the arrangement of human chromosomes from largest to smallest. A specialized class of proteins called histones organizes the double-stranded DNA into what looks like a tightly coiled telephone cord.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Remembering REF: p. 39
OBJ: Nursing Process Step: General TOP: Genetics in Critical Care
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance
- A specialized class of proteins that organizes the double-stranded DNA into what looks like a tightly coiled telephone cord is known which of the following?
a. |
Chromatids |
b. |
Karyotype |
c. |
Genomics |
d. |
Histones |
ANS: D
A specialized class of proteins called histones organizes the double-stranded DNA into what looks like a tightly coiled telephone cord. Genomics refers to the study of all of the genetic material within cells and encompasses the environmental interaction and impact on biologic and physical characteristics. Each somatic chromosome, also called an autosome, is made of two strands, called chromatids, which are joined near the center. A karyotype is the arrangement of human chromosomes from largest to smallest.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Remembering REF: p. 39
OBJ: Nursing Process Step: General TOP: Genetics in Critical Care
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance
- To achieve a consistent distance across the width of the DNA strand, the nucleotide base guanine (G) can only be paired with what other genetic material?
a. |
Adenine (A) |
b. |
Thymine (T) |
c. |
Cytosine (C) |
d. |
Sex chromosome X |
ANS: C
Four nucleotide bases—adenine (A), thymine (T), guanine (G), and cytosine (C)—comprise the “letters” in the genetic DNA “alphabet.” The bases in the double helix are paired T with A and G with C. The nucleotide bases are designed so that only G can pair with C and only T can pair with A to achieve a consistent distance across the width of the DNA strand. The TA and GC combinations are known as base pairs.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Evaluating REF: p. 40
OBJ: Nursing Process Step: Diagnosis TOP: Genetics in Critical Care
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance
- Why are monozygotic twins separated at birth used to study the effects of genetics versus environment?
a. |
They share an identical genome. |
b. |
They have different sex chromosomes. |
c. |
They have mirror chromosomes. |
d. |
They have identical health issues. |
ANS: A
Studies of identical twins offer a unique opportunity to investigate the association of genetics, environment, and health. Identical twins are monozygotic and share an identical genome. Monozygotic twins are the same sex. Studies occur much less frequently today because tremendous efforts are made to keep siblings together when they are adopted. Genetics can be stable in a study group, but the environment and health issues are dynamic even in a controlled study group.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Remembering REF: p. 48
OBJ: Nursing Process Step: General TOP: Genetics in Critical Care
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance
- The process that is used to make polypeptide chains that constitute proteins can be written as:
a. |
RNA ® DNA ® protein. |
b. |
DNA ® RNA ® protein. |
c. |
Protein ® RNA ® DNA. |
d. |
Protein ® DNA ® RNA. |
ANS: B
The nucleotides A, T, C, and G can be thought of as “letters” of a genetic alphabet that are combined into three-letter “words” that are transcribed (written) by the intermediary of ribonucleic acid (RNA). The RNA translates the three-letter words into the amino acids used to make the polypeptide chains that constitute proteins. This process may be written as DNA ® RNA ® protein.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Remembering REF: p. 41
OBJ: Nursing Process Step: Diagnosis TOP: Genetics in Critical Care
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance
- What are the studies called that are done on large, extended families who have several family members affected with a rare disease?
a. |
Genetic association |
b. |
Genetic epidemiology |
c. |
Kinships |
d. |
Phenotypes |
ANS: C
In genetic epidemiologic research of a rare disease, it can be a challenge to find enough people to study. One method is to work with large, extended families, known as kinships, which have several family members affected with the disease. Genetic association studies are usually conducted in large, unrelated groups based on demonstration of a phenotype (disease trait or symptoms) and associated genotype. Genetic epidemiology represents the fusion of epidemiologic studies and genetic and genomic research methods. Phenotypes are different at different stages of a disease and are influenced by medications, environmental factors, and gene–gene interaction.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Remembering REF: p. 48
OBJ: Nursing Process Step: Diagnosis TOP: Genetics in Critical Care
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance
- What is an example of direct-to-consumer genomic testing?
a. |
Genetic testing through amniocentesis |
b. |
Paternity testing from buccal swabs of the child and father |
c. |
Biopsy of a lump for cancer |
d. |
Drug testing using hair follicles |
ANS: B
An example of direct-to-consumer testing is paternity testing from buccal swabs of the child and father. Genetic testing can be done through biopsies and amniocentesis, but they are performed in a facility by a medical professional. Drug testing and genomic testing are two different tests and are unrelated.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Evaluating REF: p. 53
OBJ: Nursing Process Step: Diagnosis TOP: Genetics in Critical Care
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance
- What was the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act (GINA) of 2008 designed to prevent from happening?
a. |
Abuse of genetic information in employment and health insurance decisions |
b. |
Genetic counselors from reporting results to the health insurance companies |
c. |
Mandatory genetics testing of all individuals with certain diseases |
d. |
Information sharing between biobanks that are studying the same genetic disorders |
ANS: A
The Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act (GINA) of 2008 is an essential piece of legislation designed to prevent abuse of genetic information in employment and health insurance decisions in the United States. One of the paramount concerns in the genomic era is to protect the privacy of individuals’ unique genetic information. Many countries have established biobanks as repositories of genetic material, and many tissue samples are stored in medical center tissue banks. Some people who may be at risk for a disorder disease will not be tested because they fear that a positive result may affect their employability. GINA also mandates that genetic information about an individual and his or her family has the same protections as health information.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Remembering REF: p. 53
OBJ: Nursing Process Step: Diagnosis TOP: Genetics in Critical Care
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
- Which patients would be candidates for genetic testing for long QT syndrome (LQTS)? (Select all that apply.)
a. |
Patients with prolonged QT interval during a cardiac and genetic work-up |
b. |
Family history of positive genotype and negative phenotype |
c. |
Patients diagnosed with torsades de pointes |
d. |
Family history of sudden cardiac death |
e. |
Family history of bleeding disorders |
f. |
Family history of obesity |
ANS: A, B, C, D | Old’s Maternal-Newborn Nursing and Women’s Health, 11e (Davidson/London/Ladewig)
Chapter 1 Contemporary Maternal-Newborn Nursing
- The nurse is speaking to students about changes in maternal-newborn care. One change is that self-care has gained wide acceptance with clients and the healthcare community due to research findings that suggest that it has which effect?
- Shortens newborn length of stay
- Decreases use of home health agencies
- Decreases healthcare costs
- Decreases the number of emergency department visits
Answer:C
Explanation:
- Length of stay is often determined by third-party payer (insurance company) policies as well as the physiologic stability of the mother and newborn. Home healthcare agencies often are involved in client care to decrease hospital stay time.
- Home healthcare agencies often are involved in client care to decrease hospital stay time.
- Research indicates that self-care significantly decreases healthcare costs.
- Acute emergencies are addressed by emergency departments, and are not delayed by those practicing self-care.
Page Ref: 3
Cognitive Level:Understanding
Client Need/Sub:Health Promotion and Maintenance: Self-Care
Standards: QSEN Competencies: Ⅰ.A.2. Describe strategies to empower patients or families in all aspects of the healthcare process. | AACN Essentials Competencies: Ⅸ.7. Provide appropriate patient teaching that reflects developmental stage, age, culture, spirituality, patient preferences, and health literacy considerations to foster patient engagement in their care. | NLN Competencies: Context and Environment: Health care economic policy; reimbursement structures; accreditation standards; staffing models and productivity; supply chain models | Nursing/Integrated Concepts: Nursing Process: Planning.
Learning Outcome:1 Discuss the impact of the self-care movement on contemporary childbirth.
MNL LO:Recognize contemporary issues related to care of the childbearing family.
- Care delivered by nurse-midwives can be safe and effective and can represent a positive response to the healthcare provider shortage. Nurse-midwives tend to use less technology, which often results in which of the following?
- There is less trauma to the mother.
- More childbirth education classes are available.
- They are instrumental in providing change in the birth environment at work.
- They advocate for more home healthcare agencies.
Answer:A
Explanation:
- Nurse-midwife models of care can be one way to ensure that mothers receive excellent prenatal and intrapartum care.
- It is appropriate for nurse-midwives, in conjunction with doctors and hospitals, to provide childbirth classes for expectant families.
- By working with other staff members and doctors, the nurse-midwife is able to implement changes as needed within the birthing unit.
- Clients are increasingly going home sooner, so there needs to be more follow-up in the home.
Page Ref: 3
Cognitive Level:Understanding
Client Need/Sub:Health Promotion and Maintenance: Health Promotion/Disease Prevention
Standards: QSEN Competencies: Ⅲ.A.6. Describe how the strength and relevance of available evidence influences the choice of interventions in provision of patient-centered care. | AACN Essentials Competencies: Ⅸ. 5. Deliver compassionate, patient-centered, evidence-based care that respects patient and family preferences. | NLN Competencies: Context and Environment: Read and interpret data; apply health promotion/disease prevention strategies; apply health policy; conduct population-based transcultural health assessments and interventions. | Nursing/Integrated Concepts: Nursing Process: Planning.
Learning Outcome:2 Compare the nursing roles available to the maternal-newborn nurse.
MNL LO:Recognize contemporary issues related to care of the childbearing family.
- The nurse is telling a new client how advanced technology has permitted the physician to do which of the following?
- Treat the fetus and monitor fetal development.
- Deliver at home with a nurse-midwife and doula.
- Have the father act as the coach and cut the umbilical cord.
- Breastfeed a new baby on the delivery table.
Answer:A
Explanation:
- The fetus is increasingly viewed as a patient separate from the mother, although treatment of the fetus necessarily involves the mother.
- A nurse-midwife and a doula are not examples of technological care.
- Fathers being present during labor and coaching their partners represents nontechnological care during childbirth.
- Breastfeeding is not an example of technology impacting care.
Page Ref: 2—3
Cognitive Level:Understanding
Client Need/Sub:Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
Standards:QSEN Competencies: Ⅰ.B.10. Engage patients or designated surrogates in active partnerships that promote health, safety and well-being, and self-care management. | AACN Essentials Competencies: Ⅸ.5. Deliver compassionate, patient-centered, evidence-based care that respects patient and family preferences. | NLN Competencies: Teamwork: Scope of practice, roles, and responsibilities of health care team members, including overlaps. | Nursing/Integrated Concepts: Nursing Process: Implementation.
Learning Outcome:6 Evaluate the potential impact of some of the special situations in contemporary maternity care.
MNL LO:Recognize contemporary issues related to care of the childbearing family.
- A nurse is examining different nursing roles. Which example best illustrates an advanced practice nursing role?
- A registered nurse who is the manager of a large obstetrical unit
- A registered nurse who is the circulating nurse during surgical deliveries (cesarean sections)
- A clinical nurse specialist working as a staff nurse on a mother-baby unit
- A clinical nurse specialist with whom other nurses consult for her expertise in caring for high-risk infants
Answer:D
Explanation:
- A registered nurse who is the manager of a large obstetrical unit is a professional nurse who has graduated from an accredited program in nursing and completed the licensure examination.
- A registered nurse who is a circulating nurse at surgical deliveries (cesarean sections) is a professional nurse who has graduated from an accredited program in nursing and completed the licensure examination.
- A clinical nurse specialist working as a staff nurse on a mother-baby unit might have the qualifications for an advanced practice nursing staff member but is not working in that capacity.
- A clinical nurse specialist with whom other nurses consult for expertise in caring for high-risk infants is working in an advanced practice nursing role. This nurse has specialized knowledge and competence in a specific clinical area, and is master’s prepared.
Page Ref: 5
Cognitive Level:Understanding
Client Need/Sub:Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
Standards:QSEN Competencies: Ⅱ.A.2. Describe scopes of practice and roles of healthcare team members. | AACN Essentials Competencies: Ⅵ. 6. Compare/contrast the roles and perspectives of the nursing profession with other care professionals on the healthcare team (i.e. scope of discipline, education, and licensure requirements). | NLN Competencies: Teamwork: Scope of practice, roles, and responsibilities of health care team members, including overlaps. | Nursing/Integrated Concepts: Nursing Process: Assessment.
Learning Outcome:2 Compare the nursing roles available to the maternal-newborn nurse.
MNL LO:Recognize contemporary issues related to care of the childbearing family.
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